IPC Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 recency requirements to fly Single Pilot IFR?

A

1 - Operator Proficiency check within 3 months (T+C Org) or,
2 - Participating in a Training and Checking system or,
3 - Passed an IPC within 12 months and,
4 -
3 IAP in 90 days
1 IAP in 90 days in that category
1 IAP2D or 3D in 90days
Azimuth or CDI in 90 days
5 - Single Pilot IFR - min 1 hr flight with 1 IAP in single pilot ops within last 6 months.

Note: A circling approach can only be conducted if the most recent IPC or has included one.

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2
Q

What are the 11 cockpit items required for IFR CHTR/RPT ops?

A
1 - Auto Pilot capable of pitch and roll, heading and altitude hold.
2 - MEL
3 - 2x AH
4 - 2x ALT
5 - ASI
6 - VSI
7 - T + S
8 - DG
9 - OAT
10 - Compass
11 - Clock
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3
Q

What navigational equipment is required for an IFR CHTR/RPT flight?

A
1x 129a GNSS and 1x ADF or VOR
or
2x 145a GNSS
or
1x Multi sensor Nav system that includes GNSS and inertial integration

**Note: if using 129a and alternate required, navigation and approach must be capable by ground based radio Navaids, or done in VMC.

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4
Q

What are the 7 reasons to provide for an Alternate Airport?

A
Aids
Clouds
Visibility
Wind
Provision or Probability
Lights
Storms
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5
Q

Regarding Navaids, a pilot must plan for an alternate airport unless:

A

The aerodrome has 1 Navaid and IAP and the aircraft has 2 independent systems to use that Navaid; or

The aerodrome has 2 Navaids and IAPs and the aircraft has 2 independent systems to use either Navaid; or

Flight on the last route segment is planned to be conducted under VFR; or

For an aerodrome without a Navaid, the flight is by day only and the forecast conditions at the aerodrome are:
Cloud not more than SCT below LSALT + 500ft for the final route segment; and
Visibility not less than 8km; and
The aircraft can be navigated to the aerodrome under IFR tolerances or VMC.

**Note: for NVFR, an alternate within 1hr is required unless the AD and AC are fitted with compatible Navaid/system, or a GNSS receiver.

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6
Q

Except when VFR by day within 50nm of departure aerodrome, a pilot must plan for an alternate airport if their arrival time at the destination airport is 30mins before or during weather forecast conditions of:

A

Cloud more than SCT below alternate minima; or
Visibility less than alternate minima; or
Wind cross wind or tail wind exceeds aircraft limits.

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7
Q

In regards to TAFs, when is an alternate required?

A

When the TAF is Provisional or has a PROB that reduces anything below alternate minima.

When a TAF is not available, the alternate must have a firm forecast.

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8
Q

Regarding aerodrome lighting, when is an alternate not required?

A

When the aerodrome has:

ELEC + STBY; or
PAL + STBY + RP; or
PAL + PTBL + RP; or
PTBL + RP; and

when a RP is required, they must be in attendance 30mins before ETA until completion of taxi, and/or 10mins before and 30mins after departure.

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9
Q

Regarding INTERs and TEMPOs, what are the holding/alternate requirements?

A

If ETA at a destination falls within either 30 mins before, during or 30min after a forecast with INTER/TEMPO TS, or weather conditions less than the alternate minima, then either 30mins or 60mins holding fuel respectively must be carried, or an alternate must be planned.

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10
Q

When can Special Alternate Minima be used?

A

On specific IAP charts and if the aircraft is fitted with:
Dual VOR, LOC, G/P and marker receivers, (or DME and one marker); and
if an ILS uses an NDB, 2x ADFs.

**Note: Spec Altn Min not avbl when SPECI/METAR or local forecasting not avbl, or if control service not avbl.

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11
Q

Define Vmca

A

Minimum Control Speed Air (Red Radial)

The minimum speed at which it is possible to maintain directional control with the critical engine inoperative.

