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HEMATOLOGY - IS LEC > IS LEC (TURGEON, STEVENS,CIULLA) > Flashcards

IS LEC (TURGEON, STEVENS,CIULLA) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. An appropriate definition or description of the immune system is:
    a) Tand B types
    b) Specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlym-phoid elements
    c) Mononuclear cells
    d) Can protect against or be manipulated to treat disease
A

d) Can protect against or be manipulated to treat disease

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2
Q
  1. An appropriate definition or description of lymphocytes is:
    a) T and B types
    b) Specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlym-phoid elements
    c) Segmented cells
    d) Condition in which the bodys own tissues are attacked as if they were foreign
A

a) T and B types

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3
Q
  1. An appropriate definition or description of cooperative interaction is:
    a) Tand B types
    b) Specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlym-phoid elements
    c) Mononuclear cells
    d) Can protect against or be manipulated to treat disease
A

b) Specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlym-phoid elements

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4
Q
  1. An appropriate definition or description of nonspecific immune elements is:
    a) Tand B types
    b) Specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlym-phoid elements
    c) Mononuclear phagocytes
    d) Condition in which the body’s own tissues are attacked as if they were foreign
A

c) Mononuclear phagocytes

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5
Q
  1. An appropriate definition or description of autoimmune disorder is:
    a) Tand B types
    b) Specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlym-phoid elements
    c) Mononuclear phagocytes
    d) Condition in which the body’s own tissues are attacked as if they were foreign
A

d) Condition in which the body’s own tissues are attacked as if they were foreign

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6
Q
  1. The first line of defense in protecting the body from infection includes all the following components except:
    a) Unbroken skin
    b) Normal microbial microbiota
    c) Phagocytic leukocytes
    d) d. Secretions such as mucus
A

c) Phagocytic leukocytes

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7
Q
  1. Natural immunity is characterized as being:
    a) Innate or inborn
    b) Able to recognize exogenous or endogenous agents specifically
    c) Able to eliminate exogenous or endogenous agents selectively
    d) Part of the first line of body defenses against microbial organisms
A

a) Innate or inborn

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8
Q

8 and 9. Complete the following chart from the available list of
a) Lymphocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Mucus
d) Interferons

  1. Mast cells
    Cellular
    Neutrophils
    ____________

9.Complement
Humoral
Lysozyme
_________

A
  1. B. MACROPHAGES
    9.D. INTERFERONS
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9
Q
  1. Another term for adaptive immunity is:
    a) Antigenic immunity
    b) Acquired immunity
    c) Lymphocyte-reactive immunity
    d) Phagocytosis
A

b) Acquired immunity

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10
Q
  1. Humoral components of the adaptive immune system include:
    a) lymphocytes
    b) B lymphocytes
    c) Antibodies
    d) Saliva
A

c) Antibodies

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11
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity, the mode of acquisition of active natural immunity is:
    a) Infusion of serum or plasma
    b) Transfer in vivo or by colostrum
    c) Vaccination
    d) Infection
A

d) Infection

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12
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity, the mode of acquisition of artificial active immunity is:
    a) Infusion of serum or plasma
    b) Transfer in vivo or by colostrum
    c) Vaccination
    d) Infection
A

c) Vaccination

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13
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity, the mode of acquisition of passive natural immunity is:
    a) Infusion of serum or plasma
    b) Transfer in vivo or by colostrum
    c) Vaccination
    d) Infection
A

b) Transfer in vivo or by colostrum

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14
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity, the mode of acquisition of artificial passive immunity is:
    a) Infusion of serum or plasma
    b) Transfer in vivo or by colostrum
    c) Vaccination
    d) Infection
A

a) Infusion of serum or plasma

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15
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by active natural immunity, antibody produced by the host.
    a) Is
    b) Is not
A

a) Is

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16
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by artificial active immunity, antibody
    produced by the host.
    a) Is
    b) Is not
A

a) Is

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17
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by passive natural immunity, antibody produced by the host.
    a) Is
    b) Is not
A

b) Is not

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18
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by artificial passive immunity, antibody produced by the host.
    a) Is
    b) Is not
A

b) Is not

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19
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by active natural immu-nity, the duration of the presence of circulating antibody is some other types of responses.
    a) Shorter than
    b) Longer than
    c) Equivalent to
A

b) Longer than

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20
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by artificial active immu-nity, the duration of the presence of circulating antibody is some other types of responses.
    a) Shorter than
    b) Longer than
    c) Equivalent to
A

b) Longer than

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21
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by passive natural immu-nity, the duration of the presence of circulating antibody is some other types of responses.
    a) Shorter than
    b) Longer than
    c) Equivalent to
A

a) Shorter than

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22
Q
  1. In adaptive immunity acquired by artificial passive immu-nity, the duration of the presence of circulating antibody is other types of responses.
    a) Shorter than
    b) Longer than
    c) Equivalent to
A

a) Shorter than

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23
Q
  1. A synonym for an antigenic determinant is:
    a) Immunogen
    b) Epitope
    c) Binding site
    d) Polysaccharide
A

