Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

HEMATOLOGY - IS LEC > IS LEC (TURGEON, STEVENS,CIULLA) > Flashcards

IS LEC (TURGEON, STEVENS,CIULLA) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. An appropriate definition or description of the immune system is:
    a) Tand B types
    b) Specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlym-phoid elements
    c) Mononuclear cells
    d) Can protect against or be manipulated to treat disease
A

d) Can protect against or be manipulated to treat disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. An appropriate definition or description of lymphocytes is:
    a) T and B types
    b) Specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlym-phoid elements
    c) Segmented cells
    d) Condition in which the bodys own tissues are attacked as if they were foreign
A

a) T and B types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. An appropriate definition or description of cooperative interaction is:
    a) Tand B types
    b) Specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlym-phoid elements
    c) Mononuclear cells
    d) Can protect against or be manipulated to treat disease
A

b) Specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlym-phoid elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. An appropriate definition or description of nonspecific immune elements is:
    a) Tand B types
    b) Specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlym-phoid elements
    c) Mononuclear phagocytes
    d) Condition in which the body’s own tissues are attacked as if they were foreign
A

c) Mononuclear phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. An appropriate definition or description of autoimmune disorder is:
    a) Tand B types
    b) Specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlym-phoid elements
    c) Mononuclear phagocytes
    d) Condition in which the body’s own tissues are attacked as if they were foreign
A

d) Condition in which the body’s own tissues are attacked as if they were foreign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. The first line of defense in protecting the body from infection includes all the following components except:
    a) Unbroken skin
    b) Normal microbial microbiota
    c) Phagocytic leukocytes
    d) d. Secretions such as mucus
A

c) Phagocytic leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Natural immunity is characterized as being:
    a) Innate or inborn
    b) Able to recognize exogenous or endogenous agents specifically
    c) Able to eliminate exogenous or endogenous agents selectively
    d) Part of the first line of body defenses against microbial organisms
A

a) Innate or inborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

8 and 9. Complete the following chart from the available list of
a) Lymphocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Mucus
d) Interferons

  1. Mast cells
    Cellular
    Neutrophils
    ____________

9.Complement
Humoral
Lysozyme
_________

A
  1. B. MACROPHAGES
    9.D. INTERFERONS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Another term for adaptive immunity is:
    a) Antigenic immunity
    b) Acquired immunity
    c) Lymphocyte-reactive immunity
    d) Phagocytosis
A

b) Acquired immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Humoral components of the adaptive immune system include:
    a) lymphocytes
    b) B lymphocytes
    c) Antibodies
    d) Saliva
A

c) Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity, the mode of acquisition of active natural immunity is:
    a) Infusion of serum or plasma
    b) Transfer in vivo or by colostrum
    c) Vaccination
    d) Infection
A

d) Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity, the mode of acquisition of artificial active immunity is:
    a) Infusion of serum or plasma
    b) Transfer in vivo or by colostrum
    c) Vaccination
    d) Infection
A

c) Vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity, the mode of acquisition of passive natural immunity is:
    a) Infusion of serum or plasma
    b) Transfer in vivo or by colostrum
    c) Vaccination
    d) Infection
A

b) Transfer in vivo or by colostrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity, the mode of acquisition of artificial passive immunity is:
    a) Infusion of serum or plasma
    b) Transfer in vivo or by colostrum
    c) Vaccination
    d) Infection
A

a) Infusion of serum or plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by active natural immunity, antibody produced by the host.
    a) Is
    b) Is not
A

a) Is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by artificial active immunity, antibody
    produced by the host.
    a) Is
    b) Is not
A

a) Is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by passive natural immunity, antibody produced by the host.
    a) Is
    b) Is not
A

b) Is not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by artificial passive immunity, antibody produced by the host.
    a) Is
    b) Is not
A

b) Is not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by active natural immu-nity, the duration of the presence of circulating antibody is some other types of responses.
    a) Shorter than
    b) Longer than
    c) Equivalent to
A

b) Longer than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by artificial active immu-nity, the duration of the presence of circulating antibody is some other types of responses.
    a) Shorter than
    b) Longer than
    c) Equivalent to
A

b) Longer than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by passive natural immu-nity, the duration of the presence of circulating antibody is some other types of responses.
    a) Shorter than
    b) Longer than
    c) Equivalent to
A