Critical engine inoperative
Live engine at take off power
Landing gear retracted
Max 5 degree bank towards live engine
Prop feathered (only for aircraft with auto feather)
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12
Q

Define Vmcg

A

Minimum Control Speed Ground

The minimum speed, whilst on the ground at which it is possible to maintain direction using only aerodynamic inputs

Critical engine inoperative
Live engine at take off power

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13
Q

Define Vsse

A

Single Engine Safety Speed

The speed below which intentional simulated engine failures should not be conducted. Vsse is a manufacturers speed intended to provide a safety margin above Vmca

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14
Q

Define Vyse

A

Single Engine Best Rate of Climb Speed (blue radial)

The speed at which the best rate of climb can be achieved with the critical engine inoperative

Critical engine inoperative
Live engine at take off power
Landing gear retracted

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15
Q

What lighting is required for IFR (and NVFR) flight at night?

A
2x landing lights
Position and anti-collision lights
Pilot compartment light
Passenger compartment light
Instrument illumination + intensity control
Shock proof torch
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16
Q

What are the navigation requirements under IFR?

A

Either navigate by;

An approved area navigation system; or
Use radio Navaids in their rated coverage (allowing for ±9° tracking errors) with fixes at 2hrs or less or;
Visual reference in VMC by day when no aid is available, with fixes at 30 mins or less.

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17
Q

How do you calculate the take-off distance required for Multi Engine CHTR and Single Engine RPT?

A

Use short dry grass chart to achieve TOSS at 50ft at the achievable distance multiplied by:

1.15 for MTOW 2,000kg or less
1.25 for MTOW 3,500kg or more
and interpolate for weights in between.

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18
Q

What percentage climb gradient must all IFR aircraft make for Take-off climb performance?

A

6% in take-off configuration with landing gear down

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19
Q

What climb performance must multi engine aircraft under IFR charter meet?

A

1% at all heights up to 5,000ft

Critical engine inoperative
Propeller of inoperative engine stopped
Gear and flaps retracted
Live engine at Max Continuous Power
Airspeed not less than 1.2Vs
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20
Q

What is the landing climb performance required for all aircraft?

A

3.2%

All engines at take off power
Speed not exceeding 1.3Vs

21
Q

How do you calculate the landing distance required for all aircraft under 5,700kg?

A

Use short dry grass chart, approaching at a speed not less than 1.3Vs to 50ft, and come to a complete stop multiplied by;

1.15 for MTOW 2,000kg or less
1.43 for MTOW 4,500 or more
and interpolate for weights in between

22
Q

What deviations from track in CTA are to be advised to ATC?

A
VOR - Half scale deflection
NDB - (+-)5°
DME - 2nm
Visual - 1nm
GNSS - out of error tolerance
23
Q

When should a missed approach be executed, and what protection does it provide?

A

If during the final segment the aircrafts position is out of tolerance for the aid; or
If below MSA the aid becomes suspect or fails; or
RAIM lost or warning past the FAF; or
If during an RNAV, the GPS has not transitioned to approach mode; or
Visual reference is not established at the MAPt or DA/RA; or
A Straight In landing cannot be effected and circling is not an option; or
Whilst circling, Visual Reference to the runway threshold is lost, or any circling minima criteria are not met.

Circling Criteria:
Clear of Cloud
In sight of ground or water
Vis not less than that stated on chart
Visual contact with runway threshold

Missed approach protection is 100ft obstacle clearance at 2.5% climb gradient.

24
Q

What are the VMC requirements for Class C, E and G?

A

Visibility 5km (8km above 10,000ft)
1.5km lateral separation from cloud
1,000ft vertical separation from could

**Note for Class G, below 3,000ft AMSL or 1,000 AGL, requirement is clear of cloud if radio carried.

25
Q

What are the VMC requirements for Class D?

A

Visibility 5km
600m lateral separation from cloud
1,000ft above cloud
500ft below cloud

26
Q

What are the Special VFR criteria?

