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Instrument Proficency Check Theory > IPC > Flashcards

IPC Flashcards

1
Q

What is a CATEGORY of aircraft?

A

CASR 61.015 – Definition of category of aircraft for Part 61

Each of the following is a category of aircraft:
(a) aeroplane;
(b) helicopter;
etc

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2
Q

What is a CLASS of aircraft?

A 
CASR 61.020 – Definition of class of aircraft for Part 61
(1) Each of the following is a class of aircraft:

(a) single-engine aeroplane;
(b) multi-engine aeroplane;

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3
Q

Instument Rating Renewal validity.

A

CASR 61.880 – Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings— instrument proficiency check:

Valid from the period the holder passes the flight test to the end of the 12th month after the month in which the holder passes the flight test.

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4
Q

What can an IFR rated pilot do? (privileges)

A

CASR 61.855 – Privileges of instrument ratings
Subject to Subpart 61.E and regulations 61.860 to 61.880, the holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft:
(a) under the IFR; or
(b) at night under the VFR.

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5
Q

What are the conditions associated the privileges of an instrument rating? (limitations)

A

CASR 61.860 - Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings - general:

1) aircraft must be equipped for IFR ops
2) if conducting single pilot IFR, must have passed flight test or IPC for single pilot ops
3) if conducting a circling approach, must have demonstrated on your last flight test or IPC (or be in training)
4) for each IAP must have completed training and demonstrated competence to CASA/examiner

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6
Q

What are the recency requires for IAP?

A

CASR 61.870 - Limitations on exercise of privileges of instrument ratings - recent experience: general:

1) completed Operator Proficiency Check covering IFR within last 3 months
2) be completing training
3) conducted 3 IAP within 90 days
- at least 1 in the intended CATEGORY of aircraft
- at least 1 of the same type intended to be flown (eg 2D, 3D azimuth or CDI)

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7
Q

What are the limitations on SINGLE pilot IFR flights?

A

CASR 61.875

1) Must have conducted a flight or sim flight under single pilot IFR in the previous 6 months
2) above flight must be at least 1 hour with 1 IAP

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8
Q

What aircraft equipment is required for IFR CHTR?

A

1) Autopilot (roll, pitch, heading and altitude mode)
dual controls, and secondary pilot may be used instead of autopilot
-autopilot may be U/S for 3 days only
2) Assigned altitude indicator - in CTA
3) MIN EQUIP (C.C.A.A.A.T.T)
2x AH
ASI
2x ALT
T+S
DG
COMPASS
CLOCK
OAT

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9
Q

Aircraft lighting required at night?

A

CAO 20.18 Appendix V

1) instrument lights with intensity control
2) 2x landing lights
3) compartment lights
4) position and anti collision lights
5) torch

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10
Q

GNSS requirements for IFR CHTR?

A

AIP GEN 1.5 Para 2

1) 129a and ADF/VOR
2) 2x 145a
3) Multi-sensor nav system (incl. GNSS and inertial integration) - CASA APPROVAL REQ.

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11
Q

Requirement for an alternate - NAV AIDS?

A

AIP ENR 1.1 Para 8.8
Alternates Could Very Well Prove Life Savers

Aids:
- the destination is served by a radio nav aid and the aircraft has two independent systems for the published aid
OR
- the destination has two radio nav aid’s and the aircraft is equipped with systems for both nav aids

** by day only, can plan with no aid and no alternate if cloud = not more than SCT below LSALT+500ft, VIS not less than 8km **

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12
Q

Requirement for an alternate - CLOUD/VIS/WIND?

A

AIP ENR 1.1 Para 8.8
Alternates Could Very Well Prove Life Savers

Except VFR by day within 50nm of departure, if arrival is within 30min prior to or during the following conditions (incl. PROV + PROB) - an alternate must be provided:

CLOUD: more than SCT below the alternate minima

VISIBILTY: less than the alternate minima

WIND: a crosswind or tailwind component more than the max for the aircraft

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13
Q

Requirement for an alternate - LIGHTING

A

AIP ENR 1.1 Para 8.8
Alternates Could Very Well Prove Life Savers

1) Portable lighting - needs alternate unless responsible person is provided
2) Standby power must be available (unless portable with responsible person)
3) PAL:
- needs a responsible person
- lighting must be operated 10 min before take-off and 30 min after … plus 30min before ETA until completion of landing and taxi

an alternate does not need standby power, but cannot be PAL (or can be PAL if responsible person in attendance or dual VHF for non RPT only or single VHF + HF with 30min holding)

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14
Q

Requirement for an alternate - STORMS

A

AIP ENR 1.1 Para 8.8
Alternates Could Very Well Prove Life Savers

Alternate required or sufficient holding fuel for an inter or tempo when THUNDERSTORMS or associated severe turbulence is forecast

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15
Q

What is special alternate weather minima?