b) Epitope

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24
Q
  1. Genetically different individuals of the same species are referred to as:
    a) Allogenic
    b) Heterogenic
    c) Autogenic
    d) Isogenic
A

a) Allogenic

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25
Q

. Antigenic substances can be composed of:
a) Large polysaccharides
b) Proteins
c) Glycoproteins
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristics of an antigen is the least important?
    a) Foreignness
    b) Degradability
    c) Molecular weight
    d) Presence of large repeating polymers
A

d) Presence of large repeating polymers

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27
Q
  1. The chemical composition of an antibody is:
    a) Protein
    b) Lipid
    c) Carbohydrate
    d) Any of the above
A

a) Protein

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28
Q
  1. The IgM antibody class:
    a) Has the highest plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals
    b) Has the shortest half-life
    c) Has the highest molecular weight
    d) Can exist as a dimer
A

c) Has the highest molecular weight

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29
Q
  1. The IgG antibody class:
    a) Has the highest plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals
    b) Has the shortest half-life
    c) Has the highest molecular weight
    d) Can exist as a dimer
A

a) Has the highest plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals

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30
Q
  1. The IgA antibody class:
    a) Has the highest plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals
    b) Has the shortest half-life
    c) Has the highest molecular weight
    d) Can exist as a dimer
A

d) Can exist as a dimer

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31
Q
  1. The IgE antibody class:
    a) Has the highest plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals
    b) Has the shortest half-life
    c) Can exist as a dimer
    d) Has no known subclasses
A

b) Has the shortest half-life

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32
Q
  1. The IgD antibody class:
    a) Has the highest plasma or serum concentration in normal individuals
    b) Has the shortest half-life
    c) Can exist as a dimer
    d) Has no known subclasses
A

d) Has no known subclasses

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33
Q
  1. The characteristic associated with IgG is:
    a) Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions
    b) Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders
    c) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions
    d) Produced earliest in the immune response
A

b) Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders

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34
Q
  1. The characteristic associated with IgM is:
    a) Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions
    b) Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders
    c) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions
    d) Produced earliest in the immune response
A

d) Produced earliest in the immune response

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35
Q
  1. The characteristic associated with IgA is:
    a) Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions
    b) Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders
    c) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions
    d) Produced earliest in the immune response
A

d) Produced earliest in the immune response

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36
Q
  1. The characteristic associated with IgD is:
    a) Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions
    b) Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders
    c) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions
    d) Primarily a cell membrane immunoglobulin
A

d) Primarily a cell membrane immunoglobulin

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37
Q
  1. The characteristic associated with IgE is:
    a) Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions
    b) Increased in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders
    c) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions
    d) Primarily a cell membrane immunoglobulin
A

c) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions

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38
Q
  1. A characteristic of an isotype is:
    a) Found on the immunoglobulins of some, but not all, animals of a species
    b) Dominant type found on immunoglobulins of all animals of a species
    c) Individual determinants characteristic of each antibody
    d) None of the above
A

b) Dominant type found on immunoglobulins of all animals of a species

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39
Q
  1. A characteristic of an allotype is:
    a) Found on the immunoglobulins of some, but not all, animals of a species
    b) Dominant type found on immunoglobulins of all animals of a species
    c) Individual determinants characteristic of each antibody
    d) None of the above
A

a) Found on the immunoglobulins of some, but not all, animals of a species

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40
Q
  1. A characteristic of an idiotype is:
    a) Found on the immunoglobulins of some, but not all, animals of a species
    b) Dominant type found on immunoglobulins of all animals of a species
    c) Individual determinants characteristic of each antibody
    d) None of the above
A

c) Individual determinants characteristic of each antibody

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false about an anam-nestic response versus a primary response?
    a) Has a shorter lag phase
    b) Has a longer plateau
    c) Antibodies decline more gradually
    d) IgM antibodies predominate
A

d) IgM antibodies predominate

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41
Q

19-22. Arrange the sequence of events of a typical antibody response.
a) Plateau
b) Lag Phase
c) Log Phase
d) Decline

A

19.B
20.C
21.A
22. D

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41
Q
  1. Specificity is defined as:
    a) Strength of a bond between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site
    b) Noncovalent combination of an antigen with its respective specific antibody
    c) Ability of an antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another
    d) Strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen
A

c) Ability of an antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another

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42
Q
  1. Which type of antibody is capable of placental transfer?
    a) IgM
    b) IgG
    c) IgA
A

b) IgG

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42
Q
  1. Affinity is defined as:
    a) Strength of a bond between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site
    b) Noncovalent combination of an antigen with its respective specific antibody
    c) Ability of an antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another
    d) Strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen
A

a) Strength of a bond between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site

