ISBB Flashcards by Karen Tuazon Gamboa

The fundamental difference between primary and secondary organs of the lymphatic system is:

a. Antibody production occurs only in the primary lymph organs
b. Complement production occurs only in the primary lymph organs
c. Maturation of lymphocytes occurs in secondary organs, and activation occurs in primary organs
d. Maturation of lymphocytes occurs in primary organs, and activation occurs in secondary organs

d. Maturation of lymphocytes occurs in primary organs, and activation occurs in secondary organs

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Neutrophils and monocytes have receptors for which part of the immunoglobulin molecule?

a. VL
b. CH1
c. CH2
d. CH3

d. CH3

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One B-cell marker of early-stage B-cell development is _____, whereas ____ is a marker for later stages

of B-cell development.

a. CD20; CD10 b. CD21; CD10 c. CD10; CD20 d. CD19; CD10

c. CD10; CD20

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A patient with a viral infection to the ABC virus is found to have a high antibody titer to the ABC virus’s

  RNA, or anti-ABCr. Which of the following is true?
		
		a. MHC class I molecules presented antigen to CD4+ T cells b. MHC class II molecules presented antigen to CD8+ T cells c. MHC class I molecules presented antigen to CD8+ T cells d. MHC class II molecules presented antigen to CD4+ T cells

c. MHC class I molecules presented antigen to CD8+ T cells

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All are biologic functions of IgG, except:
a. Provides passive immunity to newborns
b. Fixes complement to destroy cellular antigens
c. Participate in killing tumor cells through ADCC
d. Interacts with cytotoxic T cells to lyse virus-infected cells

d. Interacts with cytotoxic T cells to lyse virus-infected cells

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Complement activity of Classical, Alternative, Lectin pathway in cases of C3 inherited deficiency, respectively.

A. Low; Normal; Low
B. Low; Normal; Normal
C. Low; Normal; Low
D. Low; Low; Low

**
D. Low; Low; Low**

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In the Laurell method of immunoelectrophoresis, antibody is placed in:
a. Pre-cut wells
b. Incorporated in the agarose
c. Near the anodal end
d. Near center of the agarose

**b. Incorporated in the agarose
**

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Which comprises the indicator system for Competitive EIA?

a. Enzyme-conjugated antigen + chromogenic substrate
b. Enzyme-conjugated antibody + chromogenic substrate
c. Solid-phase chromogenic antibody + enzyme-conjugated antigen
d. Solid-phase chromogenic antigen + enzyme-conjugated antibody

a**. Enzyme-conjugated antigen + chromogenic substrate
**

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In the radial immunodiffusion test, the gel contains which of the following?

a. The antigen to be tested
b. Antibody
c. Patient sample
d. none of the above

**
b. Antibody
**

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Which statement is true regarding the radial immunodiffusion test?
a. The area of the precipitin ring is directly proportional to concentration of antigen in the sample
b. The area of the precipitin ring is directly proportional to concentration of antibody in the sample
c. The area of the precipitin ring is inversely proportional to concentration of antibody in the sample
d. The area of the precipitin ring indicates a partial identity to the antibody in the sample

**a. The area of the precipitin ring is directly proportional to concentration of antigen in the sample
**

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In an indirect immunofluorescent antibody test for CMV antibodies, the conjugated antibody used for

   visualizing is:
		 
		 a. Anti-human globulin conjugated to a fluorescent dye b. Anti-CMV antibody conjugated to a fluorescent dye c. CMV virus conjugated to a fluorescent dye d. Antihuman globulin conjugated to an enzyme

**a. Anti-human globulin conjugated to a fluorescent dye
**

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An initial titer of 8 followed by a subsequent titer of 64 for the same patient, drawn 2 weeks later, is

    indicative of which of the following?
			
			a. Infection b. Convalescence c. Past exposure d. No exposure

**a. Infection
**

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Flow cytometry results on patient reveal a lack of cells w/ CD2 & CD3. What does this indicate?

a. Lack of B cells
b. Lack of T cells
c. Lack of monocytes
d. Lack of natural killer cells

**
b. Lack of T cells
**

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Which of the following statements about Bence Jones protein is correct?
a. It is often found in the urine of patients with multiple sclerosis
b. It precipitates when the urine is heated at 100oC and redissolves when cooled to 60oC.
c. It consists of kappa or lambda light chains
d. It can produce a positive reagent strip protein and a negative sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test.