A

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 6.2

Available to aircraft with dual ILS/VOR approach capability.

Identified on the approach chart by a double **

Only available in conjunction with a local forecast and control services

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16
Q

What is Vmca?

A

Minimum control speed - air (red arc)

  • critical engine inoperative
  • live engine at take-off power
  • landing gear up
  • max 5 degrees bank towards live engine
  • prop feathered

This is the minimum speed which directional control can be maintained with critical engine inoperative.

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17
Q

What is Vmcg?

A

Minimum control speed - ground

  • critical engine inoperative
  • live engine at take-off power

This is the minimum speed on the ground to maintain directional control using only aerodynamic controls.

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18
Q

What is Vsse?

A

Single Engine Safety Speed

Speed at which simulated engine failure should NOT be conducted below. Allows a buffer to Vice.

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19
Q

What is Vyse?

A

Single Engine Best Rate of Climb Speed

  • critical engine inoperative
  • live engine at take-off power
  • landing gear retracted

Speed at which best rate of climb can be achieved with the critical engine inoperative

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20
Q

Navigational Requirements under IFR?

A

Must be navigated by:
1) an approved area navigation system for the airspace/route

2) radio navigation systems (must be within rated coverage of aid)
* max time between fixes must not exceed 2 hours*
* distance able to be flown = 6.66 x rated coverage*

3) visual reference to ground or water by day, where suitable navigation aids are not available, provided flight is in VMC

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21
Q

What is the required take-off climb performance?

A

ALL AIRCRAFT:

6% - take-off configuration with landing gear extended

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22
Q

En-route Climb Performance - MULTI ENGINE IFR CHTR?

A

1% at all heights up to 5000ft in ISA:

  • critical engine failure
  • propeller stopped
  • undercarriage and flaps retracted
  • live engine at Max Cruising Power
  • airspeed not less than 1.2 Vs (stall)
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23
Q

En-route Climb Performance - MULTI ENGINE VFR CHTR?

A

Must have the ability to maintain height, at all heights up to 5000ft in ISA with:

  • critical engine failure
  • propeller stopped
  • undercarriage and flaps retracted
  • live engine at Max Cruising Power
  • airspeed not less than 1.2 Vs (stall)
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24
Q

En-route Climb Performance - SINGLE ENGINE AEROPLANES

A
  1. 5% at all heights up to 5000ft in ISA with:
    - engine at Max Cruising Power
    - undercarriage and flaps retracted
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25
Q

Landing Climb Performance?

A

ALL AIRCRAFT:

  1. 2% in ISA with:
    - all engines at take-off power
    - speed not exceeding 1.3 Vs (stall)
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26
Q

What is the tracking tolerance in CTA for a NDB?

A

AIP ENR 1.1 PARA 3.3.6

+/- 5 degrees

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27
Q

What is the tracking tolerance in CTA for a VOR?

A

AIP ENR 1.1 PARA 3.3.6

Half-scale deflection

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28
Q

What is the tracking tolerance in CTA for an RNAV?

A

AIP ENR 1.1 PARA 3.3.6

Navigation error plus flight technical error exceeded

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29
Q

What is the tracking tolerance in CTA for a DME?

A

AIP ENR 1.1 PARA 3.3.6

+/- 2 NM

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30
Q

What is the tracking tolerance in CTA - VISUAL?

A

AIP ENR 1.1 PARA 3.3.6

1 NM

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31
Q

What are the VMC requirements in Class G?

A

AIP ENR 1.2 para 2

  • 5km visibility (or 8km above 10,000)
  • 1500m horizontal from cloud
  • 1000ft vertical from cloud

below 3000ft clear of cloud and insight of ground or water

32
Q

What are the VMC requirements in Class E?

A

AIP ENR 1.2 para 2

  • 5km visibility (or 8km above 10,000)
  • 1500m horizontal from cloud
  • 1000ft vertical from cloud
33
Q

What are the VMC requirements in Class D?

A

AIP ENR 1.2 para 2

  • 5km visibility
  • 600m horizontal from cloud
  • 1000ft above/500ft below, vertically from cloud
34
Q

What are the VMC requirements in Class C?

A

AIP ENR 1.2 para 2

  • 5km visibility (or 8km above 10,000)
  • 1500m horizontal from cloud
  • 1000ft vertical from cloud
35
Q

Transponder code for VFR in Class E or OCTA?