a) Shorter than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by artificial passive immu-nity, the duration of the presence of circulating antibody is other types of responses.
    a) Shorter than
    b) Longer than
    c) Equivalent to
A

a) Shorter than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. A synonym for an antigenic determinant is:
    a) Immunogen
    b) Epitope
    c) Binding site
    d) Polysaccharide
A

b) Epitope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Genetically different individuals of the same species are referred to as:
    a) Allogenic
    b) Heterogenic
    c) Autogenic
    d) Isogenic
A

a) Allogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
. Antigenic substances can be composed of: a) Large polysaccharides b) Proteins c) Glycoproteins d) All of the above
d) All of the above
26
4. Which of the following characteristics of an antigen is the least important? a) Foreignness b) Degradability c) Molecular weight d) Presence of large repeating polymers
d) Presence of large repeating polymers
27
5. The chemical composition of an antibody is: a) Protein b) Lipid c) Carbohydrate d) Any of the above
a) Protein
28
6. The IgM antibody class: a) Has the highest plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals b) Has the shortest half-life c) Has the highest molecular weight d) Can exist as a dimer
c) Has the highest molecular weight
29
7. The IgG antibody class: a) Has the highest plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals b) Has the shortest half-life c) Has the highest molecular weight d) Can exist as a dimer
a) Has the highest plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals
30
8. The IgA antibody class: a) Has the highest plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals b) Has the shortest half-life c) Has the highest molecular weight d) Can exist as a dimer
d) Can exist as a dimer
31
9. The IgE antibody class: a) Has the highest plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals b) Has the shortest half-life c) Can exist as a dimer d) Has no known subclasses
b) Has the shortest half-life
32
10. The IgD antibody class: a) Has the highest plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals b) Has the shortest half-life c) Can exist as a dimer d) Has no known subclasses
d) Has no known subclasses
33
11. The characteristic associated with IgG is: a) Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions b) Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders c) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions d) Produced earliest in the immune response
b) Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders
34
12. The characteristic associated with IgM is: a) Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions b) Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders c) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions d) Produced earliest in the immune response
d) Produced earliest in the immune response
35
13. The characteristic associated with IgA is: a) Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions b) Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders c) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions d) Produced earliest in the immune response
a. Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions
36
14. The characteristic associated with IgD is: a) Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions b) Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders c) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions d) Primarily a cell membrane immunoglobulin
d) Primarily a cell membrane immunoglobulin
37
15. The characteristic associated with IgE is: a) Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions b) Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders c) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions d) Primarily a cell membrane immunoglobulin
c) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions
38
16. A characteristic of an isotype is: a) Found on the immunoglobulins of some, but not all, animals of a species b) Dominant type found on immunoglobulins of all animals of a species c) Individual determinants characteristic of each antibody d) None of the above
b) Dominant type found on immunoglobulins of all animals of a species
39
17. A characteristic of an allotype is: a) Found on the immunoglobulins of some, but not all, animals of a species b) Dominant type found on immunoglobulins of all animals of a species c) Individual determinants characteristic of each antibody d) None of the above
a) Found on the immunoglobulins of some, but not all, animals of a species
40
18. A characteristic of an idiotype is: a) Found on the immunoglobulins of some, but not all, animals of a species b) Dominant type found on immunoglobulins of all animals of a species c) Individual determinants characteristic of each antibody d) None of the above
c) Individual determinants characteristic of each antibody
41
23. Which of the following statements is false about an anam-nestic response versus a primary response? a) Has a shorter lag phase b) Has a longer plateau c) Antibodies decline more gradually d) IgM antibodies predominate