**.
c. It consists of kappa or lambda light chains
**

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It is generally asymptomatic but has a very high carrier rate (70-80% have chronic infections). About

  10% of the carriers develop cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma. These statements are most

  typical of which of the following transfusion-transmitted infections?

A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HEV

**
C. HCV
**

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Correct about Complement in Complement fixation (CF) tests:
a. measured quantitatively
b. measured qualitatively
c. part of the reagents used
d. does not participate in the reaction

**
c. part of the reagents used
**

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Rheumatoid factor is typically an IgM autoantibody with specificity for which of the following?
a. SS-B
b. Double-stranded DNA
c. Ribonucleoprotein
d. Fc portion of IgG

**
d. Fc portion of IgG**

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interpret the ff hepatitis B markers:
HBsAG (-), Anti-HBc (+), HBeAg (-), Anti-HBe (+), Anti-HBs(+)

a. early acute HBV hepatitis
b. early replicative phase HBV hepatitis
c. recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis
d. carrier of chronic HBV hepatitis

**
c. recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis
**

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Which of the following would be the resulting fragments after the action of papain to an IgG molecule?
1. Two Fab fragments with one binding site each

    2. One Fab fragment with 2 binding sites – F(ab)2

    3. One equally sized Fc fragment

    4. One digested Fc fragment (Fc’)

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4

b. 1 and 3
**

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In the structure of immunoglobulins, where is the antigen-binding site located?
a. carboxy terminal / constant region
b. disulfide bridges
c. amino terminal / variable region
d. hinge region

**
c. amino terminal / variable region
**

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Which comprises the indicator system for Competitive EIA?
a. Enzyme-conjugated antigen + chromogenic substrate
b. Enzyme-conjugated antibody + chromogenic substrate
c. Solid-phase chromogenic antibody + enzyme-conjugated antigen
d. Solid-phase chromogenic antigen + enzyme-conjugated antibody

**a. Enzyme-conjugated antigen + chromogenic substrate
**

In a two-fold dilution method, if tube 1 is undiluted, what will be the dilution on tube # 9?
a. 1:64
b. 1:128
c. 1:256
d. 1:512

**
c. 1:256
**

All are correct about the alternate pathway for complement activation except:

a. bypasses steps C1, C4, C2, C3
b. can be activated by bacterial capsule polysaccharides
c. properdin stabilizes and acts on specific component
d. IgA and antigen complexes can activate the pathway

A major advantage of passive immunization compared to active immunization is that

A. Antibody is available more quickly
B. Antibody persists for the life of the recipient
C. IgM is the predominant antibody class provided
D. Oral administration can be used

**A. Antibody is available more quickly
**

IM Heterophile antibodies can be absorbed by: a. Beef/ox cells only b. Guinea pig kidney cells only c. Both of the choices d. none of the choices

**a. Beef/ox cells only **

ABO blood type in w/c both phenotype and genotype are the same, and have to be Homozygous. a. A b. B c. AB d. O

**d. O**

Shelf-life of pooled platelet concentrates: a. 3 hours b. 4 hours c. 5 hours d. 6 hours

** b. 4 hours **

After thawing and pooling cryoprecipitate for transfusion to a patient, the product should be stored at: a. Room temperature b. 1 to 6 C c. 37 C d. -18 C

**a. Room temperature **

Which of the following source of lectin can be used to differentiate Type O and Oh phenotype? a. Dolichos biflorus b. Ulex europaeus c. Vicia graminea d. Maclura aurantiaca

**b. Ulex europaeus **

Which of the following is incorrect about the naturally occurring ABO antibodies? a. React optimally between 4-22°C and does not need enhancement medium b. Activates complement efficiently and can cause intravascular hemolysis c. Maybe produced after exposure to RBC antigens (transfusion or pregnancy) d. Absent or low levels in the serum of patients with Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

c. Maybe produced after exposure to RBC antigens (transfusion or pregnancy)

Which of the following ABO phenotypes will react the strongest with Anti-H? a. A1 b. A2 c. A1B d. A2B

