Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CORE IR > IR CORE - Sheet1 > Flashcards

IR CORE - Sheet1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which is anterior? Subclavian artery vs. vein

A

Subclavian vein is anterior to artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Major branches of subclavian artery

A

Vertebral, Internal thoracic, Thyrocervical trunk, Costocervical trunk, dorsal scapular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Extent of subclavian artery?

A

brachiocephalic to the first rib (outer edge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Extent of axillary artery?

A

from the first rib (outer edge) to teres major (outer edge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Extent of brachial artery?

A

from teres major (outer edge) to bifurcation of the radial and ulnar arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which gives off interosseous artery?

A

usually ulnar, which is also usually bigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

normal variant that can supply the deep palmar arch of the hand

A

persistent anterior interosseous branch (median artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

high origin of the radial artery

A

radial a. comes off either the axillary or brachial a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when does the external iliac become the CFA?

A

once it gives off the inferior epigastric (at the inguinal ligament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CFA bifurcates into these 2 vessels

A

deep femoral (profunda) and superficial femoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

superficial femoral turns into the popliteal after?

A

after emerging from Hunter’s canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

popliteal artery divides when?

A

at the distal border of the popliteus muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

popliteal artery divides into?

A

anterior tibial and tibial peroneal trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the most medial artery in the leg?

A

posterior tibial (felt at medial malleolus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most common biliary duct variant?

A

right posterior segment draining the left hepatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2nd most common biliary duct variant

A

trifurcation of the intrahepatic radicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how many times can you try a PTC before quitting?

A

15-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what happens if you inject contrast forcefully during a PTC?

A

ICU visit for cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the benefit of a transhepatic cholecystostomy?

A

minimizes chance of bile leak c/w transperitoneal approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when can you pull a cholecystostomy tube?

A

2-6 weeks after placing (have to wait for tract to mature) or else leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how do you manage an accidental bile leak?

A

place a tube in the bile ducts to divert bile from location of leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what % of blood flow to liver comes from PV?

A

70-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

normal pressure gradient between PV and IVC

A

3-6 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

define portal HTN (mmHg)

A

PV > 10 mmHg or PSG > 6 mmHg (portal systemic gradient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ultrasound findings of portal HTN

A

large PV (>1.3-1.5 cm), large splenic v. (>1.2cm), big spleen, ascites, collaterals, reversed flow in PV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

2 reasons for TIPS

A

variceal hemorrhage refractory to endoscopy + refractory ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

no TIPS above this MELD score

A

18 - higher risk of early death after elective TIPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

2 pre-procedural steps for TIPS

A

Echo to eval for heart failure + cross sectional imaging to demonstrate patency of PV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

normal right heart pressure

A

5 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

value of right heart pressure that precludes a TIPS

A

10-12 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what to what for a TIPS

A

IVC to hepatic veins to PV (usually right to right)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ideal PSG (portal systemic gradient) after TIPS

A

9-12 mmHg (remember normal = 3-6 mmHg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which direction to you turn the catheter when moving from the right HV to the right PV?

A

turn needle anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

3 main post-TIPS complications

A

cardiac decompensation (elevated right heart pressure), accelerated liver failure, worsening encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

typical velocity of TIPS stent

A

90-190 cm/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what TIPS stent velocity is too high?

A

> 200 cm/s (stenosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what PV velocity is too low s/p TIPS

A

< 30 cm/s abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

indirect sign of TIPS malfunction

A

new or increased ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

3 absolute contraindications to TIPS

A

severe heart failure + biliary sepsis + isolated gastric varices with splenic v. occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

2 relative contraindications to TIPS

A

cavernous transformation of the PV + severe hepatic encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

alternative to TIPS for refractory ascites

A

peritoneovenous shunt (Denver shunt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

major risks of Denver shunt

A

high rate of infection and thrombosis (even DIC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

BRTO

A

balloon-occluded retrograde transverse obliteration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does BRTO treat?

