IPC oral review questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum holding speed below FL140?

A

230 KIAS

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2
Q

What is the maximum holding speed between FL140 and FL200?

A

240 KIAS

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3
Q

What is the maximum holding speed above FL200?

A

265 KIAS

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4
Q

What is the circling area (PANS-OPS) for Cat C aircraft?

A

4.2 NM

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5
Q

What is the circling area (TERPS) for Cat C aircraft?

A

1.7 NM

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6
Q

What is the approach speed (Vat) for a Cat C aircraft?

A

121 - 140 KIAS

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7
Q

What are the requirements for a visual approach by day?

A
  1. Within 30 NM of dest,
  2. Clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water,
  3. Min vis 5000m,
  4. Able to maintain visual flight within the circliing area
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8
Q

What are the requirements for a visual approach by night?

A
  1. Clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water,
  2. > 5000m viz, within the circling area or within 5 NM (7 NM for ILS) when aligned with the runway centreline and established on PAPI or T-VASI, or within 10 NM of the aerodrome but not below the ILS glidepath
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9
Q

When can a pilot descend below MDA on a circling approach?

A
  1. When maintaining the aircraft within the circling area,
  2. Maintains viz not less than min specified on the chart for the procedure,
  3. Maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment, 4. Can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold using normal flight manoeuvres and rates of descent
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10
Q

When can an aircraft descent below the LSALT or MSA for a route segment?

A

When over the IAF or facility except when complying with the requirements for a visual approach, when conforming to a published DME or GPS arrival proc, or when assigned to an altitude by ATC

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11
Q

What is the max speed for visual circling for a Cat C aircraft?

A

180 KIAS

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12
Q

What is the sector 1 holding entry procedure?

A

Parallel

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13
Q

What is the sector 2 holding entry procedure?

A

Offset

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14
Q

What is the sector 3 holding entry procedure?

A

Direct

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15
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When conditions preclude return to the departure aerodrome

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16
Q

What are the requirements for a takeoff alternate (distance)?

A

One hour still air flight time at the one engine inoperative cruise speed according to the AFM

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17
Q

When is a destination alternate not required?

A
  1. Flight duration
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18
Q

What weather conditions are required for nomination of an airport as a takeoff alternate?

A

Met reports/forecasts indicate from 1hr prior to 1hr after ETA weather will be at or above the applicable landing minima for the approach most likely to be flown, if only NPA or circling the ceiling shall be taken into account

19
Q

What is the planning minima for a takeoff alternate?

A

ILS Cat I - Planning Cat 1 with RVR/Vis, NPA - NPA viz and ceiling, Circling - circling viz and ceiling

20
Q

What conditions shall not be present to not require an alternate?

A

PROB of TS or associated conditions (hail, lightning) for 1hr before or after ETA

21
Q

What is the planning minima for a destination alternate?

A

ILS Cat I - NPA viz and ceiling, NPA - NPA plus 200’ and 1000m viz and ceiling, Circling - Circling minima viz and ceiling

22
Q

What must be identifiable to the pilot to descent below DA(H) or MDA(H)?

A
  1. Elements of the approach lighting system,
  2. The threshold or its markings, lights or identifiacation lights,
  3. The visual glideslope indicator, 4. The touchdown zone, zone markings or lights,
  4. The runway edge lights or
  5. Other visual references accepted by the authority
23
Q

What are the IFR recency requirements?

A

3 instrument approaches within the preceding 90 days in the aircraft or an approved flight training device. 1 approach each of 2D, 3D, azimuth and CDI

24
Q

What probability is required to remain RNP compliant with an RNAV route segment?

A

95%

25
Q

What navigation equipment is required to enter RNP 4 and RNP 10 airspace?

A

Two independent long range navigation systems, for RNP 4 one GPS, RNP 4 in oceanic airspace CPDLC and ADS-C

26
Q

Required fuel includes?

A

Taxi fuel, trip fuel, alternate fuel, fixed reserve fuel, contingency fuel (10%), holding fuel, additional fuel (if required)

27
Q

Fixed reserve fuel includes?

A

Fuel required to hold for 30 mins at 1500’ above aerodrome elevation in ISA at the estimated landing weight on arrival at the destination or alternate

28
Q

Alternate fuel includes?

A

A go-around from MDA/DH at destination, climb from the missed approach procedure, cruise, descent, approach and landing at alternate

29
Q

Contingency fuel includes?

A

10% of trip fuel plus 10% of alternate fuel

30
Q

When is holding fuel required?

A

If forecast weather at the destination or ATC traffic requirements dictate.

31
Q

What fuel consumption rate is required for calculating holding fuel?

A

That applicable to holding at FL200 at the appropriate weight

32
Q

When is additional fuel required?

A

Where trip fuel does not provide sufficient fuel in the event of depressurisation or engine failure at the most critical point

33
Q

When may extra fuel be carried?

A

At the discretion of the PIC

34
Q

When planning to an isolated aerodrome, what additional fuel is required?

A

Fuel to fly for a minimum of two hours after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome including final reserve

35
Q

When passenger weight is given verbally, what is the minimum specific constant to be added?

A

4 kgs for clothing and 6 kgs for hand baggage

36
Q

What is the maximum allowed change in the number of passengers or baggage for a Last Minute Change?

A

2 passengers and 100 kgs of baggage/cargo

37
Q

What information is to be retained on the ground during flight?

A
  1. Copy of the OFP,
  2. Passenger manifest,
  3. Load sheet,
  4. Special load notification if applicable,
  5. PRA
38
Q

What actions should be taken if communications are lost while VMC?

A

Squawk 7600, remain VMC, land at nearest suitable aerodrome

39
Q

What actions should be taken if communications are lost in IMC with no clearance limit?

A

Squawk 7600, proceed in accordance with last clearance and climb to planned level, transmit blind

40
Q

What action should be taken if communications are lost in IMC with a clearance limit involving an altitude or route restriction?

A
  1. Squawk 7600,
  2. Maintain last assigned altitude or MSA if higher for 3 mins,
  3. Hold at the nominated location for 3 mins,
  4. Proceed in accordance with the ATC route clearance and climb to planned level
41
Q

What action should be taken if communications are lost while under ATS surveillance (including vectoring)?

A

Squawk 7600, climb to MSA/LSALT, maintain last assigned vector for 2 mins or one more holding pattern, proceed in accordance with the ATC route clearance and climb to planned level

42
Q

What action should be taken when arriving at the destination following communication failure?

A

Commence descent in accordance with ATS flight plan, descent to the initial approach altitude for the most suitable approach aid, carry out the approach to the circling minima, if visual circle to land

43
Q

What action should be taken if not visual during approach to land with communication failure?

A

Depart for a suitable alternate unless in receipt of aerodrome information indicating a runway and approach are available, descend to approach minima, land if visual or depart for a suitable alternate