A

AIP ENR 1.6 para 7.1

1200

36
Q

Transponder code for IFR OCTA?

A

AIP ENR 1.6 para 7.1

2000

37
Q

Transponder code for IFR in class E or civil in CTA?

A

AIP ENR 1.6 para 7.1

3000

38
Q

What is the take-off minima for IFR?

A

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 4.4

Unless otherwise specified on relevant charts, standard take-off minima applies:

  • cloud not more than SCT below 300ft AGL
  • visibility not less than 2000m
39
Q

When is an altimeter accuracy check required?

A

AIP ENR 1.7 Para 1.1

Whenever accurate QNH is available and the elevation is known, a pilot must conduct an accuracy check at some point prior to take-off

40
Q

What is the acceptable error tolerance for an IFR altimeter?

A

Should read within 60ft of known elevation

Note. cannot use Area QNH for this test

41
Q

What altimeter error is considered unserviceable?

A

+/- 75ft is considerable an unserviceable altimeter

42
Q

Acceptable error when TWO altimeters are required?

A

AIP ENR 1.7 Para 1.2 - IFR altimeters

  • one must be within 60ft of elevation
  • if second altimeter shows an error between 60-75ft, flight to the next point may continue for rechecking

if error greater than 60ft upon second check - altimeter is U/S for IFR ops

43
Q

Acceptable error when ONE altimeters are required?

A

AIP ENR 1.7 Para 1.2 - IFR altimeters

With two altimeters available

  • one must be within 60ft of elevation
  • if remaining altimeter has error in excess of 75ft, is must be placarded as U/S

With one altimeter available
-must read within 60ft
OR
-if error between 60-75ft may be flown to next destination for rechecking

if recheck show excess of 60ft error, altimeter is U/S for IFR ops

44
Q

What altimeter setting is used BELOW the transition layer?

A

AIP ENR 1.7 Para 2 - Altimeter Setting Rules

1) local QNH within 100nm of aircraft
2) current area QNH if the above is not known

45
Q

What altimeter setting is used ABOVE the transition layer?

A

AIP ENR 1.7 Para 2 - Altimeter Setting Rules

1) 1013.2hPa - set when passing 10,000ft

46
Q

Explain a SECTOR 1 entry (parallel entry)

A

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 3.3 - Entry into the holding pattern

1) on reaching the holding fix, aircraft is turned onto an outbound track for XX amount of time or until reaching the appropriate DME limit if applicable
2) aircraft turns onto the holding side to intercept the inbound track/return to the fix
3) on second arrival at fix, aircraft turns to follow the holding pattern

47
Q

Explain a SECTOR 2 entry (teardrop entry)

A

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 3.3 - Entry into the holding pattern

1) on reaching the holding fix, aircraft is turned onto a heading to make good a track of 30 degrees from reciprocal of the inbound track (on the holding pattern side)
2) fly this outbound for XX amount of time or until reaching the appropriate DME limit if applicable
3) aircraft turns in the direction of the holding pattern to intercept the inbound track
4) on second arrival at fix, aircraft turns to enter the holding pattern

48
Q

Explain a SECTOR 3 entry (direct entry)

A

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 3.3 - Entry into the holding pattern

1) on reaching the holding fix, the aircraft is turned to follow the holding pattern. Outbound timing begins abeam the fix or on completion onto the outbound leg

49
Q

When is a sector entry/holding pattern not required?

A

If an aircraft does not need to hold or lose height in a holding pattern, immediate approach may be commenced if the initial approach track is within a 60 degree sector. That is 30 degrees either side of:

  • the intermediate approach track of the IAP
  • the inbound holding track, where a procedure turn is required prior to descent
50
Q

When can you diverge to intercept a track within a 60 degree sector?

A

Outside CTA within 25 miles of the aid and not below MSA

51
Q

What is the maximum rate of descent after the FINAL APPROACH FIX?

A

Not in excess of 1000ft per min

52
Q

What speed limitations apply to entry and holding procedures up to and incl FL140?

A

a) 230kts
OR
b) 170kts - where procedure is limited to Cat A+B aircraft only

53
Q

When does outbound timing commence?

A

Abeam the fix or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later.

54
Q

What is the outbound time/distance in a holding pattern requirement below FL140?

A

1 minute OR the time/distance specified on the chart

55
Q

What type of turn is used when conducting a holding pattern?

A

In nil wind:
-25 degree bank angle
OR
-rate one, whichever requires the lesser bank angle

56
Q

At what point must the QNH be set during an IAP?

A

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 5.3

Prior to passing the IAF pilots are required to set either:

  • actual aerodrome QNH
  • forecast aerodrame QNH
  • forecast Area QNH
57
Q

When can published IAP minima be reduced by 100ft?