A

gastric varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

major complication of BRTO

A

worsening esophageal varices and ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how does BRTO affect hepatic encephalopathy

A

improves it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

2 reasons for doing transjugular liver biopsy

A

massive ascites + severe coagulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

first line treatment for GI bleeds

A

vasopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

which is more sensitive for GI bleed: nuclear scintigraphy or angiography?

A

RBC bleeding scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

rate of bleeding detected on RBC scan

A

0.1 mL/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

rate of bleeding detected on angiography

A

1 mL/min (10x less sensitive than RBC scan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

most common embolization agents for GI bleed

A

coils or gelfoam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

3 contraindications to GI bleed embolization

A

prior stomach or bowel surgery, prior radiation, or inadequate collateral circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

why do angiography after you embolize?

A

look for collateral flow (after you embolize GDA, look at SMA to at inf. pancreaticoduodenal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

most common source of upper GI bleed

A

left gastric (85%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what do you embolize if it’s a duodenal ulcer bleed?

A

GDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

most common cause of lower GIB

A

diverticulosis (on the left)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

does embolization help with angiodysplasia?

A

no, usually re-bleeds and need surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

“pseudo-vein” sign

A

sign of acitve GIB, appearance of vein created by contrast pooling in gastric rugae or intestinal fold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

dieulafoy’s lesion

A

monster artery in the submucosa of the stomach which pulsates until it causes a teeny tiny tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

pancreatic arcade bleeding

A

celiac artery stenosis (dilation of pancreatic duodenal arcades + pseudoaneurysms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is the only cure for HCC?

A

transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

better survival: TACE or systemic chemo?

A

TACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

contraindication to TACE

A

PV thrombosis (risk of infarcting liver)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

“zone of ablation”

A

preferred nomenclature for post-ablation region s/p TACE/RFA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

nucs study you do before a Y-90 radioembo

A

lung shunt fraction using Tc-99 MAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

lung shunt fraction that precludes Y-90 tx

A

fraction that would give >30 Gy in a single treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what artery do you embolize before Y-90 tx?

A

right gastric and GDA (prevent reflux of Y-90)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

above or below rib for thora?

A

above! (avoid neurovascular bundle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

how to position patient post-lung biopsy to reduce risk of pneumo

A

puncture side DOWN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

2 reasons to place a chest tube post biopsy

A

symptomatic pneumothorax or enlarging pneumo or serial CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

better to drain an empyema or lung abscess?

A

empyema (draining an abscess can create bronchopleural fistula)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

who should get prophylactic pacing prior to pulmonary angio?

A

LBBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

when should you measure pressures on pulmonary angio?

A

BEFORE injecting contrast (may need to decrease volume in pulm HTN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

2 contraindications to pulmonary angio

A

pulmonary HTN (right heart pressure > 70 systolic and 20 ED) + LBBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

major risks of AVMs

A

right to left shunt = stroke and brain abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

from what does the uterine artery arise?

A

anterior division of the internal iliac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

embolize unilateral or bilateral?

A

always bilateral (too many collaterals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what meds do you stop before UAE?

A

gonadotropic-releasing meds (3 months prior, they constrict the uterine a.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

which location of fibroids responds best to UAE?

A

submucosal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

which trial showed the hospital stay are shorter for UAE than hysterectomy?

A

EMMY trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

incidence of premature menopause following UAE

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

risk of peritonitis following HSG

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what time of cycle is best for HSG

A

proliferative phase (days 6-12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

3 reasons to treat varicocele

A

infertility, testicular atrophy, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

left internal spermatic (gonadal) vein drains into the…

A

left renal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

right internal spermatic (gonadal) vein drains into the…

A

IVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

2 reasons varicoceles occur

A

right angle entry of the left spermatic v into left renal v. + nut-cracker syndrome on the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

how to treat varicocele

A

mad embolization of the gonadal vein - foam, coils, amplatzer, all of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

try to avoid these on transgluteal drainage

A

sciatic nerves and gluteal arteries (access through the sacrospinous ligament medially)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

when to pull an abscess catheter

A

patient is better + output < 20 mL over 24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

pancreatic cutaneous fistula

A

pancreatic drain with clear fluid > 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

4 reasons to biopsy a thyroid nodule

A

solid > cystic, hypervascular, blurred margin, microcalcs (most important)

94
Q

what if path is non-diagnostic

A

don’t repeat for 3 months

95
Q

Brodel’s Avascular Zone

A

posterior lateral LP target of PCN placement (btw arterial bifurcation)

96
Q

can you do a perc neph on a transplant kidney?

