ITIL Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
A
Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
2
Q
What is a RACI model used for?
A
Defining roles and responsibilities
3
Q
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases (CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
A
The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
4
Q
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A
Emergency CAB (ECAB)
5
Q
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A
Service Design
6
Q
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A
The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles
7
Q
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases (CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
A
The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
8
Q
The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS) A. Services and Infrastructure B. Applications and Infrastructure C. Resources and Capabilities D. Utility and Warranty
A
Resources and Capabilities
9
Q
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
A
The design of Market Spaces
10
Q
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
A
Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
11
Q
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts? A. Service Catalogue Manager B. IT Designer/Architect C. Process Manager D. Supplier Manager
A
Supplier Manager
12
Q
Exhibit: Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A
1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
13
Q
A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A
The contract is being negotiated
14
Q
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change? A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure C. A change that is made as the result of an audit D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
A
A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
15
Q
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A
To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
16
Q
Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure? A. Service Model B. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model C. RACI Model D. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
A
RACI Model
17
Q
The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is called the:
A
Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
18
Q
- How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio? 2. What services to offer and to whom? 3. What are the Patterns of business Activity (PBA)? Which of the questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
A
1, 2 and 3 are all true
19
Q
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?
A
Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
20
Q
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A
The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
21
Q
Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question “Did we get there?”?
A
Service Operation
22
Q
Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager? 1. Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements. 2. Designing the service so it can meet the targets. 3. Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place
A
1 and 3 only
23
Q
Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management? A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
A
Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
24
Q
In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A
Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
25
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB) B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS D. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
26
The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
Business Value
27
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?
Whether to buy an application or build it
28
What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
Customer / Business Needs
29
Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk? A. A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact B. A dedicated number of staff answering questions from users C. A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requests D. A dedicated number of staff handling service requests
A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requests
30
Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
Ensure delivery and support of a service
31
Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
Facilities Management
32
Exhibit: 1. Local Service Desk 2. Virtual Service Desk 3. IT Help Desk 4. Follow the Sun Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures? Please refer to the exhibit.
1, 2 and 4 only
33
"Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following? A. Markets and Customers B. Functions and Processes C. People, products and technology D. Applications and Infrastructure
Functions and Processes
34
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment? A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk C. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
35
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?
Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
36
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?
Service Level Management
37
What are the three Service Provider business models?
Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
38
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
Wisdom
39
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
Request Fulfillment
40
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? 1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation 2. All of the phase of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services.
2 only
41
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
42
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. Overall business risk is optimized
B. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management system
All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
43
How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
44
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB) B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB) C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
45
Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part of which process?
Demand Management
46
Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
Provide training and certification in project management.
47
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident? A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
48
The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
The design and development of services and service management processes
49
Governance is concerned with:
Reducing the total cost of providing services
50
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
Request Fulfillment
51
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
52
Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the following items need to be identified? A. Business Objectives, IT Objectives, Process Metrics B. Process Models, Goals and Objectives C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals D. Business and IT Strategy and Process Definitions
Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
53
1. It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholder 2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1 only
54
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
Resources and Capabilities
55
Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk? 1. Logging details of Incidents and service requests 2. Providing first line investigation and diagnosis 3. Restoring service 4. Diagnosing the root cause of problems
1, 2 and 3 only
56
What is the definition of an Alert?
A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
57
Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process? A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software media) B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-defined approval and qualification process exists C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for obtaining them
Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
58
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. Service Transition contains guidance on transferring services from strategy into the design phase of the Service Lifecycle B. Service Design provides guidance for the development of services and service management processes C. Continual Service Improvement contains guidance on supporting IT operations through models such as shared services D. Service Operation ensures that organizations are in a position to handle the costs and risks associated with their service portfolios
Service Design provides guidance for the development of services and service management processes
59
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
Wisdom
60
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process? A. It is measurable B. Delivers specific results C. A method of structuring an organization D. Responds to specific events
A method of structuring an organization
61
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
Service Catalogue Manager
62
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager? A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
63
The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual components
64
The term 'Service Management' is best used to describe?
A. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the
form of services
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing functions to customers in
the form of services
A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
65
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
66
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?
The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
67
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
Capacity Management
68
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB) C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
69
Which of the following delivery strategies is described as, "Formal arrangements between two or more organizations to work together to design, develop, transition, maintain, operate and/or support IT services"? A. Insourcing B. Multisourcing C. Knowledge Process Outsourcing D. Application Service Provision
Multisourcing
70
Which of the following should be done when closing an incident? 1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary 2. Check that user is satisfied with the outcome
Both of the above
71
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
B. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and
goals
C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
D. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
72
Which process contains the Business, Service and Component subprocesses?
Capacity Management
73
What are the three Service Provider business models?
Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
74
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT? A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives B. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice" C. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals D. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
75
A Service Level Agreement is?
An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer
76
One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?
Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
77
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?
The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
78
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle? A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization B. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
79
Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?
Performance Management
80
Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
Extreme internal focus
81
Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
Define what you should measure
82
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle? A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
83
The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a new service is called:
A Service Design Package
84
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?
The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
85
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
Capacity Management
86
Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)? A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held B. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software and licenses C. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
87
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is? A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle B. To design and build processes that will meet business needs C. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
88
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management system
B. Overall business risk is optimized
C. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
89
Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management? A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure B. Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application C. Deciding whether to buy or build an application D. Assisting in the design of the application
Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure
90
Which of the following might be used to manage an Incident? 1. Incident Model 2. Known Error Record
Both of the above
91
Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
Define what you should measure
92
What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types known as?
The ITIL Complementary guidance
93
A risk is:
Something that might happen
94
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
95
In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs?
It is possible that responsiveness may suffer and customers needs may not be met within business timescales
96
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
Wisdom
97
Major Incidents require?