A

Where the approach chart has a shaded background for the published minima AND using ACTUAL aerodrome QNH

58
Q

What are the approved sources of actual aerodrome QNH?

A

1) ATC
2) ATIS
3) AWIS
4) other CASA approved metrological service

59
Q

How long is ACTUAL QNH valid for?

A

Up to 15 minutes from the time of receipt

60
Q

Do you need to increase minima when using area QNH?

A

Yes,
when using area QNH - the minima must be increased by 50ft

NOTE: for aerodromes where TAF is never available, the minima already includes this adjustment

61
Q

When can you descend below LSALT?

Hint: Don’t Venture In Very Close

A

Don’t Venture In Very Close

  • DME/GPS arrival
  • being radar Vectored
  • Instrument approach/Hold (Inc. MSA)
  • VMC by day
  • Climb out after take-off
62
Q

When can you descend below the straight in MDA (3)?

A

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.8.2

only when:

  • visual reference can be maintained
  • meteorological minima is greater than published minima requirements
  • aircraft must maintain a normal descent rate and normal flight manoeuvres to land within the touchdown zone of intended runway
63
Q

When can you descent below the circling MDA (5)?

A

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.7.6

only when:

  • aircraft stays within circling area
  • maintains visibility (not less than specified minima) along the flight path
  • maintains visual contact with the landing environment
  • BY DAY: maintains 300ft obstacle clearance
  • BY NIGHT: on downwind, base or final, make a continual descent with the normal rate and manoeuvrers for the aircraft
64
Q

When is visual circling in a “no-circling” area prohibited (2)?

A

Circling is prohibited:

  • by day in less than VMC
  • by night
65
Q

What is the circling area for a CAT B aircraft?

A

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.7.2

2.66nm and 300ft obstacle clearance

66
Q

What is the circling area for a CAT A aircraft?

A

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.7.2

1.68nm and 300ft obstacle clearance

67
Q

BY DAY - When can an IFR aircraft be granted a visual approach?

A

AIP ENR 1.1 Para 12.8.1 - ATC Authorisation

when all of the below are met:

1) within 30nm of aerodrome
2) pilot has established and maintaining visual reference to ground or water
3) visibility not less than 5km

68
Q

BY NIGHT - When can an IFR aircraft be granted a visual approach?

A

AIP ENR 1.1 Para 12.8.1 - ATC Authorisation

when all of the below are met:

1) within 30nm of aerodrome
2) pilot has established and maintained visual reference to ground or water
3) Visibility not less than 5km
4) receiving ATS surveillance; flight has been assigned to MVA and given tracking for finals or to be established within the circling area

69
Q

When can you deviate from track after being cleared for a visual approach?

A

AIP ENR 1.1 para 12.8.4 - Tracking Requirements

BY DAY: within 5nm
BY NIGHT: within the circling area (or 3nm for VFR) aerodrome must be in sight

70
Q

For IFR flights conducting a visual approach, what is the descent limitation - BY DAY?

A

AIP ENR 1.1 para 12.8.6 - Minimum Altitude Requirements

Not less than 500ft above the LL of the CTA

71
Q

For IFR flights conducting a visual approach, what is the descent limitation - BY NIGHT?

A

AIP ENR 1.1 para 12.8.6 - Minimum Altitude Requirements

must either:
- maintain not less than route LSALT, DME/GPS arrival step, or 500ft ABV LL of CTA (whichever is higher)
- not below last assigned altitude if receiving ATS surveillance
UNTIL
1) within circling area
2)within 5nm (7nm with ILS), aligned on centreline and ‘on slope’
3) within 10nm not below ILS glide path and less than full scale deflection

72
Q

When must a missed approach be conducted?

A

AIP ENR 1.5 para 1.10.1 - Missed Approach - Standard Procedure

1) during the final segment, the aircraft becomes out of tolerance
2) below MSA the performance of the aid becomes suspect (incl RAIM)
3) visual reference is not established before reaching MAP
4) if a landing cannot be made from a runway aligned approach without a circling approach
5) visual reference is lost while circling to land

73
Q

What must you do if RAIM warning remains after the MAP is selected?

A

Use alternative means of guidance or Dead Reckoning to fly the missed approach

74
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance provided during a missed approach?

A

100ft to an aircraft climbing at 2.5% from the MAPt or DA height

Note: if this gradient cannot be achieved, the DA/MDA should be increased accordingly

75
Q

Formula for achieving Missed Approach gradient?

A

actual gradient/required gradient x climb height = height to add to published MDA

Instrument Proficency Check Theory (1 decks)

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