A

of course + it’s easier

97
Q

2 risks of perc neph

A

bleeding + urosepsis

98
Q

how often should you exchange perc neph tubes?

A

every 2-3 months (b/c of crystallization)

99
Q

2 indications for renal abscess drainage

A

large (>3-5 cm) + symptomatic that does not respond to abx alone

100
Q

what part of the kidney do you want for random renal biopsy?

A

cortex (to get the glomeruli)

101
Q

positioning for focused renal biopsy?

A

lesion side DOWN (stabilizes kidney from motion/bowel)

102
Q

3 things that we do renal RFA for

A

AMLs, AVMs, RCCs

103
Q

treatment for atherosclerosis at ostium of renal arteries

A

angioplasty + stent

104
Q

treatment for FMD renal arteries

A

angioplasty only

105
Q

medial brachial fascial compartment syndrome

A

cold fingers + weakness 2/2 hematoma from brachial artery stick

106
Q

when to stop heparin before arterial stick

A

2 hours prior to procedure

107
Q

INR for arterial procedure

A

1.5

108
Q

when to stop coumadin before arterial stick

A

5-7 days prior

109
Q

platelet count for arterial stick

A

> 50 K (some texts say 75)

110
Q

when to stop ASA/plavix prior to arterial stick

A

5 days prior

111
Q

how long to I have to stand here and hold compression after an arterial stick

A

15 min

112
Q

when can I turn heparin back on after arterial stick

A

2 hours

113
Q

0.039 inch (in mm)

A

1mm

114
Q

0.035 inch (in mm)

A

considered 1 mm for usual purposes (actually 0.039)

115
Q

what’s a microwire in inches

A

0.018 + 0.014

116
Q

what’s a glide wire

A

hydrophilic coated wire, easier passage

117
Q

3 F (in mm)

A

1mm

118
Q

6 F (in mm)

A

2mm

119
Q

9 F (in mm)

A

3mm

120
Q

diameter in mm = F/x

A

F/3

121
Q

what is the size of a puncture hole in mm of a 6 F sheath?

A

(6 + 2)/3 = 2.7 mm –> add 2 to estimate the outer diameter

122
Q

what is the size of a puncture hole in mm of a 6 F sheath, placed coaxially into a short access sheath

A

6 F sheath will need a 8 F inner diameter, which will be a 10 F outer diameter: 10/3 = 3.3 mm

123
Q

catheter size

A

outer lumen

124
Q

sheath size

A

inner lumen (+ 2 for outer diameter)

125
Q

standard size for routine vascular work

A

6-8 F

126
Q

standard size for a filter

A

6-9 F (8.5 for Tulip)

127
Q

standard size for stent graft

A

15-20 F

128
Q

standard size of abdominal drains

A

12 F

129
Q

standard size of PEG tube

A

24 F

130
Q

standard guide wires

A

0.035-0.038 inches = 3 F = 1mm

131
Q

preferred vein for PICC

A

basilic > brachial > cephalic

132
Q

preferred vein for central line/port

A

right IJ

133
Q

order of preference for dialysis access

A

RIJ > LIJ > REJ > LEJ

134
Q

do we place PICCs in dialysis patients?

A

NO

135
Q

how long does an AV fistula take to mature?

A

3-4 months

136
Q

how long until you can use an AV graft?