Separate procedures
98
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design? A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue B. The design of the technology architecture and management systems C. The design of Market Spaces D. The design of new or changed services
The design of Market Spaces
99
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management? A. Eliminating recurring Incidents B. Minimizing the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented C. Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and Minimizing adverse impact on the business
Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and Minimizing adverse impact on the business
100
Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
101
Which of the following BEST describes a 'Major Incident'? A. An Incident that is so complex that the Service Desk takes longer than five times the normal time to log it B. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve C. An Incident which has a high impact on the business D. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before any workaround can be found
An Incident which has a high impact on the business
102
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle? A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization B. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
103
Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
Facilities Management
104
An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
Excessive focus on cost
105
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
106
Which of the following do Service Metrics measure? A. Processes and functions B. Infrastructure availability C. The end to end service D. Maturity and cost
The end to end service
107
"Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following? A. Functions and Processes B. Markets and Customers C. Applications and Infrastructure D. People, products and technology
Functions and Processes
108
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether
services have met their targets?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Level Management
D. Availability Management
Service Level Management
109
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice"
110
How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?
Displaying the relationships between configuration items
111
Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management? A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other C. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
112
Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?
The cause of one or more Incidents
113
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?
Whether to buy an application or build it
114
Which one of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is correct? A. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk activity B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff manage infrastructure devices not services C. Incident can only be reported by users, since they are only the only people who know when a service has been disrupted D. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruptions or potential disruption to normal service.This includes technical staff
Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruptions or potential disruption to normal service.This includes technical staff
115
Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
Access Management
116
The Service Catalogue can be BEST described as:
The part of the Service Portfolio that is visible to customers
117
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset? A. Applications and Infrastructure B. Services and Infrastructure C. Resources and Capabilities D. Utility and Warranty
Resources and Capabilities
118
Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
Extreme internal focus
119
What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?
An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
120
Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
IT Operations Management
121
Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management? A. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts. B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organizational Level Agreements C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements. D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio
Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.
122
Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool? A. Software design B. Process design C. Environment design D. Strategy design
Environment design
123
Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency? A. Governance B. Service Level Management C. Capacity Management D. Service Strategy
Service Level Management
124
Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?
Technical Management
125
Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators for Change Management?
The Change Management Process Owner
126
The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operional Level Agreement (OLA) is that:
An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreement
127
Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy? A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs B. To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services C. To transform Service Management into a strategic asset D. To underscore the importance of services in the global economy
To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services
128
Which of the following best describes a Service Request?
A request from a User for information or advice, or for a Standard Change
129
Which of the following are the main objectives of incident Management? Select all that apply A. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations B. To automatically detect service affecting Events C. The restore normal service operation as quickly as possible D. None of the other alternatives apply.
To minimize adverse impacts on business operations and The restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
130
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users
B. The impact of changes are better understood
C. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS)
To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users
131
When can a Known Error record be raised? 1. At any time it would be useful to do so 2. After the permanent solution has been implemented
1 only
132
What is the Service V Model used for?
Identifying different levels of validation and testing that can be carried out
133
Which of the following are valid examples of business value measures? 1. Customer retention 2. Time to market 3. Service Architecture 4. Market share
1, 2 and 4 only
134
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?
Data Information Knowledge Wisdom
135
Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?
Request Fulfillment
136
Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre? A. Service Desk B. IT Operations Control C. Facilities Management D. Technical Management
Facilities Management
137
Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is C
Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset
138
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base B. The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system D. The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System
The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system
139
Which stages of the Service Lifecycle does the 7 Step Improvement Process apply to?
Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
140
The three subprocesses of Capacity Management are:
Business Capacity Management, Service Capacity Management and Component Capacity Management
141
What is the BEST description of a 'Major Incident'?
An Incident which has a high priority or high impact on the business
142
An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
extreme focus on cost
143
Which of the following statements is INCORRECTLY assigned to its book?
A. contains guidance on transferring the control of services between customers and
service providers:SERVICE TRANSITION
B. ensures that organization are in a position to handle the costs and risks associated with
their service portfolios: SERVICE STRATEGY
C. provides guidance for the development of services and service management processes:
SERVICE DESIGN
D. contains guidance on supporting operations through new models and architectures,
such as shares services: CONTINUAL SERVICE IMPROVEMENT
contains guidance on supporting operations through new models and architectures, such as shares services: CONTINUAL SERVICE IMPROVEMENT
144
The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:
to ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
145
Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
Utility and Warranty
146
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
147
How many numbered steps are in the continual service improvement (CSI) process?
7 steps
148
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all the services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
service catalogue management
149
Which of the following is NOT a function? A. Technical Management B. Incident Management C. Service Desk D. Application Management
Incident Management
150
What is the RACI model used for?
defining roles and responsibilities
151
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Service design manager? A. Design and maintain all necessary service transition packages B. take the overall service strategies and ensure they are reflected in the service design process and the service designs that are produced C. measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes D. produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization
Design and maintain all necessary service transition packages
152
Exhibit: 1. allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives 2. measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved 3. Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI 4. Implement CSI enhancement Order the following continual service improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the CORRECT sequence in alignment with the plan, do check, act (PDCA) model.Please refer to the exhibit.
3-1-2-4
153
Which processes review underpinning contracts on a regular basis? A. to restore service to a user B. to manage problems throughout their lifecycle C. to prevent problems and their resultant incidents D. to minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
supplier management and service level management
154
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
A. to restore service to a user
B. to manage problems throughout their lifecycle
C. to prevent problems and their resultant incidents
D. to minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
to restore service to a user
155
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a standard change? A. a pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure B. a change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines C. a change to that correctly follows the requires change process D. a change that is made as the result of an audit
a pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
156
Even Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfillment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?
Service Operation
157
Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
request fulfillment
158
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the service catalogue manager? A. ensuring that all the operational services are recorded in the service catalogue B. ensuring that the information in the service catalogue is consistent with the information in the service portfolio C. ensuring that the information in the service catalogue is accurate D. ensuring that the information within the service pipeline is accurate
ensuring that the information within the service pipeline is accurate
159
Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?
the request fulfillment process owner
160
Which of the following is a valid role in the RACI Authority Matrix? A. Controlled B. Configuration C. Consulted D. Complex
Consulted
161
What does a service always have to deliver to its customers?
value
162
The two main parts of the service catalogue are:
the business service catalogue and the technical service catalogue
163
Which of these statements about assets, resources and capabilities is MOST accurate?
resources and capabilities are both types of asset
164
RACI is an acronym for four roles. Which of the following is NOT one of the RACI roles? A. consulted B. Reliable C. informed D. accountable
Reliable
165
Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of Change Management?
A. A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
B. A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management
C. A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of recent change
D. A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
166
IT operations management have been asked by a customer to carry out non-standard activity that will cause them to miss an agreed service level target. How should they respond?