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43
Q
  1. Avidity is defined as:
    a) Strength of a bond between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site
    b) Noncovalent combination of an antigen with its respective specific antibody
    c) Ability of an antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another
    d) Strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen
A

d) Strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen

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44
Q
  1. Immune complex is defined as:
    a) Strength of a bond between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site
    b) Noncovalent combination of an antigen with its respective specific antibody
    c) Ability of an antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another
    d) Strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen
A

b) Noncovalent combination of an antigen with its respective specific antibody

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following type(s) of bonding is (are) involved in antigen-antibody reactions?
    a) Hydrophobic
    b) Hydrogen
    c) Van der Waals
    d) All of the above
A

d) All of the above

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46
Q
  1. Monovalent antibodies have also been referred to as:
    a) Complete antibodies
    b) Incomplete antibodies
A

b) Incomplete antibodies

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47
Q
  1. Which of the following is an accurate statement about monoclonal antibodies (MAbs)?
    a) MAbs are antibodies engineered to bind to a single epitope
    b) MAbs are purified antibodies cloned from a single cell
    c) MAbs are used to classify and identify specific cellular membrane characteristics
    d) All of the above are correct
A

d) All of the above are correct

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48
Q
  1. Antigens are characterized as:
    a) Not usually large organic molecules
    b) Usually lipids
    c) Can be glycolipids or glycoproteins
    d) Are also called immunoglobulins
A

c) Can be glycolipids or glycoproteins

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49
Q
  1. The immunogenicity of an antigen depends greatly on:
    a) Its biochemical composition
    b) Being structurally unstable
    c) Its degree of foreignness
    d) Having a low molecular weight
A

c) Its degree of foreignness

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50
Q
  1. Antibodies are also referred to as:
    a) Immunoglobulins
    b) Haptens
    c) Epitopes
    d) Gamma globulins
A

a) Immunoglobulins

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51
Q
  1. An appropriate description of IgM is:
    a) Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space
    b) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity
    c) Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions
    d) Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms
A

a) Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space

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52
Q
  1. An appropriate description of IgG is:
    a) Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space
    b) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity
    c) Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions
    d) Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms
A

d) Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms

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53
Q
  1. An appropriate description of IgA is:
    a) Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space
    b) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity
    c) Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions
    d) Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms
A

c) Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions

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54
Q
  1. An appropriate description of IgE is:
    a) Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space
    b) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity
    c) Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions
    d) Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms
A

b) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity

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55
Q
  1. An appropriate description of Ig is:
    a) Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space
    b) Mediates some types of hypersensitivity
    c) Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions
    d) Makes up less than 1% of total immunoglobulins
A

d) Makes up less than 1% of total immunoglobulins

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56
Q

40 and 41. Label the components of the basic immunoglobulin (Ig) configuration in the following figure.

Possible answers for question 40
a) Fc segment
b) Fab segment
c) Hinge region
d) Disulfide bond

Possible answers for question 41:
a) Fc segment
b) Fab segment
c) Hinge region
d) Disulfide bond

A
  1. b FAB Segment
  2. a. FC Segment
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57
Q
  1. Which of the following characterizes IgM?
    a) Composed of five basic subunits
    b) Less efficient in the activation of the complement cascade and agglutination than IgG
    c) Less response in an initial antibody response
    d) Predominant in a secondary (anamnestic) response
A

a) Composed of five basic subunits

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58
Q

43-46. Label the four phases of an antibody response on the following figure, choosing from these following answers:
a) Log
b) Plateau
c) Lag
d) Decline

A

43.C
44A
45.B
46.D

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59
Q
  1. In a secondary (anamnestic) response, a characteristic feature is:
    a) IgG is the predominant antibody type
    b) It has a longer lag phase
    c) The antibody titer is lower
    d) It has an accelerated decline in antibody response
A

a) IgG is the predominant antibody type

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60
Q
  1. Bonding of antigen to antibody exists exclusively as:
    a) Hydrogen bonding
    b) Van der Waals forces
    c) Electrostatic forces
    d) Noncovalent bonding
A

d) Noncovalent bonding

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61
Q
  1. The strongest bond of antigen and antibody chiefly results from the:
    a) Type of bonding
    b) Goodness of fit
    c) Antibody type
    d) Quantity of antibody
A

b) Goodness of fit

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62
Q
  1. Monoclonal antibodies have the characteristic of:
    a) A diversified mixture of antibodies
    b) Cloned from a single cell
    c) Engineered to bind to a single specific antibody
    d) Frequent occurrence in nature
A

b) Cloned from a single cell

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63
Q
  1. The site of hematopoiesis in the first month of gestation
    is the:
    a. Yolk sac
    b. Spleen
    c. Liver
    d. Bone marrow
A

a. Yolk sac

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64
Q
  1. The principal type of leukocyte in the process of phagocytosis
    is the:
    a. Eosinophil
    b. Basophil
    c. Monocyte
    d. Neutrophil
A

d. Neutrophil

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65
Q
  1. Chronic granulomatous disease represents a defect of:
    a. Oxidative metabolism
    b. Abnormal granulation of neutrophils
    c. Diapedesis
    d. Chemotaxis
A

a. Oxidative metabolism

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66
Q

13-16. Arrange the steps of phagocytosis in the proper Sequence
a. Digestion of bacteria
b. Increase in chemoattractants at site of tissue damage
c. Ingestion of bacteria
d. Movement of phagocytic cells