d) IgM antibodies predominate
41
19-22. Arrange the sequence of events of a typical antibody response. a) Plateau b) Lag Phase c) Log Phase d) Decline
19.B 20.C 21.A 22. D
41
25. Specificity is defined as: a) Strength of a bond between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site b) Noncovalent combination of an antigen with its respective specific antibody c) Ability of an antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another d) Strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen
c) Ability of an antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another
42
24. Which type of antibody is capable of placental transfer? a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA
b) IgG
42
26. Affinity is defined as: a) Strength of a bond between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site b) Noncovalent combination of an antigen with its respective specific antibody c) Ability of an antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another d) Strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen
a) Strength of a bond between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site
43
27. Avidity is defined as: a) Strength of a bond between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site b) Noncovalent combination of an antigen with its respective specific antibody c) Ability of an antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another d) Strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen
d) Strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen
44
28. Immune complex is defined as: a) Strength of a bond between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site b) Noncovalent combination of an antigen with its respective specific antibody c) Ability of an antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another d) Strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen
b) Noncovalent combination of an antigen with its respective specific antibody
45
29. Which of the following type(s) of bonding is (are) involved in antigen-antibody reactions? a) Hydrophobic b) Hydrogen c) Van der Waals d) All of the above
d) All of the above
46
30. Monovalent antibodies have also been referred to as: a) Complete antibodies b) Incomplete antibodies
b) Incomplete antibodies
47
31. Which of the following is an accurate statement about monoclonal antibodies (MAbs)? a) MAbs are antibodies engineered to bind to a single epitope b) MAbs are purified antibodies cloned from a single cell c) MAbs are used to classify and identify specific cellular membrane characteristics d) All of the above are correct
d) All of the above are correct
48
32. Antigens are characterized as: a) Not usually large organic molecules b) Usually lipids c) Can be glycolipids or glycoproteins d) Are also called immunoglobulins
c) Can be glycolipids or glycoproteins
49
33. The immunogenicity of an antigen depends greatly on: a) Its biochemical composition b) Being structurally unstable c) Its degree of foreignness d) Having a low molecular weight
c) Its degree of foreignness
50
34. Antibodies are also referred to as: a) Immunoglobulins b) Haptens c) Epitopes d) Gamma globulins
a) Immunoglobulins
51
35. An appropriate description of IgM is: a) Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space b) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity c) Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions d) Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms
a) Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space
52
36. An appropriate description of IgG is: a) Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space b) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity c) Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions d) Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms
d) Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms
53
37. An appropriate description of IgA is: a) Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space b) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity c) Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions d) Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms
c) Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions
54
38. An appropriate description of IgE is: a) Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space b) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity c) Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions d) Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms
b) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity
55
39. An appropriate description of Ig is: a) Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space b) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity c) Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions d) Makes up less than 1% of total immunoglobulins
d) Makes up less than 1% of total immunoglobulins
56
40 and 41. Label the components of the basic immunoglobulin (Ig) configuration in the following figure. Possible answers for question 40 a) Fc segment b) Fab segment c) Hinge region d) Disulfide bond Possible answers for question 41: a) Fc segment b) Fab segment c) Hinge region d) Disulfide bond
40. b FAB Segment 41. a. FC Segment