A. the portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
B. the team of people responsible for implementing a release
C. a measurement of cost
D. a function described within service transition
make a decision based on balancing stability and responsiveness
167
Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of release unit?
A. the portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
B. the team of people responsible for implementing a release
C. a measurement of cost
D. a function described within service transition
the portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
168
Which of the following is NOT an example of self-help capabilities? A. requirement to always call the service desk for service requests B. a direct interface into the back end process-handling software C. web front-end D. menu-driven range of self help and service requests
requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
169
Exhibit: 1. Agreeing targets in service level agreements 2. Designing technology to support the service 3. Ensuring required contracts and agreement are in place
1 and 3 only
170
Major Incidents require:
separate procedures
171
Exhibit: 1. what is the vision? 2. where are we now? 3. where do we want to be ? 4. how do we get there? 5. did we get there ? 6. ? What would be the next step in the continual service improvement model (CSI) after (please refer to the exhibit).
how do we keep the momentum going?
172
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?
A. Overall business risk is optimized
B. standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes
C. all budgets and expenditures are accounted for
D. all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system
all budgets and expenditures are accounted for
173
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure? A. plan; predict; report; justify B. validate; direct; justify; intervene C. report; manage; improve; extend D. manage; monitor; diagnose; intervene
validate; direct; justify; intervene
174
Which of the following BEST describes a service request? A. anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for B. any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the change manager without a CAB meeting C. A request from a user for information or advice or for a standard change D. any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
A request from a user for information or advice or for a standard change
175
The MAIN purpose of the service portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
business value
176
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?
supplier manager
177
Service management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services.These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following? A. applications and infrastructure B. service pipelines and service catalogue C. functions and processes D. markets and customers
functions and processes
178
What is the BEST description of the purpose of service operation?
to deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers
179
The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
service metrics measure processes and functions; technology metrics measure server and network availability
180
Which functions are included in IT Operations management?
technical management and application management
181
The left-hand side of the service V model represents requirements and specifications. What does the righthand side of the service V model represent?
Validation and Testing
182
Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk? 1. capacity management 2. request management 3. demand management 4. incident management
2 and 4 only
183
Which process is responsible for providing the right to use an IT service?
access management
184
Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment? A. Evaluation B. Service Test Manager C. Release Packaging and Build Manager D. Early Life Support
Early Life Support
185
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition? A. to provide quality knowledge of change, release and deployment management B. to provide training and certification in project management C. to ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported D. to plan and manage the capacity and resources requirements to manage a release
to provide training and certification in project management
186
Availability management is responsible for availability of:
services and components
187
Which of the following BEST describes 'partners' in the phrase "people, processes, products and partners"? A. internal departments B. customers C. the facilities manager D. suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
188
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management? 1. to automatically detect service affecting events 2. to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible 3. to minimize the adverse impacts on business operations
2 and 3 only
189
Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment Process? A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard serviced (e.g. licenses and software media) B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-defined approval and qualification process exists C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for obtaining them
Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
190
Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 step improvement process? A. Prepare for action B. define what you should measure C. where are we now? D. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA achievement)
define what you should measure
191
One organization provides and manages an entire business or function for another organization. This is known as:
business process outsourcing
192
A service level agreement (SLA) is:
an agreement between the service provider and their customer
193
A single release unit, or a structured set of release units can be defined within:
the release package
194
The ITIL CORE publications are structured around the service lifecycle. Which of the following statements about ITIL complementary guidance is CORRECT? A. it consists of five publications B. it provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization C. it is also structured around the service lifecycle D. It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC 20000
it provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization
195
One of the five major aspects of service design is the design of the service solutions. Which of the following does this include? A. only capabilities needed and agreed B. only requirements needed and agreed C. only resources and capabilities needed D. requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
196
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process? A. a method of structuring an organization B. delivers specific results C. responds to specific events D. it is measurable
a method of structuring an organization
197
The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST describes as?
service metrics measure the end to end service; technology metrics measure individual components
198
Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?
the service owner
199
Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
service strategy
200
Exhibit: 1. Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when incidents are logged on 2. control of user desktop PCs 3. create and use diagnostic scripts 4. Dashboard type technology Which of the following areas would technology help support during the service operation phase of the lifecycle?Please refer to the exhibit.
All of the alternatives apply
201
Exhibit: 1. ensuring services are able to meet availability targets 2. monitoring and reporting actual availaility 3. improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals Which of the following does the availability management process include. Please refer to the exhibit.
1, 2 and 3.
202
Exhibit: 1. What services should we offer and to whom? 2. How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives? how do we truly create value for our customers? Which of the following questions does guidance in service strategy help answer? Please refer to the exhibit.
all of the alternatives apply
203
Which of the following is a sub-process of capacity management? A. component capacity management B. process capacity management C. technology capacity management D. capability capacity management
component capacity management
204
Which of the following BEST describes a service request? A. anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for B. a request from a user for information, advice of for a standard change C. any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface D. any request for change (RFC) that is low risk and can be approved by the change manager without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting
a request from a user for information, advice of for a standard change
205
The BEST process to automate are those that are?
simple and well understood
206
Which of the following is a good metric for measuring the effectiveness of Service Level management? A. Customer satisfaction score B. number of services deployed within agreed terms C. average number of daily incidents managed by each service agent D. number of services in the service portfolio
Customer satisfaction score
207
Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?
incident management
208
Which of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?
A. minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
B. eliminating recurring incidents
C. preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening
D. restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse
impact on business
restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse impact on business
209
Exhibit:
1. verification of configuration management system data
2. control of user desktops
3. creation and us of diagnostic scripts
4. visibility of overall IT service performance
Which of the following should be supported by technology? Please refer to the exhibit.
all of the alternatives apply
210
Which of the following activities is carried out in the "where do we want to be" step of the continual service improvement model? A. aligning the business and IT strategies B. defining measurable targets C. implementing service and process improvements D. creating a baseline
defining measurable targets
211
The ITIL CORE publications are structures around the Service Lifecycle. Which of the following statements about ITIL complementary guidance is CORRECT? A. It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC 20000 B. It is also structured around the Service Lifecycle C. It consists of five publications D. It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization
It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization
212
The of the following statements BEST describes the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
a secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are stored and protected
213
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the:
emergency CAB (ECAB)
214
Implementation of ITIL services management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of:
people, process, products, partners
215
In which core publications can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information security management and supplier management?
service design
216
A service is not very reliable, but when it works it is of great value to the customer. This combination could be described as:
high utility and low warranty
217
With which of the following processes is Problem Management least likely to interface on a regular basis? A. IT Financial Management B. Change Management C. Incident Management D. Availability Management
IT Financial Management
218
Which of the following places Problem Management activities in the correct order: A. Identify and record, classify, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, review the change B. Investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, identify and record C. Identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, review the change D. Review a change, classify, identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise another RFC
Identify and record, classify, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, review the change
219
Which of the following activities may, exceptionally, be omitted for an urgent change: 1. Recording that the change has been made 2. Testing the change 3. Holding a CAB meeting 4. Establishing a back-out plan
2 and 3
220
Why is Service Management so important to IT service providers?
The success of many businesses depends upon the quality of their IT
221
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management process? A. The physical aspects of software control B. Ensuring that the accuracy of CMDB entries concerning software CIs is maintained C. Helping to determine the software release policy D. Distributing software
Ensuring that the accuracy of CMDB entries concerning software CIs is maintained
222
A service-based (rather than a customer-based) SLA:
Covers a single service, for all of the customers of that service
223
Possible problems with Change Management include:
Lack of ownership of impacted services
224
Which of these is/are TRUE? 1. Functional escalation is an essential part of the Incident Management process 2. All calls to the Service Desk should be treated as incidents 3. Service Requests can be handled by Service Desk Staff
1 and 3
225
Who must always authorize a Request for Change before the change is built and tested?
The Change Manager
226
Why is there sometimes conflict between the goals of Incident Management and those of Problem Management?
Because Problem Management is focusing on identifying permanent solutions and therefore the speed with which these solutions are found is of secondary importance
227
Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of a Service Level Manager? A. Analyzing and reviewing agreed service levels B. Maintaining the service catalogue C. Negotiating requests for service D. Assessing the full impact of proposed changes to services
Assessing the full impact of proposed changes to services
228
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. Urgent and non-urgent changes follow the same Change Management process B. High risk, urgent changes should be considered by the CAB Emergency Committee C. Urgent changes need not necessarily be reviewed, unless there is time to do so D. The justification for urgent changes should always be based on sound business reasons
Urgent changes need not necessarily be reviewed, unless there is time to do so
229
In Availability Management, Confidentiality and Integrity are elements of:
Security
230
From a well-informed User's perspective, which of the following is a likely sequence in the management of a service failure? A. Incident Management, Problem Management, Release Management, Change Management B. Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Management, Release Management C. Change Management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Release Management D. Incident Management, Change Management, Release Management, Problem Management
Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Management, Release Management
231
At what point should capacity requirements of a proposed system be first considered?
As early as possible
232
Which of the following is NOT a valid attribute of a hardware CI? A. A supplier's part number B. The cost of the item C. A manufacturer's serial number D. The number of items held
The number of items held
233
Which of the following activities are NOT part of IT Accounting? A. Calculation of the costs of IT services B. Budgeting C. Identification of costs by customer, service or activity D. Performing cost-benefit analyses to support decision making
Budgeting
234
The major difference between a CMDB and an asset register is that CMDB holds information on: A. Documentation B. Software C. The IT environment D. Relationships
Relationships
235
Which of the following is least likely to be a direct benefit of implementing a formal Incident Management process A. Improved user satisfaction B. Incident volume reduction C. Elimination of lost incidents D. Less disruption to both IT support staff and users
Incident volume reduction
236
Which of the following definitions best describes the IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL)? A. A documented framework of proven best practices in Service Management B. A prescriptive process for managing Service Improvement Projects C. A methodology for supporting and delivering IT services D. A quality standard in managing customer relationships
A documented framework of proven best practices in Service Management
237
The stages in the Incident Management process are: A. Logging, allocation, classification, initial support, communication, resolution B. Logging, initial support, detection, recording, classification, investigation, recovery and closure C. Detection, classification, investigation, recording, recovery, resolution and closure D. Detection, recording, classification, initial support, investigation, diagnosis, resolution, recovery and closure
Detection, recording, classification, initial support, investigation, diagnosis, resolution, recovery and closure
238
Which of the following terms or phrases are associated with resilience? 1. Redundancy 2. Fault tolerance 3. On-site spares 4. Duplexing
1, 2 and 4
239
If the IT Service Continuity plan had to be invoked during a crisis, what would be the role of the organization's senior managers?
Co-ordinating and directing activities, arbitrating and allocating resources
240
Capacity Management is responsible for ensuring the capacity of the IT Infrastructure matches the evolving demands of the business in the most cost effective and timely manner. Which of the following is NOT part of this responsibility? A. Monitoring performance and throughput of individual IT components B. Tuning systems to make most effective use of IT resources C. Purchasing resources for the IT Infrastructure D. Influencing customer behaviour to optimise the use of IT resources
Purchasing resources for the IT Infrastructure
241
Which of the following are NOT operational costs? A. Staff B. Consultancy C. A mainframe purchase D. Accommodation rental
A mainframe purchase
242
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. If the root cause and a temporary work-around have been identified for a problem it becomes a known error B. All known errors need to be resolved to user satisfaction C. A known error can be kept open when a work-around is being used D. Incidents are not the only source of known errors
All known errors need to be resolved to user satisfaction
243
The Requirements and Strategy phase of the Business Continuity Life-cycle comprises: A. Initial testing, Education and Awareness and Assurance B. Education and Awareness, Review and Audit C. Organization and Implementation Planning and Risk Reduction Measures D. Business Impact Analysis, Risk Assessment and Business Continuity Strategy
Business Impact Analysis, Risk Assessment and Business Continuity Strategy
244
Which of these statements reflect the activities of IT Financial Management? 1. IT Financial Management may calculate the prices to be charged for IT services 2. IT Financial Management ensures that the IT department charges those who benefit fromIT
Only 1
245
During the release planning stage you identify that the changes you are about to make to a service will necessitate changes in related software systems. Once all the changes have been fully tested, which type of release will be used to deliver them into the live environment? A. Full Release B. Package Release C. Emergency D. Delta Release
Package Release
246
Typically the decision on what should be the lowest level of CI recorded is influenced mostly by: A. The reliability of the CIs B. The level at which components will be independently changed C. The suitability of the available software to hold the information D. The availability of spares for CIs
The level at which components will be independently changed
247
As part of your IT Continuity Planning you have been asked to undertake a comprehensive Risk Analysis.Which of the following is most likely to be of use to you in drawing up your plan? A. The Forward Schedule of Change, produced by Change Management B. A Service Catalogue plus an understanding of the business criticality of each of the services C. A list of Services and Operational Level Agreements D. A report produced by Incident Management detailing the incidents affecting IT Services over the last month
A Service Catalogue plus an understanding of the business criticality of each of the services
248
An overhead would normally be regarded as which of the following? A. A discounted charge B. The market price C. An indirect cost D. A direct cost
An indirect cost
249
Consider the following activities: 1. The analysis of raw data 2. The identification of trends 3. The definition of Service Management processes 4. The implementation of preventive measures Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software tool?