A

13)B
14)D
15)C
16)A

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67
Q
  1. The site of initial red blood cell production in the embryo and fetus is the:
    a. Liver and spleen
    b. Yolk sac
    c. Bone marrow
A

b. Yolk sac

68
Q
  1. The predominant site of red blood cell production during most of the time of fetal life is:
    a. Liver and spleen
    b. Yolk sac
    c. Bone marrow
A

a. Liver and spleen

69
Q
  1. The ultimate site of primary hematopoiesis in the embryo and fetus is the:
    a. Liver and spleen
    b. Yolk sac
    c. Bone marrow
A

c. Bone marrow

70
Q
  1. Which of the following can be attributed to Pasteur?
    a. Discovery of opsonins
    b. Observation of phagocytosis
    c. First attenuated vaccines
    d. Theory of humoral immunity
A

c. First attenuated vaccines

70
Q
  1. Which WBC is capable of further differentiation in tissues?
    a. Neutrophil
    b. Eosinophil
    c. Basophil
    d. Monocyte
A

d. Monocyte

70
Q
  1. The cells that Metchnikoff first observed are associated with which phenomenon?
    a. Innate immunity
    b. Adaptive immunity
    c. Humoral immunity
    d. Specific immunity
A

a. Innate immunity

71
Q
  1. Where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made?
    a. Bone marrow
    b. Spleen
    c. Thymus
    d. Lymph nodes
A

a. Bone marrow

72
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true of
    NK cells?
    a. They rely upon memory for antigen recognition.
    b. They have the same CD groups as B cells.
    c. They are found mainly in lymph nodes.
    d. They kill target cells without prior exposure to them.
A

d. They kill target cells without prior exposure to them.

73
Q
  1. Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue?
    a. Neutrophil
    b. Dendritic cell
    c. Eosinophil
    d. Basophil
A

b. Dendritic cell

74
Q
  1. The ability of an individual to resist infection hy means of normally present body functions is called
    a. innate immunity.
    b. humoral immunity.
    c. adaptive immunity.
    d. cross-immunity
A

a. innate immunity.

75
Q
  1. A cell characterized by a nucleus with two to five. lobes, a diameter of 10 to 15 um, and a large number of neutral staining granules is identified as a(n)
    a. eosinophil
    b. monocyte.
    c. basophil.
    d. neutrophil
A

d. neutrophil

76
Q
  1. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
    a. Lymph node
    b. Spleen
    c. Thymus
    d. MALT
A

c. Thymus

77
Q
  1. What type of cells would be found in a primary follicle?
    a. Unstimulated B cells
    b. Germinal centers
    c. Plasma cells
    d. Memory cells
A

a. Unstimulated B cells

78
Q
  1. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of B cells?
    a. Act as helper cells
    b. Presence of surface antibody
    c. Able to kill target cells without prior exposure
    d. Active in phagocytosis
A

b. Presence of surface antibody

79
Q
  1. Where do lymphocytes mainly come in contact with antigens?
    a. Secondary lymphoid organs
    b. Bloodstream
    c. Bone marrow
    d. Thymus
A

a. Secondary lymphoid organs

80
Q
  1. Which of the following is found on the I cell subset known as helpers?
    a. CD19
    b. CD4
    c. CD8
    d. CD56
A

b. CD4

81
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best characterizes adaptive immunity?
    a. Relies on normally present body functions
    b. Response is similar for each exposure
    c. Specificity for each individual pathogen
    d. Involves only cellular immunity
A

c. Specificity for each individual pathogen

82
Q
  1. The main function of I cells in the immune response 1s to
    a. produce cytokines that regulate both innate and adaptive immunity.
    b. produce antibodies.
    c. participate actively in phagocytosis.
    d. respond to target cells without prior exposure
A

a. produce cytokines that regulate both innate and adaptive immunity.

83
Q
  1. Which of the following is a part of humoral immunity?
    a. Cells involved in phagocytosis
    b. Neutralization of toxins by serum
    c. Macrophages and mast cells in the tissue
    d. Tand B cells in lymph nodes
A

b. Neutralization of toxins by serum

84
Q
  1. Immunity can be defined as
    a. the study of medicines used to treat diseases.
    b. a specific population at risk for a disease.
    c. the condition of being resistant to disease.
    d. the study of the noncellular portion of the blood
A

c. the condition of being resistant to disease.

85
Q
  1. A blood cell that has reddish staining granules and is able to kill large parasites describes
    a. basophils.
    b. monocytes.
    c. neutrophils.
    d. eosinophils.
A

d. eosinophils

86
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes a lymph node?
    a. It is considered a primary lymphoid organ.
    b. It removes old RBCs.
    c. It collects fluid from the tissues.
    d. It is where B cells mature.
A

c. It collects fluid from the tissues.