57
42. Which of the following characterizes IgM? a) Composed of five basic subunits b) Less efficient in the activation of the complement cascade and agglutination than IgG c) Less response in an initial antibody response d) Predominant in a secondary (anamnestic) response
a) Composed of five basic subunits
58
43-46. Label the four phases of an antibody response on the following figure, choosing from these following answers: a) Log b) Plateau c) Lag d) Decline
43.C 44A 45.B 46.D
59
47. In a secondary (anamnestic) response, a characteristic feature is: a) IgG is the predominant antibody type b) It has a longer lag phase c) The antibody titer is lower d) It has an accelerated decline in antibody response
a) IgG is the predominant antibody type
60
48. Bonding of antigen to antibody exists exclusively as: a) Hydrogen bonding b) Van der Waals forces c) Electrostatic forces d) Noncovalent bonding
d) Noncovalent bonding
61
49. The strongest bond of antigen and antibody chiefly results from the: a) Type of bonding b) Goodness of fit c) Antibody type d) Quantity of antibody
b) Goodness of fit
62
50. Monoclonal antibodies have the characteristic of: a) A diversified mixture of antibodies b) Cloned from a single cell c) Engineered to bind to a single specific antibody d) Frequent occurrence in nature
b) Cloned from a single cell
63
1. The site of hematopoiesis in the first month of gestation is the: a. Yolk sac b. Spleen c. Liver d. Bone marrow
a. Yolk sac
64
2. The principal type of leukocyte in the process of phagocytosis is the: a. Eosinophil b. Basophil c. Monocyte d. Neutrophil
d. Neutrophil
65
3. Chronic granulomatous disease represents a defect of: a. Oxidative metabolism b. Abnormal granulation of neutrophils c. Diapedesis d. Chemotaxis
a. Oxidative metabolism
66
13-16. Arrange the steps of phagocytosis in the proper Sequence a. Digestion of bacteria b. Increase in chemoattractants at site of tissue damage c. Ingestion of bacteria d. Movement of phagocytic cells
13)B 14)D 15)C 16)A
67
21. The site of initial red blood cell production in the embryo and fetus is the: a. Liver and spleen b. Yolk sac c. Bone marrow
b. Yolk sac
68
22. The predominant site of red blood cell production during most of the time of fetal life is: a. Liver and spleen b. Yolk sac c. Bone marrow
a. Liver and spleen
69
23. The ultimate site of primary hematopoiesis in the embryo and fetus is the: a. Liver and spleen b. Yolk sac c. Bone marrow
c. Bone marrow
70
1. Which of the following can be attributed to Pasteur? a. Discovery of opsonins b. Observation of phagocytosis c. First attenuated vaccines d. Theory of humoral immunity
c. First attenuated vaccines
70
2. Which WBC is capable of further differentiation in tissues? a. Neutrophil b. Eosinophil c. Basophil d. Monocyte
d. Monocyte
70
3. The cells that Metchnikoff first observed are associated with which phenomenon? a. Innate immunity b. Adaptive immunity c. Humoral immunity d. Specific immunity
a. Innate immunity
71
4. Where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made? a. Bone marrow b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Lymph nodes
a. Bone marrow
72
5. Which of the following statements is true of NK cells? a. They rely upon memory for antigen recognition. b. They have the same CD groups as B cells. c. They are found mainly in lymph nodes. d. They kill target cells without prior exposure to them.
d. They kill target cells without prior exposure to them.
73
6. Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue? a. Neutrophil b. Dendritic cell c. Eosinophil d. Basophil
b. Dendritic cell
74
7. The ability of an individual to resist infection hy means of normally present body functions is called a. innate immunity. b. humoral immunity. c. adaptive immunity. d. cross-immunity
a. innate immunity.
75
8. A cell characterized by a nucleus with two to five. lobes, a diameter of 10 to 15 um, and a large number of neutral staining granules is identified as a(n) a. eosinophil b. monocyte. c. basophil. d. neutrophil
d. neutrophil
76
9. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ? a. Lymph node b. Spleen c. Thymus d. MALT
c. Thymus
77
10. What type of cells would be found in a primary follicle? a. Unstimulated B cells b. Germinal centers c. Plasma cells d. Memory cells
a. Unstimulated B cells
78
11. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of B cells? a. Act as helper cells b. Presence of surface antibody c. Able to kill target cells without prior exposure d. Active in phagocytosis
b. Presence of surface antibody
79
12. Where do lymphocytes mainly come in contact with antigens? a. Secondary lymphoid organs b. Bloodstream c. Bone marrow d. Thymus
a. Secondary lymphoid organs
80
13. Which of the following is found on the I cell subset known as helpers? a. CD19 b. CD4 c. CD8 d. CD56
b. CD4
81
14. Which of the following statements best characterizes adaptive immunity? a. Relies on normally present body functions b. Response is similar for each exposure c. Specificity for each individual pathogen d. Involves only cellular immunity
c. Specificity for each individual pathogen
82