1, 2 and 4
250
The CMDB: A. Must be available for update 7 x 24 if any of the services supported by the IT supplier are available 7 x 24 B. Is updated by Configuration Management staff at the end of each working day C. Holds information that will be useful to the majority of IT Service Management processes D. Must be verified for accuracy monthly with trend reports on errors distributed to management quarterly
Holds information that will be useful to the majority of IT Service Management processes
251
Which of the following is NOT a valid method of tuning? A. Balancing disc traffic B. Making more efficient use of processing capacity C. Installing a new server D. Balancing workloads
Installing a new server
252
For an organization implementing the ITIL IT Service Management processes which of the following statements is most accurate? A. The full benefits will only be realized if all IT staff are fully qualified in IT Service Management. B. The full benefits will only be realized if Incident & Problem Management processes are implemented first. C. The full benefits will only be realized if the business requirements are first ascertained and then the processes are implemented in an integrated way. D. The full benefits will only be realized if regular reviews are undertaken with customers.
The full benefits will only be realized if the business requirements are first ascertained and then the processes are implemented in an integrated way.
253
Which of the following would NOT be a performance measurement for the Service Level Management function? A. What percentage of services are covered by SLAs? B. Are service review meetings held on time and correctly minute? C. Are customer perceptions of service improving? D. How many services are included within the CMDB?
How many services are included within the CMDB?
254
Which of the following is NOT an element of Availability Management? A. Verification B. Security C. Reliability D. Maintainability
Verification
255
Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Physical copies of all CIs are stored in the DSL B. Release Management is responsible for managing the organization's rights and obligations regarding software C. The DSL contains source code only D. A change may only be developed from non-definitive versions of software in the caseof an urgent release
Release Management is responsible for managing the organization's rights and obligations regarding software
256
Which of the following metrics would you most associate with the Service Desk? A. The number of high priority incidents occurring B. The support team which resolves the greatest number of problems C. The number of problems solved in a day D. The mean time between failure
The number of high priority incidents occurring
257
Potential benefits from managing IT Service Continuity are: 1. Lower insurance premiums 2. Fulfillment of mandatory or regulatory requirements 3. Reduced business disruption in the event of a disaster 4. Better management of risk and the consequent reduction of the impact of failure
All of them
258
What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual Service Improvement (CSI)? A. Return On Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), quality B. Strategic, tactical and operational C. Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities D. Technology, process and service
Technology, process and service
259
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management? A. To prevent Problems and their resultant Incidents B. To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle C. To restore service to a user D. To eliminate recurring Incidents
To restore service to a user
260
Availability Management is responsible for availability of the: A. Services and Components B. Services and Business Processes C. Components and Business Processes D. Services, Components and Business Processes
Services and Components
261
Contracts are used to define: A. The provision of IT services or business services by a Service Provider B. The provision of goods and services by Suppliers C. Service Levels that have been agreed between the Service Provider and their Customer D. Metrics and Critical Success Factors (CSFs) in an external agreement
The provision of goods and services by Suppliers
262
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities? A. Requirement to always call the Service Desk for service requests B. Web front-end C. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests D. A direct interface into the back-end process-handling software
Requirement to always call the Service Desk for service requests
263
Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service? A. The Service Provider B. The Service Level Manager C. The Customer D. The Finance department
The Service Provider
264
Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service Operation to perform? 1. Communication between Data Centre shifts 2. Communication related to changes 3. Performance reporting 4. Routine operational communication
All of the above
265
How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model? A. As many as necessary to complete the activity B. Only one - the process owner C. Two - the process owner and the process enactor D. Only one - the process architect
Only one - the process owner
266
What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting? A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers B. Reporting intervals should be set by the Service Provider C. Reports should be produced weekly D. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services
Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
267
Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management? A. A set of specialised organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
A set of specialised organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
268
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process? A. It is measurable B. Delivers specific results C. Responds to specific events D. A method of structuring an organization
A method of structuring an organization
269
Which of the following would be defined as part of every process? 1. Roles 2. Activities 3. Functions 4. Responsibilities
1, 2 and 4 only
270
Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process? 1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder 2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
1 only
271
What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types known as? A. The Service Strategy and Service Transition books B. The ITIL Complementary Guidance C. The Service Support and Service Delivery books D. Pocket Guides
The ITIL Complementary Guidance
272
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition? A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported B. To provide training and certification in project management C. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
To provide training and certification in project management
273
What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation? A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs D. To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
274
Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management? A. To ensure that the organization can continue to operate in the event of a major disruption or disaster B. To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customers C. To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building are protected from threats, damage or loss D. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation
To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation
275
What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)? A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis D. A document that describes business services to operational staff
An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
276
Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit? A. A measurement of cost B. A function described within Service Transition C. The team of people responsible for implementing a release D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
277
The BEST definition of an Incident is: A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service B. An unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of an IT Service C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the Service Desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not
An unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of an IT Service
278
In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created? A. An event indicates that a redundant network segment has failed but it has not impacted any users B. An Incident is passed to second-level support C. A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring Incidents D. Incident Management has found a workaround but needs some assistance in implementing it
A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring Incidents
279
Which of the following BEST describes a Problem? A. A Known Error for which the cause and resolution are not yet known B. The cause of two or more Incidents C. A serious Incident which has a critical impact to the business D. The cause of one or more Incidents
The cause of one or more Incidents
280
Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of: A. People, Process, Partners, Suppliers B. People, Process, Products, Technology C. People, Process, Products, Partners D. People, Products, Technology, Partners
People, Process, Products, Partners
281
What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after: 1. What is the vision? 2. Where are we now? 3. Where do we want to be? 4. How do we get there? 5. Did we get there? 6. ?