**b. A2 **

What antigens can be expressed in secretions if these genes (Hh, BO, sese) are present? a. B antigen only b. H antigen only c. B and H antigens d. none

** d. none**

ABO IgM antibodies are frequently hemolytic because of: a. their dimeric structure b. molecule’s five antigen binding sites c. immune reactivity at 4-22C and 37C d. their efficient ability to fix complement

** d. their efficient ability to fix complement**

Purpose of dextran acrylamide in the Gel microtube method: a. Enhances the agglutination of IgG-coated RBCs b. Increases the zeta potential between RBCs during incubation c. Acts as a filter to trap agglutinated RBCs after centrifugation d. Promotes immune adherence of RBCs

** c. Acts as a filter to trap agglutinated RBCs after centrifugation **

Which is correct pair for ABH Ag and its immunodominant sugar? a. A Ag = N-acetyl-glucosamine b. B Ag = L-fucose c. H Ag = N-acetyl-galactosamine d. none of the choices

** d. none of the choices**

What are the possible ABO phenotypes of the offspring from the mating of a Group A to a Group B individual? a. O, A, B b. A, B c. A, B, AB d. O, A, B, AB

** d. O, A, B, AB**

Most probable condition causing the discrepancy in ABO typing: Anti-A = 0 Anti-B = 4+ A1 cells = 0 B cells = 0 O cells = 0 Auto control = 0 a. Cold agglutinin b. Acquired B phenomenon c. Hypogammaglobulinemia d. Plasma cell dyscrasia

** c. Hypogammaglobulinemia **

A positive DAT may be found in which of the following situations? a. A weak-D positive patient b. a patient with anti-K c. cephalosporin-associated immune hemolysis d. An incompatible crossmatch

** c. cephalosporin-associated immune hemolysis **

Polyspecific AHG reagent contains: 1. Anti-IgG 2. Anti-IgM 3. Anti-C3d a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 only d. 3 only

** b. 1 and 3 **

Maximum incubation time when LISS is used as enhancement medium: a. 15 mins b. 30 mins c. 45 mins d. 60 mins

**a. 15 mins **

Which of the following antibodies is classified as “biphasic” and an autoantibody? a. Anti-B b. Anti-P c. Anti-H d. Anti-Lea

** b. Anti-P **

An O Rh D negative mother gave birth to an O Rh D positive baby. Her rosette test was positive. Which of the following is true? a. The test is invalid because of the mother’s ABO type b. A Kleihauer-Betke test should be performed to quantify the fetal maternal hemorrhage c. The mother should be given a 300-mg dose of RhIG d. A weak D test should be performed on the baby

**b. A Kleihauer-Betke test should be performed to quantify the fetal maternal hemorrhage**

How many doses of RhIG are indicated for a Kleihauer-Betke reading of 0.6%? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

** b. 2 **

A genetic state in which no detectable trait exists is called: a. Recessive b. Dominant c. Incomplete dominance d. Amorph

** d. Amorph**

Which of the following is graded as 0 in gel tube method? a. Red cell pellet at the bottom of microtube b. RBC agglutinates at the top of gel column c. RBC agglutinates throughout the gel column d. none of the above

**a. Red cell pellet at the bottom of microtube **

Antigens are carried on the decay accelerating factor (DAF) and are distributed in body fluids and on red cells, white cells, platelets, and placental tissue: a. Gerbich b. Cromer c. Knops d. Chido/Rodgers

** b. Cromer **

A significant proportion of the RBCs in individuals with the McLeod phenotype are: a. Echinocytic b. Acanthocytic c. Spherocytic d. Elliptocytic

** b. Acanthocytic **

A nonbleeding adult of average height and weight with chronic anemia is transfused with 2 units of red blood cells. The pretransfusion Hgb is 7.0 g/dL. What is the expected posttransfusion Hgb? a. 8-9 g/dL b. 9-10 g/dL c. 10-11 g/dL d. 11-12 g/dL

** b. 9-10 g/dL **

Which of the following antibodies do not match the others in terms of optimal reactive temperature? a. Anti-Fya b. Anti-M c. Anti-K d. Anti-S

** b. Anti-M **

What antibody can an R1r patient make if transfused with R2R2 blood? a. Anti-D b. Anti-C c. Anti-E d. Anti-c

** c. Anti-E **