15. The main function of T cells in the immune response 1s to a. produce cytokines that regulate both innate and adaptive immunity. b. produce antibodies. c. participate actively in phagocytosis. d. respond to target cells without prior exposure
a. produce cytokines that regulate both innate and adaptive immunity.
83
16. Which of the following is a part of humoral immunity? a. Cells involved in phagocytosis b. Neutralization of toxins by serum c. Macrophages and mast cells in the tissue d. Tand B cells in lymph nodes
b. Neutralization of toxins by serum
84
17. Immunity can be defined as a. the study of medicines used to treat diseases. b. a specific population at risk for a disease. c. the condition of being resistant to disease. d. the study of the noncellular portion of the blood
c. the condition of being resistant to disease.
85
18. A blood cell that has reddish staining granules and is able to kill large parasites describes a. basophils. b. monocytes. c. neutrophils. d. eosinophils.
d. eosinophils
86
19. Which of the following statements best describes a lymph node? a. It is considered a primary lymphoid organ. b. It removes old RBCs. c. It collects fluid from the tissues. d. It is where B cells mature.
c. It collects fluid from the tissues.
87
20. Antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to certain standard cell lines best describes a. cytokines. b. clusters of differentiation (CD). c. neutrophilic granules. d. opsonins
b. clusters of differentiation (CD).
88
1. The term for enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum protems is a. opsonization. b. agglutination. c. solubilization. d. chemotaxis.
a. opsonization
89
2. Which of the following plays an important role as an extemal defense mechanism? a. Phagocytosis b. C-reactive protein c. Lysozyme d. Complement
c. Lysozyme
90
3. The process of inflammation is characterized by all of the following except a. increased blood supply to the area. b. migration of WBCs. c. decreased capillary permeability. d. appearance of acute-phase reactants
c. decreased capillary permeability.
91
4. Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity? a. Innate b. Cross c. Adaptive d. Auto
a. Innate
92
5. The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell is called a a. phagosome. b. lysosome. c. vacuole. d. phagolysosome
d. phagolysosome
93
6. The presence of human microbiota (normal flora) acts as a defense mechanism by which of the following methods? a. Maintaining an acid environment b. Competing with potential pathogens c. Keeping phagocytes in the area d. Coating mucosal surfaces
b. Competing with potential pathogens
94
7. Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except a. monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory agents. b. tracking the progress of an organ transplant. c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection. d. determining active phases of rheumatoid arthritis.
c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection.
95
8. Pathogen recognition receptors act by a. recognizing molecules common to both host cells and pathogens. b. recognizing molecules that are unique to pathogens. c. helping to spread infection because they are found on pathogens. d. all recognizing the same pathogens
b. recognizing molecules that are unique to pathogens.
96
9. Which of the following are characteristics of acute-phase reactants? a. Rapid increase following infection b. Enhancement of phagocytosis c. Nonspecific indicators of inflammation d. All of the above
d. All of the above
97
10. Which is the most significant agent formed in the phagolysosome for the elimination of microorganisms? a. Proteolytic enzymes b. Hydrogen ions c. Hypochlorite ions d. Superoxides
c. Hypochlorite ions
98
11. Which acute-phase reactant helps to prevent formation of peroxides and free radicals that may damage tissues? a. Haptoglobin b. Fibrinogen c. Ceruloplasmin d. Serum amyloid A
a. Haptoglobin
99
12. Which statement best describes Toll-like receptors (TLRs)? a. They protect adult flies from infection. b. They are found on all host cells. c. They only play a role in adaptive immunity. d. They enhance phagocytosis.
d. They enhance phagocytosis
100
13. The action of CRP can he distinguished from that of an antibody because a. CRP acts before the antibody appears b. only the antibody triggers the complement cascade. c. binding of the antibody is calcium-dependent. d. only CRP acts as an opsonin.
a. CRP acts before the antibody appears
101
14. How does innate immunity differ from adaptive immunity? a. Innate immunity requires prior exposure to a pathogen. b. Innate immunity depends upon normally present body functions. c. Inmate immunity develops later than adaptive immunity d. Inmate immunity is more specific than adaptive
b. Innate immunity depends upon normally present body functions
102
15. A 40-year-old male who is a smoker develops symptoms of premature emphysema. The symptoms may be caused by a deficiency of which of the following acute-phase reactants? a. Haptoglobin b. Alpha, antitrypsin c. Fibrinogen d. Ceruloplasmin
b. Alpha, antitrypsin
103