How do we keep the momentum going?
282
Which of the following do Service Metrics measure? A. Processes and functions B. Maturity and cost C. The end to end service D. Infrastructure availability
The end to end service
283
The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is: A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services C. To create and populate a Service Catalogue D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
284
Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis? A. Supplier Management and Service Level Management B. Supplier Management and Demand Management C. Demand Management and Service Level Management D. Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management
Supplier Management and Service Level Management
285
Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST CORRECT? A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development B. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment D. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing
The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment
286
Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure? A. Service Level Management B. IT Operations Management C. Capacity Management D. Incident Management
IT Operations Management
287
Consider the following list: 1. Change Authority 2. Change Manager 3. Change Advisory Board (CAB) What are these BEST described as?
Roles, people or groups
288
Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes? A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management B. Change Management, Capacity Management Event Management, Service Request Management C. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management D. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management, Request Fulfilment
Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management
289
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base B. The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system D. The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database
The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system
290
Major Incidents require: A. Separate procedures B. Less urgency C. Longer timescales D. Less documentation
Separate procedures
291
Which of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is CORRECT? A. Incidents can only be reported by users, since they are the only people who know when a service has been disrupted B. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service. This includes technical staff C. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk activity D. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as Problems because technical staff manage infrastructure devices not services
Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service.
292
What is the BEST description of a Major Incident? A. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be found B. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve C. An Incident logged by a senior manager D. An Incident which has a high priority or high impact on the business
An Incident which has a high priority or high impact on the business
293
Which of the following should be done when closing an incident? 1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary 2. Check that user is satisfied with the outcome
Both of the above
294
Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact? A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other B. Urgency should be based on impact and priority C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency
Priority should be based on impact and urgency
295
Hierarchic escalation is best described as? A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident B. Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skill C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction D. Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level Agreement
Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident
296
Which of the following BEST describes a Service Request? A. A request from a User for information, advice or for a Standard Change B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface D. Any Request for Change (RFC) that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a Change Advisory Board (CAB) meeting
A request from a User for information, advice or for a Standard Change
297
Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?
Service Operation
298
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment? A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
299
Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?
Request Fulfilment
300
Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures? 1. Local Service Desk 2. Virtual Service Desk 3. IT Help Desk 4. Follow the Sun
1, 2 and 4 only
301
Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management? A. Network Management and Application Management B. Technical Management and Change Management C. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management D. Facilities Management and Release Management
IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
302
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?
Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
303
Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?
Wisdom
304
The BEST processes to automate are those that are:
Simple and well understood
305
Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle? 1. Data mining and workflow tools 2. Measurement and reporting systems 3. Release and deployment technology 4. Process Design
1, 2 and 3 only
306
Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers? A. Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI) B. Customer and User satisfaction C. Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty D. Utility and Warranty
Utility and Warranty
307
Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition? A. Measurement, methods and metrics B. Service Design Package C. Service Portfolio Design D. Process definitions
Service Design Package
308
What is the Service Pipeline? A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage B. All services except those that have been retired C. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA) D. All complex multi-user services
All services that are at a conceptual or development stage
309
Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)? A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held B. A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected C. A database that contains definitions of all media CIs D. A secure library where def initive authorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected
A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected
310
In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to: A. IT Infrastructure and Applications B. Services, technology and tools C. Goods provided by third parties to support the IT Services D. All assets belonging to the Service Provider
Services, technology and tools
311
Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of: A. Service Design: Design the processes B. Service Strategy: Develop the offerings C. Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment D. Service Operation: IT Operations Management
Service Design: Design the processes
312
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management? A. Service Catalogue Management B. Service Level Management C. IT Service Continuity Management D. Capacity Management
Capacity Management
313
Which of these are objectives of Service Level Management 1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided 2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided 3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction 4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in
1, 2 and 3 only
314
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets? A. Continual Service Improvement B. Business Relationship Management C. Service Level Management D. Availability Management
Service Level Management
315
Which of the following does the Availability Management process include? 1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets 2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability 3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals
All of the above
316
Reliability is a measure of: A. The availability of a service or component B. The level of risk that could impact a service or process C. How long a service or component can perform its function without failing D. A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working
How long a service or component can perform its function without failing
317
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors? A. Change Management B. Service Portfolio Management C. Supplier Management D. Continual Service Improvement
Supplier Management
318
The Supplier Management process includes: 1: Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service requirements 2: Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements 3: Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the business
All of the above
319
Data used to support the capacity management process should be stored in: A. A configuration management database (CMDB) B. A capacity database (CDB) C. A configuration management system (CMS) D. A capacity management information system (CMIS)
A capacity management information system (CMIS)
320
Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes? A. Capacity Management B. Incident Management C. Service Level Management D. Financial Management
Capacity Management
321
IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on: 1: Design of the service technology 2: Business continuity strategy 3: Business Impact Analysis 4: Risk assessment
2, 3 and 4 only
322
A change process model should include: 1 - The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependences or co- processing defined, including handling issues and unexpected events 2 - Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation 3 - Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions 4 - Complaints procedures
1,2 and 3 only
323
Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority? A. The Change Advisory Board B. A person that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change. C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change. D. The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each change
A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change.
324
Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process? A. A change to a contract with a supplier B. A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes C. An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident D. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services
A change to a business process that depends on IT Services
325
Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management? A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other C. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
326
Which of the following BEST describes Technical Management? A. A Function responsible for Facilities Management and building control systems B. A Function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to customers C. Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support Function D. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teams that provide technical expertise and overall management of the IT Infrastructure
A Function that includes the groups, departments or teams that provide technical expertise and overall management of the IT Infrastructure
327
Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre?