A

Visibility 1.6km

Clear of Cloud

27
Q

What are the standard and special take-off minima for IFR aircraft?

A

Standard
Cloud not more than SCT below 300ft
Visibility 2km

Special - ceiling 0ft, vis 550m
Multi Engine
2 Pilot Operated or 
Single Pilot Jet or
Single Pilot Propellor with auto feather
28
Q

What are the checks and tolerances for IFR altimeters?

A

Wiht accurate QNH set, the altimeter must read within 60ft.
If it is out by more than 75ft, it is unserviceable.

When an altimeter is between 60 and 75ft out, it can be used for one flight to be rechecked. If it is still out by over 60ft, it is unserviceable.

29
Q

What are the 3 Sector Entries, and when can you commence an approach without entering the hold?

A

Sector 1 - Parallel Entry - 110° Sector
Sector 2 - Teardrop or Offset Entry - 70° Sector
Sector 3 - Direct Entry - 180° Sector

You can commence an approach without conducting a sector entry and manoeuvring in the hold when:
The aircraft is within 25nm of the aid in the hold; and
The aircraft is not below MSA; and
The inbound track to the aid is within 30° of the initial approach segment.

30
Q

What are the speed limitations for a holding pattern?

A

Unless specified on an IAP chart, the speed limitations are:

Above FL200 - 265KIAS
Above FL140 - 240KIAS
FL140 and below - 230KIAS (170KIAS where approach is limited to Cat A and B only).

31
Q

What is are the timing requirements and limits for a holding pattern?

A

Timing starts abeam the fix or on obtaining outbound heading, whichever comes later.
FL140 and below - 1 minute or time or distance on chart
Above FL140 - 1.5 minutes or time or distance on chart

Turns are rated one turns, limited to 25° bank angle.

32
Q

Prior to the Initial Approach Fix, Pilots are required to set the QNH from 1 of three sources. What are these sources, and what adjustments to MDA/DA/ALTERNATE MINIMA need to be made regarding each?

A

Actual Airport QNH from an approved source; or
The TAF QNH; or
The Area QNH.

Heights with shaded backgrounds on IAP charts are for using TAF QNH.
If actual QNH is obtained from either ATC, ATIS, AWIS or observer, then all heights can be decreased by 100ft** within 15 minutes of obtaining the QNH.
If Area QNH is used then 50ft needs to be added but only to locations that have a regular TAF service.

** unless pressure error correction has been applied, 50ft needs to be added to DAs on Precision Approaches.

33
Q

When can you fly below LSALT/MSA?

A
Climb after take-off
VMC by day
Vectors from ATS
IAP
DGA
34
Q

When can you decend below the Straight-In MDA or continue an approach below DA?

A
  • Visual Reference can be maintained with the threshold; and
  • Visibility and cloud ceiling are not below minima for that approach; and
  • The aircraft is continuously in a position to be able to effect a landing in the touchdown zone on the intended runway using normal manoeuvres and decent rates
35
Q

When can you descend below the Circling MDA?

How much can you descend below MDA?

A
  • If at or above the Circling MDA, the meteorological conditions are at or above the minima stated for the approach and the Pilot;
  • maintains the aircraft within the circling area; and
  • maintains Vis along the flight path not less than that stated on the chart;
  • maintains visual contact with the landing threshold, lighting etc, then;

By Day when obstacles can be seen
A Pilot can descend the aircraft within the circling area not lower than obstacle clearance height (300ft for Cat A and B)

By Night
From a point within the circling area on downwind, base or final, complete a continuous and normal descent to the threshold.

In any case decent below OCA should only occur once aligned with the landing runway.

36
Q

When can you circle in a non circling area?

A

In Day VMC only under VFR

37
Q

What are the circling area distances and Obstacle Clearance Altitudes?