16. Which statement best describes NK cells? a. Their response against pathogens is very specific. b. They only react when an abundance of MHC antigens is present c. They react when both an inhibitory and activating signal is triggered. d. They are able to kill target cells without previous exposure to them
d. They are able to kill target cells without previous exposure to them
104
1. Which MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4+ T cells? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. No MHC molecule is necessary.
b. Class II
105
2. Which would he characteristic of a independent antigen? a. The IgG antibody is produced exclusively. b. A large number of memory cells are produced. c. Antigens bind only one receptor on B cells. d. It consists of a limited number of repeating determinants.
d. It consists of a limited number of repeating determinants.
106
3. Humoral immunity refers to which of the following? a. Production of antibody by plasma cells b. Production of cytokines by T cells c. Elimination of virally infected cells by cytotoxic cells d. Downregulation of the immune response
a. Production of antibody by plasma cells
107
4. Where does antigen-independent maturation of B lymphocytes take place? a. Bone marrow b. Thymus c. Spleen d. Lymph nodes
a. Bone marrow
108
5. In the thymus, positive selection of immature T cells is hased upon recognition of which of the following? a. Self-antigens b. Stress proteins c. MHC antigens d. a chains
c. MHC antigens
109
6. Which of these are found on a mature B cell? a. IgG and IgD b. IgM and IgD c. Alpha and beta chains d. CD3
b. IgM and IgD
110
7. How do cytotoxic T cells kill target cells? a. They produce antibodies that hind to the cell. b. They engulf the cell by phagocytosis. c. They stop protein synthesis in the target cell. d. They produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis.
d. They produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis.
111
8. Which of the following can be attributed to antigen-stimulated T cells? a. Humoral response b. Plasma cells c. Cytokines d. Antibody
c. Cytokines
112
9. Which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell? a. p chains in the cytoplasm b. Complete IgM on the surface c. Presence of CD21 antigen d. Presence of CD25 antigen
a. p chains in the cytoplasm
113
10. When does genetic rearrangement for coding of antibody light chains take place during B-cell development? a. Before the pre-B cell stage b. As the cell becomes an immature B cell c. Not until the cell becomes a mature B cell d. When the B cell becomes a plasma cell
b. As the cell becomes an immature B cell
114
11. Which of the following antigens are found on the I-cell subset known as helper/inducers? a. CD3 b. CD4 c. CD8 d. CD11
b. CD4
115
12. Where does the major portion of antibody production occur? a. Peripheral blood b. Bone marrow c. Thymus d. Lymph nodes
d. Lymph nodes
116
13. Which of the following would represent a double-negative thymocyte? a. CD2-CD3+CD4-CDS+ b. CD2-CD3-CD4-CD8- c. CD2-CD3+CD4-CD8- d. CD2-CD3-CD4+CD8-
c. CD2-CD3+CD4-CD8-
117
14. Which of the following hest describes the T-cell receptor for antigen? a. It consists of IgM and IgD molecules. b. It is the same for all T cells. c. It is present in the double-negative stage. d. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen.
d. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen.
118
15. A cell flow cytometry patter belonging to a 3-year-old patient showed the following: normal CD4+ I-cell count, normal CD19+ B-cell count, low CD8+ I-cell count. Which type of immumity would he affected? a. Production of antibody b. Formation of plasma cells c. Elimination of virally infected cells d. Downregulation of the immune response
c. Elimination of virally infected cells
119
16. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of adaptive immunity? a. Ability to fight infection b. Ability to remember a prior exposure to a pathogen c. A similar response to all pathogens encountered d. Process of phagocytosis to destroy a pathogen
b. Ability to remember a prior exposure to a pathogen
120
18. Where do germinal centers occur? a. In the thymus b. In the bone marrow c. In peripheral blood d. In lymph nodes
d. In lymph nodes
120
17. Clonal deletion of T cells as they mature is important in which of the following processes? a. Elimination of autoimmune responses b. Positive selection of CD3/TCR receptors c. Allelic exclusion of chromosomes d. Elimination of cells unable to bind to MHC antigens
a. Elimination of autoimmune responses
121
1. Which of the following is characteristic of variable domains of immunoglobulins? a. They occur on both the Hand L chains. b. They represent the complement-binding site. c. They are at the carboxy-terminal ends of the molecules. d. They are found mly on H chains.
a. They occur on both the Hand L chains.
122
2. All of the following are true of IgM except that it a. can cross the placenta. b. fixes complement c. has a J chain. d. is a primary response antibody.
a. can cross the placenta.
123
3. How does the structure of lgE differ from that of IgG? a. IgG has a secretory component and IgE does not. b. IgE has one more constant region than IgG. c. IgG has more antigen-binding sites than IgE. d. IgG has more light chains than IgE.
b. 1gE has one more constant region than IgG