Facilities Management
328
Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT? A. Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are not B. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset C. Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are not D. Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service Asset
Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset
329
A risk is:
Something that might happen
330
A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is: A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party B. An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organization C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier D. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer
An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer
331
The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a new service is called: A. A Service Level Package B. A Service Transition Package C. A Service Design Package D. A New Service Package
A Service Design Package
332
When should tests for a new service be designed? A. At the same time as the service is designed B. After the service has been designed, before the service is handed over to Service Transition C. As part of Service Transition D. Before the service is designed
At the same time as the service is designed
333
Which of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement Model? A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually Improve B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going? C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
What is the vision? Where are we now? Where do we want to be? How do we get there? Did we get there? How do we keep the momentum going?
334
Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items (CIs)? 1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems 2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes 3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service 4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade
All of the above
335
A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within: A. The RACI Model B. A Release Package C. A Request Model D. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle
A Release Package
336
What are Request Models used for? A. Capacity Management B. Modelling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests C. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or remote D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled
Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled
337
What is the objective of Access Management? A. To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings B. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations C. To manage access to the Service Desk D. To manage the right to use a service or group of services
To manage the right to use a service or group of services
338
Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes?
Access Management
339
Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit? A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together B. The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changed C. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular release D. A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management process
The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
340
Which of these is a reason for categorizing incidents? A. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM) activities B. To ensure that the correct priority is assigned to the incident C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM) activities
341
Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits? A. Service Asset and Configuration Management B. Event Management C. Service Level Management D. Performance Management
Event Management
342
Which of the following might be used to manage an Incident? 1. Incident Model 2. Known Error Record
Both of the above
343
Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
Request Fulfilment
344
Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Change Management? A. The Change Management Process Owner B. The Change Advisory Board (CAB) C. The Service Owner D. The Continual Service Improvement Manager
The Change Management Process Owner
345
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?
The Process Owner
346
Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?
The Service Owner
347
The Service Catalogue Manager has responsibility for producing and maintaining the Service Catalogue. One of their responsibilities would be ? A. Negotiating and agreeing Service Level Agreement B. Negotiating and agreeing Operational Level Agreements C. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backed-up. D. Only ensure that adequate technical resources are available.
Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backed-up.
348
Access Management is closely related to which other processes? A. Availability Management only B. Information Security Management and 3rd line support C. Information Security Management and Availability Management D. Information Security Management only
Information Security Management and Availability Management
349
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design? A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue B. The design of new or changed services C. The design of Market Spaces D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
The design of Market Spaces
350
One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of service solutions. Which of the following does this include? A. Only capabilities needed and agreed B. Only resources and capabilities needed C. Only requirements needed and agreed D. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
351
A process owner is responsible for which of the following? 1. Documenting the process 2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) 3. Improving the process 4. Ensuring process staff undertake the required training
All of the above
352
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. Process owners are more important to service management than service owners B. Service owners are more important to service management than process owners C. Service owners are as important to service management as process owners D. Process owners and service owners are not required within the same organization
Service owners are as important to service management as process owners
353
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? The Service Owner: A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own B. Is responsible for continual improvement and the management of change affecting the service they own C. Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service they own D. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization
Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
354
A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be expected of them? A. Tell others about the progress of an activity B. Perform an activity C. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity D. Manage an activity
Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
355
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager? A. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate B. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
356
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
Supplier Manager
357
A Service Design Package should be produced for which of the following? 1. A new IT service 2. A major change to an IT service 3. An Emergency Change to an IT service 4. An IT service retirement
1, 2 and 4 only
358
There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below? 1. Progress 2. Effectiveness 3. Efficiency 4. ?
Compliance
359
Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?
The Business
360
Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?
The Supplier Manager
361
Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment?
Early Life Support
362
What does a service always deliver to customers?
Value
363
Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
Service Strategy
364
Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
Service Design
365
Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
Governance
366
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service
An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service
367
Where should details of a Workaround always be documented? A. The Service Level Agreement (SLA) B. The Problem Record C. The Availability Management Information System D. The IT Service Continuity Plan
The Problem Record
368
Why are public frameworks and standards (such as ITIL) attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge? A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented B. Public standards are always cheaper to adopt C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
369
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
370
Which of the following statements about processes is CORRECT? 1. A process is always organized around a set of objectives
2. A process should be documented
Both of the above
371
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work
B. We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner
C. They deliver specific results
D. They respond to specific events
They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work
372
Which of the following are aspects of Service Design? 1. Architectures 2. Technology 3. Service Management processes 4. Metrics
All of the above
373
You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines.W hich statement would NOT be part of the value proposition? A. Reduced Total Cost of Ownership B. Improved quality of service C. Improved Service alignment with business goals D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
Better balance of technical skills to support live services
374
Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: 'The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a service can be minimised if all aspects of the service, the processes and the technology are considered during development'? A. Service Design B. Service Strategy C. Service Operation D. Continual Service Improvement
Service Design
375
Which statement about Service Level Agreements(SLAs) is CORRECT?
The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity
376
Which of the following are goals of Service Operation? 1. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business 2. The successful release of services into the liv e environment
1 only
377
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Event?
Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructure
378
A Know Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach? A. Yes B. No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created C. No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented D. No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem
Yes
379
Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT? 1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action 2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
Both of the above
380
Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management? A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services C. To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening D. To detect security events and make sense of them
Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
381
Which of the following is NOT a Service Desk type recognised in the Service Operation volume of ITIL? A. Local B. Centralised C. Holistic D. Virtual
Holistic
382
Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk? A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one place C. The desk provides 24 hour global support D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
383
Service Design emphasises the importance of the 'Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these 'Four Ps'? A. People, Products, Partners, Profit B. People, Process, Products, Partners C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit D. People, Potential, Products, Performance
People, Process, Products, Partners
384
Service Design emphasises the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners, People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"? A. Profit B. Preparation C. Products D. Potential
Products
385
Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?: 1. The services 2. The architectures 3. The configuration items 4. The processes
All of the above
386
Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages 1. Monitor, Measure and Review 2. Continual Improvement 3. Implement Initiatives 4. Plan for Improvement
4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act
387
In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?' is underpinned by which set of activities? A. Baseline assessments B. Service and process improvements C. Taking measurements and recording metrics D. Setting measurement targets
Service and process improvements
388
Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'? A. Where are we now? B. Where do we want to be? C. How do we get there? D. Did we get there?
Where do we want to be?