A
Cat A - 1.68nm and 300ft
Cat B - 2.66nm and 300ft
Cat C - 4.20nm and 400ft
Cat D - 5.28nm and 400ft
Cat E - 6.94nm and 500ft
38
Q

What are the IAP speed limitations for Cat A aircraft (Vat <91kts)

A

Initial and Intermediate - 90-150 KIAS
Final Approach - 70-100 KIAS
Circling - 100 KIAS
Missed Approach - 110 KIAS

39
Q

What are the IAP speed limitations for Cat B aircraft (Vat 90-120kts)

A

Initial and Intermediate - 120-180 KIAS
Final Approach - 85-130 KIAS
Circling - 135 KIAS
Missed Approach - 150 KIAS

40
Q

What are the IAP speed limitations for Cat C aircraft (Vat 121-140kts)

A

Initial and Intermediate - 160-240 KIAS
Final Approach - 115-160 KIAS
Circling - 180 KIAS
Missed Approach - 240 KIAS

41
Q

What are the IFR landing minima for an aerodrome without an IAP?

A

By Day
Visual Approach Requirements

By Night
VMC at LSALT within 3nm

42
Q

What are the IFR landing minima for a Non-Precision approach?

A

By Day and Night
Cloud base as on chart
Visibility as on chart
**If HIAL is not avbl, then visibility it to be increased by 900m for a Localiser Approach

43
Q

What are the landing minima for a Precision Approach?

A

By Day and Night
Published cloud base and visibility
** min Vis 1.5km if HIAL not avbl.
** min vis 1.2km if aircraft not equipped with flight director or HUD, or if not flown by an autopilot coupled with LOC and GP, AND has a failure flag for primary HDG and attitude system.

44
Q

When can you conduct a visual approach by day in CTA, and what are the tracking and altitude restrictions?

A
Within 30nm of the aerodrome; and
Not below LSALT/MSA/DGA STEPS/MDA and can maintain:
Clear of cloud;
In sight of ground or water; and
5km vis on the flight path

A Pilot must not descend below 500 ft above the LL of the CTA, or below the permissible altitude for VFR flight (CAR157).
A Pilot must maintain track authorised by ATC until within 5nm of the aerodrome, then join the circuit as directed by ATC.

45
Q

When can you conduct a visual approach by day OCTA, and what are the tracking and altitude restrictions?

A

Established VMC not below LSALT then proceed VFR.

46
Q

When can you conduct a visual approach at night in CTA, and what are the tracking and altitude restrictions?

A
Within 30nm of the aerodrome; and
Not below LSALT/MSA/DGA STEPS/MDA and can maintain:
Clear of cloud;
In sight of ground or water; and
5km vis on the flight path. 

A Pilot must not descend below LSALT/MSA/DGA Steps or 500 ft above the LL of the CTA if this is higher, or below a level assigned by ATS until within the circling area; or
within 5nm aligned with the runway not below PAPI (7nm) if ILS, or
within 10nm established not below glide path and less than full scale deflection of an ILS.

A Pilot must maintain track authorised by ATC until within the circling area, then join the circuit as directed by ATC.

47
Q

When can you conduct a visual approach at night to an aerodrome without an IAP, and what are the tracking and altitude restrictions?

A

Established VMC not below LSALT.

A pilot must not descend below LSALT until positively fixed within 3NM of the aerodrome, and the aerodrome lighting has been visually identified. Descent below LSALT must be contained within 3nm, and it is pilots responsibility to be aware of and seperate themselves from any obstacles using standard OCA.

48
Q

What are the aid tolerances for executing a missed approach?

A

NDB - +-5 degrees
ILS - Full scale deflection of LOC or GP after the FAP
GNSS RNAV - Half scale deflection or if GPS has not transitioned to approach mode by the FAP.

49
Q

What is the procedure if IFR and you have a Comm failure in Class D?

A

Maintain Terrain Clearance
Squawk 7600
Listen out on ATIS or voice modulated NAVAIDS
Transmit intentions and make position report Prefix with “transmitting blind”
If VMC, stay VMC and carry out CLASS D comm failure landing procedure
If IMC climb to latest assigned level or MSA
…refer to ERSA EMERG