Ischaemic Heart Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are high risk features in angina that would make you consider referring for revascularisation?

A

Unstable angina at rest
Early post MI angina
Angina unresponsive to medical therapy
Symptoms of CHF
Inability to exercise to stage 2 (6 mins)
Strongly positive ETT at low workload ( >1mm ST depression before completion of stage 2, >2mm at any time)
ST depression persisting for more than 5mins after cessation of exercise
Decline in systolic BP during exercise (>10mmHg)
Development of VT during exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Prinzmetals angina and treatment?

A

Spasm of coronary arteries
Treat with nitrates and calcium channel blockers
Aspirin can increase severity of attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Does revascularisation in stable exertional angina affect mortality cf medical treatment?

A

No

- only reason to revascularise is to improve symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the types of MI (1-5)?

A
  1. Pathology in coronary artery
  2. Increased myocardial oxygen demand or decreased supply
  3. Sudden cardiac death
    4a. Related to PCI
    4b. Stent thrombosis
  4. Related to CABG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What makes up the TIMI risk stratification score for ACS?

A
Elevated cardiac markers
Age 65 or greater
> 3 CAD risk factors
Prior stenosis of >50%
ST depression >0.5mm
2 or more anginal events in last 24 hours
Aspirin in last 7 days

0-2 low risk
3-4 intermediate
5 or greater high risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the action of aspirin?

A

COX inhibitor therefore inhibits prostaglandin production including thromboxane A2 which causes platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the action of clopidogrel/praugrel/ticagrelor?

A

Blocks P2Y12 (an ADP receptor) which stops platelet activation and aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a concern with clopidogrel use?

A

That up to 1/3 of patients have low response due to mutations in CYPp450
Also takes longer to work then some of the other ADP blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Abciximab and tirofiban?

A

Inhibit GP IIa/IIIb which is responsible for platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the early invasive strategy vs conservative strategy in management of ACS?

A

Take high risk patients to cath lab within 48hours vs medical treatment + refer for angio if rest pain, ST changes recur or evidence of ischaemia on ETT

No difference in outcomes between conservative and early invasive in low risk groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are drugs used in medical management of stable angina?

A
Statins
Nitrates - long/short
B-blockers
Calcium channel blockers - dihydropyramidines
Aspirin
- no role for dual anti platelets in stable exertional angina
ACE-I - only if impaired LV fx, diabetic
Nicorandil/perhexiline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What benefit is seen with DAPT cf aspirin in ACS?

A

20 % RR as per CURE trial

But increased bleeding risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the morality rate for STEMI in first 30’days?

A

30%
First 24 hours = arrythmias
After that pump failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long are bio markers elevated in Ischaemia?

A

Troponin 7-10 days

CK 48-72 hours, starts to rise within 4-8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the preferred reperfusion strategy for STEMI

A

Evidence favors PCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the golden hour regarding STEMI?

A

Symptom of onset and presentation within 1 hour
Needs PCI within 60minutes otherwise fibrinolysis favoured
Time when myocardial salvage is at its highest

17
Q

When would you administer fibrinolysis over PCI?

A

Presentation to non-PCI capable hospital and time to PCI greater then 120 minutes

18
Q

What is failed fibrinolysis?

A

Ongoing pain and less the 50 percent reduction in STE in the lead with the greatest elevation
Indication for immediate transfer for rescue PCI as well as shock, HF and intractable arrythmias

19
Q

What is a pharmacoinvasive strategy?

A

Evidence suggests all patients who receive fibrinolytic should go for planned PCI within 3-24 hours

20
Q

What did the OAT trial show?

A

No benefit in opening a completely occluded artery 24 hours after presentation if patient is asymptomatic and stable

21
Q

How do you define a successful angioplasty?

A

Reduction in stenosis to less then 20% diameter of artery

22
Q

What is a stent thrombosis?

A

Abrupt thrombotic occlusion which presents as MI (30-70%) or sudden death (10-20%)
Longer high risk period in DES due to slow re-epiltheliisation

23
Q

What is stent re-stenosis?

A

Gradual re-narrowing of scented segment which occurs over 3-12 months and presents with re-current angina
Risk with BMS 10-30%
DES 5-15%
Diabetics are at increased risk

24
Q

Minimum anti platelet therapy in stents

A

BMS 6 weeks

DES 6 months

25
Q

What are complications of STEMI

A
LV dysfunction
LV aneurysm
Arrythmias (VT, VF, heart block)
Cardiogenic shock
RV infarction
Recurrent chest pain
Thromboembolism
26
Q

What factors would influence you to put in a BMS

A
Poor medication adherence
Need for CABG
Anticipated surgery
Long term oral anticoagulation
High bleeding risk
27
Q

What are the ECG findings of each STEMI

A

Anterior - STE V1-V4
Lateral - I, aVL, V4-V6
Anteroseptal - V1-V3
Inferior - II, III, aVF
Posterior - ST depression V1-V2 with assoc prominent R wave, STE posterior leads
RV infarction - associated inferior (most common) and lateral STE with STE in RV leads

28
Q

What are the ECG findings of LMS occlusion?

A

Widespread ST depression most common in I, II, V4-V6

STE greater then or equal to 1mm in aVR (STE in aVR greater then V1)