389
Which of the following activities are responsibilities of a Supplier Manager? 1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts 2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database 3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts 4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers
1, 2 and 3 only
390
Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)? A. An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database B. A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management D. Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported
An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management
391
Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management? A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes B. To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS) C. To ensure that overall business risk of Change is optimized D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders
To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders
392
What are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?
Informational, Warning, Exception
393
Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk? 1. Known Error Data 2. Change Schedules 3. Service Knowledge Management System 4. The output from monitoring tools
All of the above
394
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function? A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur B. Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs C. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities
First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users
395
Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies? A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance B. The Service Support book C. Pocket Guides D. The Service Strategy book
The ITIL Complementary Guidance
396
Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role? A. The Service Level Manager B. The Configuration Manager C. The Change Manager D. The Information Security Manager
The Information Security Manager
397
Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role? A. Demand Management B. Supplier Management C. Service Desk D. Request Fulfilment
Demand Management
398
Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high volumes of what? A. Service level requests B. Changes and Releases C. Password resets D. Incidents and Problems
Changes and Releases
399
Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value through which part of the service lifecycle? A. Service Transition B. Risk Management C. IT Service Continuity Management D. Availability Management
Service Transition
400
Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers? A. Continual Service Improvement B. Service Transition C. Service Design D. Service Operation
Service Operation
401
In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operation's contribution? A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated B. Measures for optimization are identified C. Service value is modelled D. Service value is actually seen by customers
Service value is actually seen by customers
402
Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle? A. Service Operation B. Service Transition C. Continual Service Improvement D. Service Strategy
Continual Service Improvement
403
Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive? 1. Risk assessment 2. Testing of resilience mechanisms 3. Monitoring of component availability
1 and 2 only
404
Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what? A. The value of a service B. Customer satisfaction C. Total cost of ownership D. Key performance indicators
The value of a service
405
The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as what? A. The utility of a service B. The warranty of a service C. The economic value of a service D. Return on investment
The utility of a service
406
A consultant has made two recommendations to you in a report: 1. To include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements(SLAs) 2. It is not necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA Which of the recommendations conform to Service Level Management good practice?
Neither of the above
407
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services D. An SLA for a service with no customers
The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
408
Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi level Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. Technology, Customer, User B. Corporate, Customer, Service C. Corporate, Customer, Technology D. Service, User, IT
Corporate, Customer, Service
409
What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process? A. Measurements that match the customer's perception of the service B. Clear, concise, unambiguous wording in the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) C. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectiv ely measured D. Involving customers in drafting Service Level Requirements
Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectiv ely measured
410
In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets? A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA) B. Capacity Plan C. Service Level Agreement (SLA) D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)
SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)
411
Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful? A. Remediation Planning B. Categorization C. Prioritization D. Review and Close
Remediation Planning
412
Which statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT? A. The ECAB considers every high priority Request for Change B. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director
The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director
413
Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure? A. Service Level Management B. Change Management C. Incident Management D. Service Asset and Configuration Management
Service Asset and Configuration Management
414
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other? A. Configuration Baseline B. Project Baseline C. Change Baseline D. Asset Baseline
Configuration Baseline
415
Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT? 1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time 2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability and the right level of control
Both of the above
416
Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration Management? A. Describes the topography of the hardware B. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
417
What is the name of the area where the definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items(CIs) are stored and protected? A. Definitive Media Library B. Definitive Software Store C. Service Knowledge Management System D. Software Secure Library
Definitive Media Library
418
Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure? A. Incident Model B. Problem Model C. Configuration Model D. Change Model
Configuration Model
419
Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented? A. A Service Level Agreement (SLA) B. A Request for Change (RFC) C. The Service Portfolio D. A Service Description
A Service Level Agreement(SLA)
420
T represents the guidance on incident logging? A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available B. Only incidents reported to the Service Desk can be logged C. All incidents must be fully logged D. The Service Desk decide which incidents to log
All incidents must be fully logged
421
Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine? 1. Things that were done correctly 2. Those things that were done incorrectly 3. How to prevent recurrence 4. What could be done better in the future
All of the above
422
Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained? A. Categorization B. Logging C. Prioritization D. Closure
Categorization
423
Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem? A. Definitive Media Library (DML) B. Configuration Management System (CMS) C. Statement of Requirements (SOR) D. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
Configuration Management System (CMS)
424
Identify the input to the Problem Management process A. Request for Change B. Problem Resolution C. Incident Records D. New Known Errors
Incident Records
425
What are the two major processes in Problem Management? A. Technical and Service B. Resource and Proactive C. Reactive and Technical D. Proactive and Reactive
Proactive and Reactive
426
Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented? A. Service Level Management B. Problem Management C. Change Management D. Event Management
Problem Management
427
With which process is Problem Management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems? A. Incident Management B. Service Asset and Configuration Management C. Capacity Management D. IT Service Continuity
Incident Management
428
Modularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends? A. Service Level Management B. Problem Management C. Change Management D. Event Management
Problem Management
429
Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)? A. Availability Management B. Demand Management C. Financial Management D. Service Level Management
Demand Management
430
As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the following service provider types? 1. An internal service provider embedded within a business unit 2. An internal service provider that provides shared IT services 3. An external service provider
All of the above
431
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management has been established B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established at the same time D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party provider
Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management
432
Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity? A. The Asset Register B. The Service Knowledge Management System C. The Known Error Database D. The Information Management System
The Service Knowledge Management System
433
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement? A. Review and analyse Service Level Achievement results B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
434
Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive? 1. Risk assessment 2. Testing of resilience mechanisms 3. Monitoring of component availability
1 and 2 only
435
Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?
The value of a service
436
What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle? A. Rapid, one-off improvement B. Return on investment within 12 months C. Quick wins D. Steady, ongoing improvement
Steady, ongoing improvement
437
"Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle? A. Service Operation B. Service Strategy C. Service Transition D. Continual Service Improvement
Service Transition
438
Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle? A. Service Strategy B. Continual Service Improvement C. Service Operation D. Service Design
Continual Service Improvement
439
The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service Lifecycle? A. Continual Service Improvement B. Service Strategy C. Service Design D. Service Transition
Service Strategy
440
Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth? A. Do B. Perform C. Implement D. Measure
Do
441
Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving services and service management processes? A. Plan B. Do C. Check D. Act
Plan