A

2 weeks

137
Q

which lasts longer AV fistula vs. graft

A

AV fistula lasts longer

138
Q

which gets more infections: AV fistula vs. graft

A

AV grafts get more infections (synthetic graft material)

139
Q

goal flow of AV fistula/graft

A

600 mL/min with outlet vein > 6mm

140
Q

most common complication of AV grafts

A

venous outflow obstruction (2/2 intimal hyperplasia)

141
Q

most common complication of AV fistula

A

more variable than in grafts (venous outflow obstruction), not gonna be asked

142
Q

“steal syndrome” (AV fistula)

A

“cold painful fingers” during dialysis relieved by manual compression of fistula (stenosis in native a. distal to fistula)

143
Q

meds after stent placement

A

1-3 months of anti-platelets (aspririn, plavix)

144
Q

drug eluting stents

A

try to prevent neointimal hyperplasia

145
Q

critical limb ischemia

A

rest pain for 2 weeks (or ulceration or gangrene)

146
Q

surgery for thrombolysis for ischemia

A

thrombolysis for occlusions < 14 days

147
Q

ulcer on medial ankle

A

venous stasis

148
Q

ulcer on dorsum of foot

A

ischemic or infected ulcer

149
Q

ulcer on plantar surface of foot

A

neuropathic ulcer

150
Q

false elevation of ABI

A

arterial calcification in diabetics

151
Q

contraindication to varicose vein treatment

A

DVT (need those superficial veins)

152
Q

anesthesia for varicose vein treatment

A

“tumescent anesthesia” lots of dilute SQ lidocaine

153
Q

post-thrombotic syndrome

A

pain + venous ulcers after a DVT

154
Q

Type 1 endograft leak

A

leak at top or bottom of graft

155
Q

Type 2 endograft leak

A

filling of sac via feeder artery

156
Q

Type 3 endograft leak

A

defect/fracture in graft

157
Q

Type 4 endograft leak

A

porosity of graft (4 is from the pore)

158
Q

Type 5 endograft leak

A

endotension (pulsation of graft wall?)

159
Q

most common endoleak type

A

2 - filling of sac via feeder artery (IMA or lumbar)

160
Q

30-day mortality: endograft vs. open repair

A

less for endograft

161
Q

long term aneurysm related mortality: endograft vs. open repair

A

same

162
Q

graft related complications: endograft vs. open repair

A

high with endograft

163
Q

why don’t we place IVC filters supra-renal

A

theoretical risk of renal vein thrombosis

164
Q

when do we place supra-renal IVC filters (2)

A

pregnancy + clot in renals or gonadals

165
Q

what do you do if the IVC is huge?

A

bird’s nest type filter up to 40 mm (normal <28mm) or bilateral iliac filters

166
Q

what happens to DVT risk with IVC filter?

A

goes UP (risk of PE goes down)

167
Q

gunther tulip

A

IVC filter with superior end-hook for retrieval

168
Q

simon-nitinol

A

low profile (7 F) filter, can be placed in small veins (arm)

169
Q

are IVC filters MRI compatible?

A

yes, duh

170
Q

2 bad complications of vertebroplasty

A

new vertebral fracture (25%) + cement can embolize to lungs

171
Q

Dose (Gy) for early transient erythema

A

2 Gy

172
Q

Dose (Gy) for chronic erythema

A

6 Gy

173
Q

Dose (Gy) for telangiectasia

A

10 Gy

174
Q

Dose (Gy) for dry desquamation

A

13 Gy

175
Q

Dose (Gy) for moist desquamation

A

18 Gy

176
Q

3 ways to repair groin stick pseudoaneursym

A

open surgery, direct ultrasound compression, thrombin injection

177
Q

best projection for aortic arch

A

70 degrees LAO (candy cane)

178
Q

best projection for innominate a.

A

RAO

179
Q

best projection for left SCV

A

LAO

180
Q

best projection for left renal

A

LAO (same as renal)

181
Q

best projection for right renal

A

RAO (same as renal)

182
Q

best projection for left iliac bifurc

A

RAO (opposite side)

183
Q

best projection for right iliac bifurc

A

LAO (opposite side)

184
Q

Right SFA/profunda

A

RAO (same side SFA)

185
Q

Left SFA/profunda

A

LAO (same as SFA)

186
Q

what replaces platelets?