124
4. How many antigen-binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10
d. 10
125
5. Bence Jones proteins are identical to which of the following? a. H chains b. L chains c. IgM molecules d. IgG molecules
b. L chains
126
6. A Fab fragment consists of a. two H chains. b. two L chains. c. one L chain and one-half of an H chain. d. one L chain and an entire H chain.
c. one L chain and one-half of an H chain.
127
7. Which antibody best protects mucosal surfaces? a. IgA b. IgG C. IgE d.IgM
a. IgA
128
8. Which of the following pairs represents two different immunoglobulin allotypes? a. IgM and IgG b. IgMI and IgM2 c. Anti-human IgM and anti-human 1gG d. IgGIm3 and IgGlml7
d. IgGIm3 and IgGlml7
129
9. The structure of a typical immunoglobulin consists of which of the following? a. 2L and 2H chains b. 4L and 2H chains c. 4L and 4H chains d. 2L and + H chains
a. 2L and 2H chains
130
10. Which of the following are L chains of antibody molecules? a.Kappa b. Gamma c. Mu d. Alpha
A. Карра
131
11. If the results of serum protein electrophoresis show a significant decrease in the gamma band, which of the following is a likely possibility? a. Normal response to active infection b. Multiple myeloma c. Immunodeficiency disorder d. Monoclonal gammopathy
c. Immunodeficiency disorder
132
12. The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in a. the type of L chain. b. the arrangement of disulfide bonds. c. the ability to act as opsonins. d. molecular weight
b. the arrangement of disulfide bonds.
133
13. Which best describes the role of the secretory component of lgA? a. A transport mechanism across endothelial cells b. A means of joining two IgA monomers together c. An aid to trapping antigen d. Enhancement of complement fixation by the classical pathway
a. A transport mechanism across endothelial cells
134
14. Which represents the main function of IgD? a. Protection of the mucous membranes b. Removal of antigens by complement fixation c. Enhancing proliferation of B cells d. Destruction of parasitic worms
c. Enhancing proliferation of B cells
135
15. Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation? a. IgA b. IgG c. IgD d. IgM
d. IgM
136
16. Which of the following can be attributed to the clonal selection hypothesis of antibody formation? a. Plasma cells make generalized antibody. b. B cells are preprogrammed for specific antibody synthesis. c. Proteins can alter their shape to conform to antigen. d. Cell receptors break off and become circulating antibody
b. B cells are preprogrammed for specific antibody synthesis
137
17. All of the following are true of IgE except that it a. fails to fix complement. b. is heat stable. c. attaches to tissue mast cells. d. is found in the serum of allergic persons.
b. is heat stable.
138
18. Which best describes coding for immunoglobulin molecules? a. All genes are located on the same chromosome. b. L chain rearrangement occurs hefore H chain rearrangement. c. Four different regions are involved in coding of H chains. d. Lambda rearrangement occurs before kappa rearrangement.
c. Four different regions are involved in coding of H chains.
139
19. What is the purpose of HAT medium in the preparation of monoclonal antibody? a. Fusion of the two cell types b. Restricting the growth of myeloma cells c. Restricting the growth of spleen cells d. Restricting antibody production to the 1gM class
b. Restricting the growth of myeloma cells
140
20. Papain digestion of an IgG molecule results in which of the following? a. 2 Fab' and 1 Fc' fragment b. Fab, and 1 Fc' fragment c. 2 Fab and 2 Fc fragments d. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment
d. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment
141
21. Which antibody provides protection to the growing fetus because it is able to cross the placenta? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. 1gD
a. IgG
142
22. Which best characterizes the secondary response? a. Equal amounts of 1gM and 1gG are produced. b. There is an increase in 1gM only. c. There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM. d. The lag phase is the same as in the primary response
c. There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM.
143
1. Color Plate 21 depicts a monomeric immunoglobulin molecule. The portion of the molecule indicated by the dotted red circle and the red arrow is called the A. Fab fragment B. Fc fragment C. Heavy chain D. Hinge region
A. Fab fragment
144
2. A hapten is A. Half of an immunoglobulin molecule B. A carrier molecule for an antigen that is not antigenic alone C. An immunoglobulin functional only in the presence of complement D. A determinant capable of stimulating an immune response only when bound to a carrier
D. A determinant capable of stimulating an immune response only when bound to a carrier
145
3. Which of the following is characteristic of B cells? A. Phagocytic B. Participate in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) reactions C. Contain surface immunoglobulins D. Secrete the C5 component of complement
C. Contain surface immunoglobulins
146
4. A lymphokine is A. A soluble mediator produced by granulocytes and affecting lymphocytes B. A soluble mediator produced by Lymphocytes C. A soluble mediator produced by plasma cells D. An antibody that reacts with lymphocytes
B. A soluble mediator produced by Lymphocytes
147
5. Monocytes and macrophages play a major role in the mononuclear phagocytic system. For an antibody-coated antigen to be phagocytized, what part of the antibody molecule fits into a receptor on the phagocytic cell? A. FC region B. Fab region C. Hinge region D. Variable region
A. FC region
148
6. Cell-mediated immunity is primarily mediated by A. B cells B. T helper cells C. Plasma cells D. Dendritic cells
B. T helper cells
149
9. Which of the following is more likely to be diagnostic of an acute infection? A. A total acute antibody titer of 2 followed by a convalescent titer of 16 B. A total acute antibody titer of 80 followed by a convalescent titer of 40 C. A total antibody titer of 80 D. An IgG antibody titer of 80
A. A total acute antibody titer of 2 followed by a convalescent titer of 16
150
11. What is the predominant type of antibody found in the serum of neonates born after full-term gestation? A. Infant IgA B. Ifant IgG C. Infant IgM D. Maternal IgG
D. Maternal IgG
151
12. An important part of the nonspecific immune response is(are) A. B cells B. Basophils C. Complement cascade D. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
C. Complement cascade
152
13. The major class of immunoglobulin found in adult human serum is A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM
C. IgG
153
14. Which class of immunoglobulin possesses delta heavy chains? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE
B. IgD
154
15. Which class of immunoglobulin possesses 10 antigenic binding sites? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgG D. IgM
D. IgM
155
16. Color Plate 22 I represents a dimeric IgA molecule. The structure printed in red and indicated by the red arrow is called the A. J-piece B. Hinge region C. Heavy chain D. Light chain
A. J-piece
156
17. Which class of immunoglobulin binds to basophils and mast cells to mediate immediate hypersensitivity reactions? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG
C. IgE
157
22. The serologically detectable antibody produced in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is primarily of the class A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM
D. IgM
158
27. After exposure to antigen, the first antibodies that can be detected belong to the class A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D.IgM
D.IgM
158
37. How does the secondary humoral immune response differ from the primary response? A. The lag phase (the time between exposure to immunogen and production of antibody) is longer in the secondary immune response. B. IgM is the predominant antibody class produced in the secondary immune response. C. The antibody levels produced are higher in the secondary immune response. D. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes play an important role in the secondary response.
C. The antibody levels produced are higher in the secondary immune response.
158
35. A major advantage of passive immunization compared to active immunization is that A. Antibody is available more quickly B. Antibody persists for the life of the recipient C. IgM is the predominant antibody class provided D. Oral administration can be used
A. Antibody is available more quickly
159
39. The type of immunity that follows the injection of an immunogen is termed A. Artificial active B. Natural active C. Artificial passive D. Innate
A. Artificial active
160
40). The type of immunity that follows the injection of antibodies synthesized by another individual or animal is termed A. Artificial active B. Natural adaptive C. Artificial passive D. Natural passive
C. Artificial passive
161
41. Innate immunity includes A. Anamnestic response B. Antibody production C. Cytotoxic T cell activity D. Phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear cells
D. Phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear cells
162
47. The portion of an antigen that binds to an antibody or T cell receptor is called a(n) A. Allergin B. Avidin C. Epitope D. Valence
C. Epitope
163
56. Which of the following statements about immunoglobulin light chains is true? A. Each immunoglobulin monomer has either one kappa or one lambda chain. B. There are two types: kappa and lambda. C. They consist of constant regions only. D. They form part of the Fc fragment
D. They form part of the Fc fragment
164
51. The Fab portion of an antibody A. Binds T cell receptor B. Consists of two light chains only C. Consists of two heavy chains only D. Contains the hypervariable region
D. Contains the hypervariable region
165
57. Which of the following statements applies to the Fc fragment of an immunoglobulin molecule? A. It consists of the entire heavy chain. B. It contains the variable region of the heavy chain. C. It contains the antigen binding sites of the molecule. D. It is the region of the molecule that binds to receptors on various white blood cells
D. It is the region of the molecule that binds to receptors on various white blood cells

HEMATOLOGY - IS LEC (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions