Ischemic heart disease Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What chemical mediators are released from ischemia? (2)

A
  • Adenosine = vasodilator, decreases HR, nociceptor activation
  • Bradykinin = inflammatory and pain, nociceptor activation
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2
Q

How does IHD usally present initially in someone who is undiagnozed? (3)

A
  1. Angina pectoris
  2. Acute MI
  3. sudden death (dysrhythmias)
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3
Q

What are the 2 most important risk factors for IHD?

A
  1. male gender
  2. increasing age
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4
Q

How are pain signals transmitted from an ischemic heart? Which nerves?

A
  • Adenosine released from ATP breakfdown
  • Bradykinin released from ischemic tissue
  • activates cardiac C fibers in T1-T5 spinal pathway
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5
Q

What 12 lead EKG changes might be seen in someone with an AMI? (3)

A
  • ST depression
  • ST elevation
  • T-wave inversion
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6
Q

What diagnostics are used to assess for coronary artery disease? (5)

A
  1. 12 lead EKG
  2. Exercise stress test
  3. Nuclear stress test
  4. Echocardiography
  5. Angiography
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7
Q

Compare exercise and nuclear stress test

A
  • EST: Patient walks on a treadmill or pedals a bike, relies on EKG changes
  • NST: Combines stress (exercise or drug like adenosine) with a radioactive tracer injection
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8
Q

Why is nuclear stress test preferred?

A
  • Greater sensitivity
  • asses coronary perfusion vs ischemic areas
  • Size of perfusion abnormality = significance of CAD detected
  • Estimates LV systolic size and function
  • Differentiates new perfusion abnormality vs. “old” MI
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9
Q

How does the tracer identify ischemic areas?

A

Poor tracer uptake pinpoints ischemic or scarred areas
Areas of persistently absent uptake signify an old MI

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10
Q

For nuclear stress testing, what is the most important indicator of CAD?

A
  • The size of the perfusion abnormality
  • bigger size = more CAD
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11
Q

What nuclear stress test tracers are used with exercise?

A

Thallium

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12
Q

What nuclear stress test drugs are used without exercise?

A
  • Atropine, Dobutamine, Pacing (increases HR)
  • adenosine, dipyridamole (coronary dilator)
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13
Q

When are adenosine and dipyridamole used with nuclear stress testing? Why?

A
  • For patients who cannot undergo normal stress testing
  • They dilate normal coronary arteries but not atherosclerotic ones (shows as abnormality in reading)
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14
Q

What test would be useful for imaging wall motion abnormalities or valvular function?

A

Echocardiography

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15
Q

What is coronary angiography? What is it useful for?

A
  • Determines location of occlusive disease
  • diagnose prinzmetal angina
  • assess results of angioplasty/stenting
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16
Q

Does coronary angiography measure plaque stability? (i.e. is it going to dislodge?)

A

Does not measure plaque stability in CAD

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17
Q

What is the mechanism of action for aspirin? Recommended dose?

A
  • COX-1 enzyme Inhibition
  • TXA2 inhibition (prostaglandin)
  • Permanent Plt aggregation inhibition (7-10 days)
  • 75-325mg/day
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18
Q

How can aspirin be reversed?

A

Trick question. It can’t be, platelets are damaged until they die and are replaced. (7-14 days)

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19
Q
  • What are Platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists? What do they do?
A
  • abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban
  • Inhibit platelet activation, adhesion, and aggregation.
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20
Q

How do P2Y12 inhibitors work? What drugs were discussed in class?

A

Inhibit ADP receptor P2Y12 and thus inhibit platelet aggregation
* Clopidogrel
* Prasugrel (Effient)

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21
Q

How do PPIs affect P2Y12 inhibitors?

A
  • PPIs inhibit CYP450 which activates prodrug clopidogrel (P2Y12 inhibitor)
  • results in reduced drug efficacy = increased clotting
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22
Q

How does Prasugrel compare to Clopidogrel?

A
  • More predictable pharmacokinetics
  • greater bleeding risk
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23
Q

What drug classes are synergistic with nitrates? (2)

A

beta-blockers
calcium channel blockers

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24
Q

What are benefits of nitrates?

A
  • Increase amount of exercise to produce ST-segment depression
  • Dilate coronary arteries and collaterals
  • Decrease PVR
  • Decreases preload
  • Potential anti-thrombotic effects
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25
Q

When are nitrates contraindicated? (2)

A
  • Aortic Stenosis
  • Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
  • Decreased preload and afterload = hypotension
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26
Q

What drug class is the only one proven to prolong life in CAD patients?

A

beta-blockers

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27
Q

What properties do β-blockers have?

A
  • Anti-ischemic
  • Anti-hypertensive
  • Anti-dysrhythmic
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28
Q

Which β blockers are cardioselective? (beta 1)

A
  • Atenolol
  • Metoprolol
  • Acebutolol
  • Bisoprolol
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29
Q

Which β blockers are non-selective? (beta 1 & 2)

A
  • Propanolol
  • Nadolol
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30
Q

What risk is associated with non-selective β blockers in asthma patients?

A

↑ risk of bronchospasm in reactive airway disease patients.

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31
Q

What drug class decreases severity/frequency of coronary vasospasm?

A

Calcium Channel Blockers

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32
Q

What are ACE inhibitors used for?

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. Heart failure
  3. Cardioprotective
33
Q

Angiotensin II causes an increase in what 4 things?

A
  • Myocardial hypertrophy
  • Interstitial myocardial fibrosis
  • Coronary vasoconstriction
  • Inflammatory responses
34
Q

What are statins used for?

A

Coronary plaque stabilization
Reduces mortality noncardiac surgery and vascular surgery
Decreases:
* Lipid oxidation
* Inflammation
* Matrix metalloproteinase
* Cell death

35
Q

When is revascularization indicated?

A
  • Failure of medical therapy
  • > 50% L main coronary artery
  • > 70% epicardial coronary artery
  • Impaired EF < 40%
36
Q

When is CABG indicated?

A
  • LMCA involvement, 3-vessel disease, DM + 2 or 3-vessel disease
  • Failed PCI/angioplasty
  • ventricular septal rupture
  • mitral regurgitation
37
Q

What is ACS? What are the 3 categories of ACS?

A

Acute or worsening imbalance of myocardial oxygen supply to demand
1. Unstable angina
2. NSTEMI
3. STEMI

38
Q

What is the major cause of STEMI: emboli or thrombosis?

A

Thrombosis is major cause
Rarely emboli

39
Q

Diagnostic data of STEMI?

A
  • eleveated troponin (must have) and at least one of the following:
    ischemia symptoms
    ST-T changes/new LBBB
    pathological Q-waves on EKG
    imaging/angiography of thrombus
40
Q

what is the most specific diagnostic lab for an MI?

41
Q

How soon will troponin start to increase after myocardial injury? How long might they remain elevated?

A
  • 3 hours after MI
  • 7-10 days
42
Q

What drugs are used for reperfusion therapy?
What is the time frame?

A
  • tPA, streptokinase, reteplase, tenecteplase
  • initiate within 30-60 mins
  • < 12 hrs from onset
43
Q

How soon should PCI occur after an ischemic event?

A

Within 90 minutes of hospital arrival
Within 12 hours of symptom onset.

44
Q

How soon should initiation of tPa be for ischemic event?

A

Within 30-60 min of hospital arrival
Within 12 hours of symptom onset.

45
Q

What are indications for PCI treatment of an MI?

A
  • Contraindicated tPa therapy
  • Severe HF and/or pulm edema
  • S/S for 2-3 hours
  • Mature clot
46
Q

What risks are associated with PCI (percutaneous coronary intervention)?

A
  • Bleeding
  • Thrombosis
  • endothelium destruction
47
Q

What are the goals of care for unstable angina/NSTEMI?

A
  • decreasing myocardial oxygen demand
  • stabilizing culprit lesion
  • prevention of disease progression
48
Q

What is the treatment for unstable angina/NSTEMI?

A
  • MONA
  • DAPT and/or heparin
  • calcium channel blockers, beta blockers
  • analgesics
  • tPA not indicated
49
Q

What is Dual Antiplatelet Therapy (DAPT)?

A

ASA + P2Y12 inhibitor

50
Q

How long would one want to wait for elective surgery post angioplasty without stenting?

A

2 - 4 weeks

51
Q

How long would one want to wait for elective surgery post angioplasty with bare-metal stent placement?

A

30 days - 12 weeks

52
Q

How long would one want to wait for elective surgery post angioplasty with drug-eluting stent placement?

53
Q

How long would one want to wait for elective surgery post-CABG?

A

6 weeks - 12 weeks

54
Q

When can we D/C clopidogrel/ticagrelor or prasugrel before surgery? ASA?

A
  • clopidogrel/ticagrelor = 5 days
  • prasugrel = 7 days
  • ASA = continue
55
Q

In these ACS pts, what is the preferred drug for bradycardia?

A

Glycopyrrolate or atropine can be used
glycopyrrolate > atropine (less chronotropic/central effect)

56
Q

What ACS drugs must be continued perioperatively?

A

Beta blockers

57
Q

What antihypertensive drugs can be stopped 24 hrs before surgery?

A

ACE inhibitors

58
Q

What is the goal for glucose in ACS patients?

A

< 180 mg/dL

59
Q

What can cause decreased O2 delivery and/or increased O2 demand in periop?

A
  • bleeding
  • inflammation
  • pain
  • shivering
  • hypoxia
  • hypotension
60
Q

What components are worth 1 point on the Revised Cardiac Risk Index (6)?

A
  • High risk surgery
  • IHD
  • Hx of CHF
  • Hx of CVA
  • DM on insulin
  • Cr > 2 mg/dL
61
Q

What % risk of major cardiac events would be conferred by a RCRI score of 0, 1, 2, or >3?

A
  • 0 = 0.4%
  • 1 = 1.0%
  • 2 = 2.4%
  • > 3 = 5.4%
  • 0-1 = low risk, > 1 = elevated risk
62
Q

What does 1 MET equal?

A

3.5mL O₂/kg/min

63
Q

What are the 3 surgical urgency criteria?

A

Emergency: within 6 hr
Urgent: within 6-24 hr
Time-sensitive: within 1-6 weeks

64
Q

What kind of cardiac criteria would you avoid anesthesia?

A
  • Recent MI (>60 days post MI ideal)
  • unstable/severe angina
  • Decompensated HF
  • Severe valvular disease
  • significant dysrhythmias
  • age
65
Q

What drug is the preferred treatment for tachycardia?

66
Q

Drug of choice for hypotension?

A
  1. fluid bolus
  2. ephedrine, phenylephrine
67
Q

What does the RCA supply?

A
  • posterior/inferior LV
  • Posterior fascicle of LBB
  • Pacemakers (SA/AV)
  • Right ventricle
68
Q

What does the LAD supply?

A
  • septum
  • Anterior wall LV
  • Bundle branches
69
Q

What does the circumflex supply?

A
  • posterior/lateral LV
  • Pacemakers (SA/AV)
70
Q

What coronary artery would you expect to be affected from abnormalities noted on II, III, and aVF?

A
  • “I” = inferior MI
  • RCA
71
Q

What coronary artery would you expect to be affected from abnormalities noted on I and aVL?

A
  • “L” = lateral
  • Circumflex
72
Q

What coronary artery would you expect to be affected from abnormalities noted on V3 - V5?

A
  • A + L = anterolateral LV
  • LAD
73
Q

What are some contraindications for tPa?

A
  • Major surgery
  • uncontrolled HTN
  • aneurysms
  • recent thrombolytics
  • active bleeding
74
Q

Raking leaves, gardening would be what MET equivalent?

75
Q

Climbing 1 flight of stairs, dancing or bicycling would be what MET equivalent?

76
Q

What drug class is indicated in patients with severe LV dysfunction?

A

Opioids > general anesthesia

77
Q

Is nitrous oxide contraindicated in MI patients?

A

N2O does not inrease mortality and CV complications

78
Q

What are the 2 contradictory implications of volatile anesthetics in MI patients?

A
  • Decreases myocardial O2 requirements
  • Decreases BP and coronary perfusion pressure
79
Q

What is pseudonormalization of T waves?

A

When a pt has chronically inverted T waves from previous MI/ischemia and now are upright and “normal” during myocardial ischemia