87
Q
  1. Antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to certain standard cell lines best describes
    a. cytokines.
    b. clusters of differentiation (CD).
    c. neutrophilic granules.
    d. opsonins
A

b. clusters of differentiation (CD).

88
Q
  1. The term for enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum protems is
    a. opsonization.
    b. agglutination.
    c. solubilization.
    d. chemotaxis.
A

a. opsonization

89
Q
  1. Which of the following plays an important role as an extemal defense mechanism?
    a. Phagocytosis
    b. C-reactive protein
    c. Lysozyme
    d. Complement
A

c. Lysozyme

90
Q
  1. The process of inflammation is characterized by all of the following except
    a. increased blood supply to the area.
    b. migration of WBCs.
    c. decreased capillary permeability.
    d. appearance of acute-phase reactants
A

c. decreased capillary permeability.

91
Q
  1. Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity?
    a. Innate
    b. Cross
    c. Adaptive
    d. Auto
A

a. Innate

92
Q
  1. The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell is called a
    a. phagosome.
    b. lysosome.
    c. vacuole.
    d. phagolysosome
A

d. phagolysosome

93
Q
  1. The presence of human microbiota (normal flora) acts as a defense mechanism by which of the following methods?
    a. Maintaining an acid environment
    b. Competing with potential pathogens
    c. Keeping phagocytes in the area
    d. Coating mucosal surfaces
A

b. Competing with potential pathogens

94
Q
  1. Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except
    a. monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory agents.
    b. tracking the progress of an organ transplant.
    c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection.
    d. determining active phases of rheumatoid arthritis.
A

c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection.

95
Q
  1. Pathogen recognition receptors act by
    a. recognizing molecules common to both host cells and pathogens.
    b. recognizing molecules that are unique to pathogens.
    c. helping to spread infection because they are found on pathogens.
    d. all recognizing the same pathogens
A

b. recognizing molecules that are unique to pathogens.

96
Q
  1. Which of the following are characteristics of acute-phase reactants?
    a. Rapid increase following infection
    b. Enhancement of phagocytosis
    c. Nonspecific indicators of inflammation
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

97
Q
  1. Which is the most significant agent formed in the phagolysosome for the elimination of microorganisms?
    a. Proteolytic enzymes
    b. Hydrogen ions
    c. Hypochlorite ions
    d. Superoxides
A

c. Hypochlorite ions

98
Q
  1. Which acute-phase reactant helps to prevent formation of peroxides and free radicals that may damage tissues?
    a. Haptoglobin
    b. Fibrinogen
    c. Ceruloplasmin
    d. Serum amyloid A
A

a. Haptoglobin

99
Q
  1. Which statement best describes Toll-like receptors (TLRs)?
    a. They protect adult flies from infection.
    b. They are found on all host cells.
    c. They only play a role in adaptive immunity.
    d. They enhance phagocytosis.
A

d. They enhance phagocytosis

100
Q
  1. The action of CRP can he distinguished from that of an antibody because
    a. CRP acts before the antibody appears
    b. only the antibody triggers the complement cascade.
    c. binding of the antibody is calcium-dependent.
    d. only CRP acts as an opsonin.
A

a. CRP acts before the antibody appears

101
Q
  1. How does innate immunity differ from adaptive immunity?
    a. Innate immunity requires prior exposure to a pathogen.
    b. Innate immunity depends upon normally present body functions.
    c. Inmate immunity develops later than adaptive immunity
    d. Inmate immunity is more specific than adaptive
A

b. Innate immunity depends upon normally present body functions

102
Q
  1. A 40-year-old male who is a smoker develops symptoms of premature emphysema. The symptoms may be caused by a deficiency of which of the following acute-phase reactants?

a. Haptoglobin
b. Alpha, antitrypsin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Ceruloplasmin

A

b. Alpha, antitrypsin

103
Q
  1. Which statement best describes NK cells?
    a. Their response against pathogens is very specific.
    b. They only react when an abundance of MHC antigens is present
    c. They react when both an inhibitory and activating signal is triggered.
    d. They are able to kill target cells without previous exposure to them
A

d. They are able to kill target cells without previous exposure to them

104
Q
  1. Which MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4+ I cells?
    a. Class I
    b. Class II
    c. Class III
    d. No MHC molecule is necessary.
A

b. Class II

105
Q
  1. Which would he characteristic of a I-independent antigen?
    a. The 1gG antibody is produced exclusively.
    b. A large number of memory cells are produced.
    c. Antigens bind only one receptor on B cells.
    d. It consists of a limited number of repeating determinants.
A

d. It consists of a limited number of repeating determinants.

106
Q
  1. Humoral immunity refers to which of the following?
    a. Production of antibody by plasma cells
    b. Production of cytokines by I cells
    c. Elimination of virally infected cells by cytotoxic cells
    d. Downregulation of the immune response
A

a. Production of antibody by plasma cells

107
Q
  1. Where does antigen-independent maturation of B lymphocytes take place?
    a. Bone marrow
    b. Thymus
    c. Spleen
    d. Lymph nodes
A

a. Bone marrow

108
Q
  1. In the thymus, positive selection of immature I cells is hased upon recognition of which of the following?
    a. Self-antigens
    b. Stress proteins
    c. MHC antigens
    d. a chains
A

c. MHC antigens

109
Q
  1. Which of these are found on a mature B cell?
    a. 1gG and 1gD
    b. 1gM and IgD
    c. Alpha and beta chains
    d. CD3
A

b. 1gM and IgD

110
Q
  1. How do cytotoxic I cells kill target cells?
    a. They produce antibodies that hind to the cell.
    b. They engulf the cell by phagocytosis.
    c. They stop protein synthesis in the target cell.
    d. They produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis.
A

d. They produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis.

111
Q
  1. Which of the following can be attributed to antigen-stimulated I cells?
    a. Humoral response
    b. Plasma cells
    c. Cytokines
    d. Antibody
A

c. Cytokines

112
Q
  1. Which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell?
    a. p chains in the cytoplasm
    b. Complete 1gM on the surface
    c. Presence of CD21 antigen
    d. Presence of CD25 antigen
A

a. p chains in the cytoplasm

113
Q
  1. When does genetic rearrangement for coding of antibody light chains take place during B-cell development?
    a. Before the pre-B cell stage
    b. As the cell becomes an immature B cell
    c. Not until the cell becomes a mature B cell
    d. When the B cell becomes a plasma cell
A

b. As the cell becomes an immature B cell

114
Q
  1. Which of the following antigens are found on the I-cell subset known as helper/inducers?
    a. CD3
    b. CD+
    c. CD8
    d. CD11
A

b. CD+

115
Q
  1. Where does the major portion of antibody production occur?
    a. Peripheral blood
    b. Bone marrow
    c. Thymus
    d. Lymph nodes
A

d. Lymph nodes

116
Q
  1. Which of the following would represent a double-negative thymocyte?
    a. CD2-CD3+CD4-CDS+
    b. CD2-CD3-CD4-CD8-
    c. CD2-CD3+CD4-CD8-
    d. CD2-CD3-CD4+CD8-
A

c. CD2-CD3+CD4-CD8-

117
Q
  1. Which of the following hest describes the T-cell receptor for antigen?
    a. It consists of 1gM and 1gD molecules.
    b. It is the same for all I cells.
    c. It is present in the double-negative stage.
    d. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen.
A

d. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen.

118
Q
  1. A cell flow cytometry patter belonging to a 3-year-old patient showed the following: normal CD4+ I-cell count, normal CD19+ B-cell count, low CD8+ I-cell count. Which type of immumity would he affected?
    a. Production of antibody
    b. Formation of plasma cells
    c. Elimination of virally infected cells
    d. Downregulation of the immune response
A

c. Elimination of virally infected cells

119
Q
  1. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of adaptive immunity?
    a. Ability to fight infection
    b. Ability to remember a prior exposure to a pathogen
    c. A similar response to all pathogens encountered
    d. Process of phagocytosis to destroy a pathogen
A

b. Ability to remember a prior exposure to a pathogen

120
Q
  1. Where do germinal centers occur?
    a. In the thymus
    b. In the bone marrow
    c. In peripheral blood
    d. In lymph nodes
A

d. In lymph nodes

120
Q
  1. Clonal deletion of T cells as they mature is important in which of the following processes?
    a. Elimination of autoimmune responses
    b. Positive selection of CD3/TCR receptors
    c. Allelic exclusion of chromosomes
    d. Elimination of cells unable to bind to MHC antigens
A

a. Elimination of autoimmune responses

121
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristic of variable domains of immunoglobulins?
    a. They occur on both the Hand L chains.
    b. They represent the complement-binding site.
    c. They are at the carboxy-terminal ends of the molecules.
    d. They are found mly on H chains.
A

a. They occur on both the Hand L chains.

122
Q
  1. All of the following are true of IgM except that it
    a. can cross the placenta.
    b. fixes complement
    c. has a J chain.
    d. is a primary response antibody.
A

a. can cross the placenta.

123
Q
  1. How does the structure of lgE differ from that of IgG?
    a. IgG has a secretory component and IgE does not.
    b. 1gE has one more constant region than IgG.
    c. IgG has more antigen-binding sites than IgE.
    d. IgG has more light chains than IgE.
A

b. 1gE has one more constant region than IgG

124
Q
  1. How many antigen-binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have?
    a. 2
    b. 4
    с. б
    d. 10
A

d. 10

125
Q
  1. Bence Jones proteins are identical to which of the following?
    a. H chains
    b. L chains
    c. IgM molecules
    d. IgG molecules
A

b. L chains

126
Q
  1. A Fab fragment consists of
    a. two H chains.
    b. two L chains.
    c. one L chain and one-half of an H chain.
    d. one L chain and an entire H chain.
A

c. one L chain and one-half of an H chain.

127
Q
  1. Which antibody best protects mucosal surfaces?
    a. IgA
    b. IgG
    C. 1g₽
    d.1gM
A

a. IgA

128
Q
  1. Which of the following pairs represents two different immunoglobulin allotypes?
    a. 1gM and IgG
    b. IgMI and 1gM2
    c. Anti-human 1gM and anti-human 1gG
    d. IgGIm3 and 1gGlml7
A

d. IgGIm3 and 1gGlml7

129
Q
  1. The structure of a typical immunoglobulin consists of which of the following?
    a. 2L and 2H chains
    b. 4L and 2H chains
    c. 4L and 4H chains
    d. 2L and + H chains
A

a. 2L and 2H chains

130
Q
  1. Which of the following are L chains of antibody molecules?
    A. Карра
    b. Gamma
    c. Mu
    d. Alpha
A

A. Карра

131
Q
  1. If the results of serum protein electrophoresis show a significant decrease in the gamma band, which of the following is a likely possibility?
    a. Normal response to active infection
    b. Multiple myeloma
    c. Immunodeficiency disorder
    d. Monoclonal gammopathy
A

c. Immunodeficiency disorder

132
Q
  1. The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in
    a. the type of L chain.
    b. the arrangement of disulfide bonds.
    c. the ability to act as opsonins.
    d. molecular weight
A

b. the arrangement of disulfide bonds.

133
Q
  1. Which best describes the role of the secretory component of lgA?
    a. A transport mechanism across endothelial cells
    b. A means of joining two 1gA monomers together
    c. An aid to trapping antigen
    d. Enhancement of complement fixation by the classical pathway
A

a. A transport mechanism across endothelial cells

134
Q
  1. Which represents the main function of 1gD?
    a. Protection of the mucous membranes
    b. Removal of antigens by complement fixation
    c. Enhancing proliferation of B cells
    d. Destruction of parasitic worms
A

c. Enhancing proliferation of B cells

135
Q
  1. Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation?
    a. IgA
    b. 1gG
    c. 1gD
    d. IgM
A

d. IgM

136
Q
  1. Which of the following can be attributed to the clonal selection hypothesis of antibody formation?
    a. Plasma cells make generalized antibody.
    b. B cells are preprogrammed for specific antibody synthesis.
    c. Proteins can alter their shape to conform to antigen.
    d. Cell receptors break off and become circulating antibody
A

b. B cells are preprogrammed for specific antibody synthesis

137
Q
  1. All of the following are true of IgE except that it
    a. fails to fix complement.
    b. is heat stable.
    c. attaches to tissue mast cells.
    d. is found in the serum of allergic persons.
A

b. is heat stable.

138
Q
  1. Which best describes coding for immunoglobulin molecules?
    a. All genes are located on the same chromosome.
    b. L chain rearrangement occurs hefore H chain rearrangement.
    c. Four different regions are involved in coding of H chains.
    d. Lambda rearrangement occurs before kappa rearrangement.
A

c. Four different regions are involved in coding of H chains.

139
Q
  1. What is the purpose of HAT medium in the preparation of monoclonal antibody?
    a. Fusion of the two cell types
    b. Restricting the growth of myeloma cells
    c. Restricting the growth of spleen cells
    d. Restricting antibody production to the 1gM class
A

b. Restricting the growth of myeloma cells

140
Q
  1. Papain digestion of an IgG molecule results in which of the following?
    a. 2 Fab’ and 1 Fc’ fragment
    b. Fab, and 1 Fc’ fragment
    c. 2 Fab and 2 Fc fragments
    d. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment
A

d. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment

141
Q
  1. Which antibody provides protection to the growing fetus because it is able to cross the placenta?
    a. IgG
    b. IgA
    c. IgM
    d. 1gD
A

a. IgG

142
Q
  1. Which best characterizes the secondary response?
    a. Equal amounts of 1gM and 1gG are produced.
    b. There is an increase in 1gM only.
    c. There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM.
    d. The lag phase is the same as in the primary response
A

c. There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM.

143
Q
  1. Color Plate 21 depicts a monomeric immunoglobulin molecule. The portion of the molecule indicated by the dotted red circle and the red arrow is called the
    A. Fab fragment
    B. Fc fragment
    C. Heavy chain
    D. Hinge region
A

A. Fab fragment

144
Q
  1. A hapten is
    A. Half of an immunoglobulin molecule
    B. A carrier molecule for an antigen that is not antigenic alone
    C. An immunoglobulin functional only in the presence of complement
    D. A determinant capable of stimulating an immune response only when bound to a carrier
A

D. A determinant capable of stimulating an immune response only when bound to a carrier

145
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristic of B cells?
    A. Phagocytic
    B. Participate in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) reactions
    C. Contain surface immunoglobulins
    D. Secrete the C5 component of complement
A

C. Contain surface immunoglobulins

146
Q
  1. A lymphokine is
    A. A soluble mediator produced by granulocytes and affecting lymphocytes
    B. A soluble mediator produced by
    Lymphocytes
    C. A soluble mediator produced by plasma cells
    D. An antibody that reacts with lymphocytes
A

B. A soluble mediator produced by
Lymphocytes

147
Q
  1. Monocytes and macrophages play a major role in the mononuclear phagocytic system. For an antibody-coated antigen to be phagocytized, what part of the antibody molecule fits into a receptor on the phagocytic cell?
    A. FC region
    B. Fab region
    C. Hinge region
    D. Variable region
A

A. FC region

148
Q
  1. Cell-mediated immunity is primarily mediated by
    A. B cells
    B. T helper cells
    C. Plasma cells
    D. Dendritic cells
A

B. T helper cells

149
Q
  1. Which of the following is more likely to be diagnostic of an acute infection?
    A. A total acute antibody titer of 2
    followed by a convalescent titer of 16
    B. A total acute antibody titer of 80
    followed by a convalescent titer of 40
    C. A total antibody titer of 80
    D. An IgG antibody titer of 80
A

A. A total acute antibody titer of 2
followed by a convalescent titer of 16

150
Q
  1. What is the predominant type of antibody found in the serum of neonates born after full-term gestation?
    A. Infant IgA
    B. Ifant IgG
    C. Infant IgM
    D. Maternal IgG
A

D. Maternal IgG

151
Q
  1. An important part of the nonspecific immune response is(are)
    A. B cells
    B. Basophils
    C. Complement cascade
    D. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
A

C. Complement cascade

152
Q
  1. The major class of immunoglobulin found in adult human serum is
    A. IgA
    B. IgE
    C. IgG
    D. IgM
A

C. IgG

153
Q
  1. Which class of immunoglobulin possesses delta heavy chains?
    A. IgA
    B. IgD
    C. IgE
A

B. IgD

154
Q
  1. Which class of immunoglobulin possesses
    10 antigenic binding sites?
    A. IgA
    B. IgD
    C. IgG
    D. IgM
A

D. IgM

155
Q
  1. Color Plate 22 I represents a dimeric IgA molecule. The structure printed in red and indicated by the red arrow is called the
    A. J-piece
    B. Hinge region
    C. Heavy chain
    D. Light chain
A

A. J-piece

156
Q
  1. Which class of immunoglobulin binds to basophils and mast cells to mediate immediate hypersensitivity reactions?
    A. IgA
    B. IgD
    C. IgE
    D. IgG
A

C. IgE

157
Q
  1. The serologically detectable antibody produced in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is primarily of the class
    A. IgA
    B. IgE
    C. IgG
    D. IgM
A

D. IgM

158
Q
  1. After exposure to antigen, the first antibodies that can be detected belong to the class
    A. IgA
    B. IgE
    C. IgG
    D.IgM
A

D.IgM

158
Q
  1. How does the secondary humoral immune response differ from the primary response?
    A. The lag phase (the time between exposure to immunogen and production of antibody) is longer in the secondary immune response.
    B. IgM is the predominant antibody class produced in the secondary immune response.
    C. The antibody levels produced are higher in the secondary immune response.
    D. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes play an important role in the secondary response.
A

C. The antibody levels produced are higher in the secondary immune response.

158
Q
  1. A major advantage of passive immunization compared to active immunization is that
    A. Antibody is available more quickly
    B. Antibody persists for the life of the recipient
    C. IgM is the predominant antibody class provided
    D. Oral administration can be used
A

A. Antibody is available more quickly

159
Q
  1. The type of immunity that follows the injection of an immunogen is termed
    A. Artificial active
    B. Natural active
    C. Artificial passive
    D. Innate
A

A. Artificial active

160
Q

40). The type of immunity that follows the injection of antibodies synthesized by another individual or animal is termed
A. Artificial active
B. Natural adaptive
C. Artificial passive
D. Natural passive

A

C. Artificial passive

161
Q
  1. Innate immunity includes
    A. Anamnestic response
    B. Antibody production
    C. Cytotoxic T cell activity
    D. Phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear cells
A

D. Phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear cells

162
Q
  1. The portion of an antigen that binds to an antibody or T cell receptor is called a(n)
    A. Allergin
    B. Avidin
    C. Epitope
    D. Valence
A

C. Epitope

163
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about immunoglobulin light chains is true?
    A. Each immunoglobulin monomer has either one kappa or one lambda chain.
    B. There are two types: kappa and lambda.
    C. They consist of constant regions only.
    D. They form part of the Fc fragment
A

D. They form part of the Fc fragment

164
Q
  1. The Fab portion of an antibody
    A. Binds T cell receptor
    B. Consists of two light chains only
    C. Consists of two heavy chains only
    D. Contains the hypervariable region
A

D. Contains the hypervariable region

165
Q
  1. Which of the following statements applies to the Fc fragment of an immunoglobulin molecule?
    A. It consists of the entire heavy chain.
    B. It contains the variable region of the heavy chain.
    C. It contains the antigen binding sites of the molecule.
    D. It is the region of the molecule that binds to receptors on various white blood cells
A

D. It is the region of the molecule that binds to receptors on various white blood cells

HEMATOLOGY - IS LEC (3 decks)

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