A

more platelets

187
Q

what reverses heparin

A

protamine sulfate

188
Q

what reverses coumadin

A

Vit K (25-50 mg IM 4 hrs prior), more rapid with cryoprecipitate

189
Q

half life of a platelet

A

8-12 days

190
Q

antidote for versed (midazolam)

A

flumazenil

191
Q

antidote for opioids

A

narcan

192
Q

half life of TPA

A

2-10 min (very short)

193
Q

max dose of local anesthesia (lido)

A

4-5 mg/kg

194
Q

complication of lidocaine in thecal sac

A

total spine anesthesia + need for vent

195
Q

complication of direct arterial injection of lido

A

immediate seizures

196
Q

early signs of lido toxicity

A

tinnitus and dizziness

197
Q

is sepsis a contraindication to IVC filter placement?

A

NO, not even septic thrombophlebitis

198
Q

Y-90: high, medium, or low energy?

A

high. mean energy of 0.93 MeV

199
Q

Y-90: what kind of emitter?

A

high-energy beta emitter

200
Q

Half life of Y-90

A

64 hours. 94% of radiation delivered in 11 days (4 half-lives)

201
Q

Max penetration of Y-90

A

maximum range of irradiation from each bead is 1.1 cm, while the average soft tissue penetration is 2.5 mm.

202
Q

embolic agent for UAE

A

particles in the range of 500-700 µm

203
Q

rate of infection following non-tunneled line

A

5.3% per 1000 catheter days

204
Q

single high risk vascular procedure

A

TIPS

205
Q

4 high risk non-vascular procedures

A

biliary procedures (new tract), nephrostomy tube placement, renal biopsy, ablation

206
Q

INR for high risk procedures

A

> 1.5, correct with FFP or vit K

207
Q

INR for low risk procedures

A

> 2, correct with FFP or vit K (only need to check for patients on warfarin or with liver dz)

208
Q

INR for moderate risk procedures

A

> 1.5, correct with FFP or vit K (same as high risk)

209
Q

platelet count for high risk procedure

A

< 50K, transfuse

210
Q

platelet count for moderate risk procedure

A

< 50K, transfuse

211
Q

platelet count for low risk procedure

A

< 50K, transfuse (not routinely required to check)

212
Q

what to do with aspirin for low risk procedure?

A

do not hold

213
Q

what to do with aspirin for moderate risk procedure?

A

81mg ok, 325–>81mg for 5 day prior

214
Q

what to do with aspirin for high risk procedure?

A

hold 5d

215
Q

what to do with LMWH for low risk procedure?

A

hold 12h

216
Q

what to do with LMWH for moderate risk procedure?

A

hold 12h

217
Q

what to do with LMWH for high risk procedure?

A

hold 24h

218
Q

what to do with argatroban before procedures?

A

don’t hold for low risk, defer non-emergent procedures, hold 4h for mod-high risk emergent procedures

219
Q

hairpin turn during bronchial angiography

A

anterior medullary (spinal cord) artery

220
Q

fever, WBC, Nausea + vomiting after UAE

A

post-embolization syndrome (or all of our patients)

221
Q

most feared complication of bronchial artery embo

A

spinal cord infarct

222
Q

3 things we don’t drain

A

tumors, acute hematoma, things associated with acute bowel rupture/peritonitis

223
Q

above this Cr, renal artery stenting doesn’t work

A

Cr > 3

224
Q

most common side effect of BRTO

A

gross hematuria

225
Q

should you use a swan ganz for a thoracic angio

A

NO

226
Q

procedure for acute Budd Chiari with fulminant livery failure

A

TIPS

227
Q

treatment for pancreatiduodenal pseuodaneurysm

A

“sandwich technique” distal and proximal segments must be embolized

228
Q

what size particles for embolizing mass hemoptysis

A

bronchial artery, particle > 325 um

229
Q

2 ways to fix hepatic encephalopathy after TIPS

A

place a new stent inside the TIPS to make it smaller or place two new stents parallel to each other

230
Q

what if you accidentally stick a drain in the colon?

A

wait 4 weeks for tract to mature, then remove

231
Q

DVT + severe sx + no response to systemic anticoagulation

A

catheter directed thrombolysis

CORE IR (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions