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IPC Elodie > IPC > Flashcards

IPC Flashcards

1
Q

What is the privilege of an Instrument rating?

A

Part 61.855 Fly an aircraft under IFR and night VFR

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2
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of the privilege of an instrument ratings?

A

• can conduct an instrument approach if the aircraft is equipped for that approach
• can conduct single pilot ops if he/she passed the flight test for single pilot OR complete an IPC in a single pilot aircraft
• can do a circling approach if has passed a flight test with a circling approach in the last 12 months OR an IPC with a circling approach OR successfully participated in an operator’s training including a circling approach & the operator is approved under reg 61.040
• IPC includes the operator proficiency check covers IFR ops & conduct by a flight examiner who hold an instrument rating flight test endorsement

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3
Q

Limitations and privileges IPC? Multi and category

A

• The holder of an instrument rating in a category of aircraft if the test has been in that category of aircraft
• can exercise the privilege of a multi engine if the IPC was in a multi engine
• until the end of the 12 months and within 3 months before the IFR expires
• if failed at the IPC the Instrument rating is no longer valid

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4
Q

Recent experience?

A

• 3 instrument approaches by in the last 90days in an aircraft or in a sim
• at least 1 approach in that category of aircraft
• a 2D approach in the last 90 days to do a 2D approach
• a 3D approach in the last 90 days to do a 3D approach
• an azimuth approach in the last 90 days to do an azimuth approach
• a CDI approach in the last 90 days to do a CDI approach

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5
Q

Recency single pilot ops

A

• if has conducted a flight or a sim as single pilot in the last 6 months
• that flight was at least one hour
• include at least one approach

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6
Q

What forecast is needed before commencing a flight

A

• authorised forecast for the route to be flown, departure, arrival and alternate Aerodrome for the hole period of the flight
• any other reasonably weather
• If older than 1 hour need an update
• Area forecast
• wind temperatures
• forecast at destination need to be valid 30 minutes before and 1 hour after ETA

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7
Q

If no forecast is available

A

• Need that the weather at the departure is reasonable to come back within 1 hour
• able to get a forecast at destination 30 minutes after takeoff

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8
Q

Take off minima for other aeroplanes

A

• Cloud ceiling of 300ft
• Visibility 2000m
(• not below the minima of any IAP in case of emergency)

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9
Q

Alternates Could Very Well Prove Life Savers… What is Alternate?

A

Aids, no need of an alternate if
• IFR night an Instrument Approach & it serve by an instrument approach or more none of which the pilot is able to conduct
• IFR minima as published if no approche minimum lower safe plus 500ft and 8km on the last segment
• if GNSS used only C129 nav with an other system than GNSS
•Night VFR with Nav aid that the pilot is competent to use & has a GNSS and pilot is competent

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10
Q

Alternate Could Very Well Prove Life Savers… Could Very Well meaning?

A

Cloud Visibility & Wind
Need an alternate if 30 minutes at or up to ETA
• Cloud more than SCT below minimum
•Visibility less than the minimum or of 30% of fog, most, dust, or anything reducing visibility
•Wind a crosswind or tailwind more than the aircraft maximum

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11
Q

Alternate Could Very Well Prove Life Savers… Prov and Prob

A

Prov when the Aerodrome forecast is not available need an alternate
If TAF has a Prob below alternate minimum, need an alternate

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12
Q

Alternate Could Very Well Prove Life Savers… Lighting

A

• No alternate if PAL, STB power & Responsible person.
• No alternate if PAL, responsable person & Portable lighting.
• No Alternate if Non PAL and SBY PWR
• No Alternate if Non PAL, responsible person & portable lighting
• No alternate if Portable light & responsible person

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13
Q

Alternate Could Very Well Prove Life Savers… Saver

A

Storms
• if forecast at ETA or up to 30 minutes before thunderstorms or severe turbulence a least of 30% Prob
• 30 minutes of INTER
• 60 minutes of TEMPO

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14
Q

What are special alternate minima

A

They are for special approach at some airports for dual ILS/VOR aircraft and approach
Need duplicated LoC, GP and VOR and duplicate DME or GNSS or single DME and single GNSS
Double asterisk

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15
Q

VFR Rules and conditions of Class G

A

• No transponder
• VHF above 5000ft and in CTAF
• No clearance
• Separation: info only
• Visi 5000m
• 1000ft vertical
1500 m horizontal
Below 3000ft/ 1000ft clear of cloud

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16
Q

VFR Rules and conditions of Class E

A

• No transponder
• VHF continuous two way
• No clearance
• Separation: info only
• Visi 5000m
• Cloud 1000ft vertical
1500m horizontal

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17
Q

VFR Rules and conditions class D

A

• No transponder
• VHF continuous two way
• Clearance 2 way comms
• Separation: info only SVFR from SVFR
• Visi 5000m
• Cloud 1000ft above cloud
500ft below cloud
600m horizontal

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18
Q

VFR Rules and conditions Class C

A

• Need a transponder
• VHF continuous two way
• Clearance needed
• Separation: info VFR, Sep from IFR and SVFR from SVFR
• Visi 5000m
• Cloud 1000ft vertical
1500m horizontal

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19
Q

VFR Rules and conditions class A

A

No VFR flight

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20
Q

IFR Rules Class G

A

• ADS-B required
• Service FIS
• No clearance
• Separation info only

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21
Q

IFR Rules Class E

A

• ADS-B request
• ATC
• Clearance needed
• Info on VFR sep from IFR

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22
Q

IFR Rules Class D

A

• ADS-B request
• ATC
• Clearance needed
• Sep from IFR and SVFR

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23
Q

IFR Rules Class C and A

A

• ADS-B request
• ATC
• Clearance needed
• Separation from all aircraft

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24
Q

Validity of an IPC

A

• From the flight test to the end of the 12th month after the month in which was the test OR
• For the period in which the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s training and checking for IFR

IPC can be completed 3 months before the validity expires and will be valid at the end of the 12 months of the previous check.

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25
Q

Aircraft equipment?

A

•Approved GNSS
•AI ( primary and alternate power supply unless independent T+S or a second AI)
•ASI (Pitot heat & Alternate static source or a balanced pair of flush static ports)
•ALT (With alternate static source or pair of flush static ports)
•VSI (With alternate static source or pair of flush static ports)
•T+S (Slip only if AI & primary and alternate power supply unless independent of the other gyroscopic instruments or a second AI)
• DG ( primary and alternate power supply unless independent T+S or a second AI)
• Compass
• OAT
• Clock

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26
Q

When do we need an Altitude Alerting system and assigned altitude indicator?

A

Above FL150 and in controlled airspace

The Altitude alerting system must: include an assigned altitude indicator, alert the crew approaching the altitude and alert the crew by aural warning if deviates

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27
Q

Flight with inop equipment

A

An aircraft may begin a flight of if in accordance with the MEL of the aircraft or it has been approved as permissible unserviceable (reg 21.007)

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28
Q

Cockpit and cabine lights?

A

• Equipment including checklists and documents
• Compatible with each item of equipment
• In normal position can read all placards and instruments marking, eyes shielded from direct and reflected light
• Variable intensity
• Cabin lighting for seatbelt, oxygen normal and emergency exits
• Independent portal light for each FCM

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29
Q

Aircraft lights?

A

• 1 red beacon or 2 white strobes or a combination
• At least 1 landing light
• nav lights must be fitted for night

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30
Q

What is Vmca?

A

Minimum control speed, air (red line)
•With critical engine inop
•Live engine at take off power
•Gear retracted
•Max 5degree of bank on the live engine
•Prop feather

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31
Q

What is Vmcg?

A

Minimum control speed ground
• critical engine inop
•live engine at take off power

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32
Q

What is Vsse?

A

Single engine safety speed, below where simulated engine failure shouldn’t be performed

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33
Q

What is Vyse

A

Single engine best rate of climb (blue line) with the critical engine inop

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34
Q

To tell that we have a communication failure?

A

• In flight: by day rocking the aircraft wing (not on base or final)
By night flashing twice the aircraft landing or nav if no landing lights
• On the ground: by waggling ailerons and rudder
By night flashing twice the aircraft landing or nav if no landing lights

35
Q

If communication failure in class G and VFR?

A

• Remain VMC
• Broadcast intentions with “transmitting blind”
•remain VFR in class G and land to a suitable airport
•report to ATS for sartime

36
Q

Communication failure in CTA or IFR in any airspace?(not landing)

A

• squawk 7600
• listen on ATIS or modulated Navaids
• transmit intentions and position report with “transmission blind”
• in VMC stay VMC and land at the most suitable airport
• in IMC or incertain to stay VMC
If no clearance proceed with the last clearance and climb to FL
• if if clearance been given maintain for 3 minutes or hold for 3 minutes then proceed to the last clearance
• of receiving ATS climb to MSA/LSALT and maintain vector for 2 minutes then proceed with last clearance
• if holding fly one more pattern then proceed with clearance

37
Q

Radio failure at destination

A

• Track to the destination as flight plan amended by the last clearance
• Commence descent with the standard ops procedure or flight plan
•Commence descent in accordance with the most suitable approach aid
• Carry out the approach to the minima

38
Q

Communication failure and actions at minima?

A

•if visual continue to land if safe and if in control land if clear to do so
• if not visual depart for a suitable airport
•if not enough fuel for divert hold and carry out additional approaches
• if specific procedures for the airport follow them

39
Q

Aeroplane performance to add for MTOW of 2000kg or less aircraft

A

• Take off 1.15
• Landing 1.15

40
Q

Transponder codes for VFR OCTA, IFR OCTA and CTA

A

• VFR class E or OCTA 1200
• IFR OCTA 2000
• VFR in class E or CTA 3000

41
Q

VHF theoretical maximum range

A

d = 1.23 (square root (Htx)+ square root (Hrx))
d = distance
Htx = elevation in feet of transmitter
Hrx = height in feet above ground level of receiver

42
Q

Light signal to the aircraft in flight
• Steady green
• Steady red
• Green flashes
• Red flashes

A

• Steady green : Authorised to land if pilot satisfied
• Steady red : Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
• Green flashes : Return for landing
• Red flashes : Airport unsafe do not land

43
Q

Light signal to aircraft on the ground

• Steady green
• Steady red
• Green flashes
• Red flashes
• White flashes

A

• Steady green : Authorised to take off if pilot satisfied
• Steady red : Stop
• Green flashes : Authorised to taxi if pilot satisfied
• Red flashed : Taxi clear of landing area
• White flashes : Return to starting point

44
Q

Acknowledge light signals to aircraft in flight and on the ground?

A

• In flight: by rocking the wings
By night flashing on and off landing lights or nav lights twice
• On the ground: by moving the aircraft’s ailerons and rudders
By night flashing landing lights or nav lights on and off twice

45
Q

Fuel requirements MTOW below or equal 5700Kg final reserve?
• Day VFR
•Night VFR
• IFR

A

Day VFR 30 minutes
Night VFR 45 minutes
IFR 45 minutes

46
Q

Fuel requirements final reserve for turboprop

A

IFR or VFR 30 minutes

47
Q

Altimeter checks IFR

A

• whenever accurate QNH is available and before take off
• accurate QNH within 60Ft if +/- 75Ft altimeter is unserviceable
When 2 altimeters one of them needs to be in the 60Ft when the error is between 60Ft and 75th we can recheck if still in excess of 60Ft it’s unserviceable. If just one is required flight can goes on but altimeter need to be placards and MR release.

48
Q

Altimeter check for VFR

A

Within 100Ft
If 2 the unserviceable needs to be placards and MR released

49
Q

When is a QNH accurate?

A

When from an ATIS, tower or AWIS
Area QNH is NOT

50
Q

En route QNH setting

A

Below 10 000Ft : local QNH or area QNH
Above 10 000Ft 1013.2 and set new QNH before descending

51
Q

Navigation requirements are to navigate by in flight?

A

• an approved navigation system that meet performance requirements of airspace and route or
• use a radio nav system with allowance tracking errors of +/- 9 degrees from the last positive fix with maximum of 2 hours
• VMC reference when radio nav aids are not available

52
Q

Maximum deviation for
• NDB
• VOR
• RNP/RNAV
• DME
• Visual

A

• NDB : +/- 5 degrees
• VOR : Half scale deflection
• RNP/RNAV : Outside the prescribed value
• DME : +/- 2 NM
• Visual : 1NM

53
Q

Other name for sector entry 1

A

Parallel

54
Q

Other name for sector entry 2

A

Offset or teardrop

55
Q

Other name for sector entry 3

A

Direct entry

56
Q

What is the speed, turns, wind allowance and time limitation for holding up to and including at FL 140?

A

•230 KIAS and 170 KIAS when limited to Cat A and B only
• 1 minute outbound or the distance limited on the chart
• Turn max 25 degrees or rate one
• wind allowance that get compensated before passing the fix inbound

57
Q

What are instruments approaches for a 2D?

A

NDB
VOR
DME or GNSS arrival procedure
RNP APCH LNAV and RNP APCH LP
LLZ

58
Q

What are instruments approaches for a 3D?

A

ILS
MLS
GLS
RNP-LNAV/VNAV (baro)
RNP-LPV

59
Q

Azimuth instruments approaches are?

A

NDB
DME or GNSS Arrival procedure with ADF

60
Q

What instruments are CDI?

A

ILS
LLZ
RNP APRCH LNAV and RNP APCH LP
RNP- LNAV/VNAV (Baro)
RNP-LPV
VOR
DME/GNSS arrival procedure (with CDI)

61
Q

When and how to set QNH and minima for the approach?

A

Before the IAF
•If actual QNH TAF or AWIS less than 15 minutes and minima is shaded reduce them by 100Ft
•when area forecast is use increased minima by 50Ft

62
Q

What is Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM)?

A

They are publish in approach as MDA/H or DA/H
Operators must establish their AOM for each Aerodrome used depending on type, performance and handling of the aeroplane.
Composition, experience and competence of the flight crew.
The means used to determine and report meteorological conditions

63
Q

For aircraft that have air traffic control and with RVR report for what is the minima rule for IFR?

A

Must not descend below 1000Ft AAL where TDZ RVR or RVR is report by ATC les than the landing minima of the IAP but may continue if already below 1000ft AAL when information is received

64
Q

When can we fly below the lowest safe?

A

TVIVC
Take off or landing
Visual approach or departure
Instrument approach or departure
ATC clearance
VMC by day

65
Q

When can we descend below the straight in MDA or DA

A

VMC
Visual reference can be maintained
Minima requirements adhered to
Continuously in position where a landing can be made with normal rate of descent and manoeuvres

66
Q

When/where can we circle?

A

“VMC, Day Obstacle, Night MDA”
•Visibility along flight not less than circling minima
•Maintain visual contact with landing environment
• Inside circling area
• By day not below obstacle clearance
• By night not below MDA until downwind, base or final

Not in “no circling area in IMC or night
And study of topographic map for obstacles

67
Q

Circling area and obstacle clearance for Cat A?

A

1.68 NM
300 ft

68
Q

Circling area and obstacle clearance for Cat B

A

2.66 NM
300ft

69
Q

Cat B aircraft Vat between 91/120 Kts (C310, C208, Duchess)
•Initial and intermediate speed
• Final approach speed
• Max circling speed
• Max missed approach speed

A

•Initial and intermediate speed120-180 (140 reversal)
• Final approach speed 85-130
• Max circling speed 135
• Max missed approach speed 150

70
Q

Flight test tolerance for 2D

A

+/- 5 degrees with azimuth
+/- 1/2 scale with CDI
Within RnP published mini altitude
+/- 2NM of DME or GNSS

71
Q

Flight test tolerance for 3D for lateral path

A

+/- 5 degrees with azimuth
+/- 1/2 scale with CDI
Within RnP published mini altitude
+/- 2NM of DME or GNSS

72
Q

Flight test tolerance for 3D for vertical path

A

+/- 1/2 scale or +/- 75Ft for RNP baro nav or RNP LPV

73
Q

Flight test minimum altitude tolerance

A

+100ft -0ft
Missed approach initiated not below DA

74
Q

What does “cleared DME arrival” authorised?

A

Cleared to descend to minimum altitude on the arrival procedure.
You must not orbit, enter an holding pattern or use holding pattern procedures.

75
Q

Visual approach issued by ATC by day may be issued when?

A

• Within 30NM
• Continuous visual reference to the ground or water
• Vis 5000M

76
Q

Visual approach issued by ATC at night May be issued when?

A

• Within 30NM
• Continuous visual reference to the ground or water
• Vis 5000M
• If being vectored, assigned MVA and given heading or tracking instructions to intercept final or to a position within the circling area

77
Q

Visual approach By the pilot by day can commence when?i

A

•Within 30 NM
• Clear of cloud
• In sight of ground or water
• Vis 5000M
Maintain
• In CTA 500ft above lower limit of CTA unless clearance to depart or re enter CTA
• LSALT/MSA DGA step or last assigned altitude if being vectored
Maintain track/heading on the route authorised until
• Within the circling area or
• Within 3NM and AD in sight if no IAP or not authorised to use IAP or if VFR
Until
• 5 NM on PAPI or
• 7 NM on PAPI (ILS RWY) or
• 10NM on glidslope or
• 14 NM YSSY 16L and 34L not below GS and less than a full scale

78
Q

Visual approach By the pilot by night can commence when?

A

• Clear of cloud
• In sight of ground or water
• Vis 5000M or AD in sight
Maintain
• In CTA 500ft above lower limit of CTA unless clearance to depart or re enter CTA
• Not below the Lower safe
Maintain track/heading on the route authorised until
Within 5NM

79
Q

What are the landing minim for RNP APCH LNAV/VNAV or precision approach?

A

not below highest
• The RVR of the approach
• Relevant minima specified in the AFM
• minima specified by the operator
• 800m but only if TDZ RVR not available or the lighting system beyond 420m is inop
• 1200m only if can be fly with the a flight director, a HUD or an autopilot or the aircraft has an operative failure warning system for altitude and heading or high intensity runway light inop or lighting beyond 210m is inop
• 1500m if approach light inop
• 1.5 the RVR or visibility on the IAP if lighting failure on runway or double spacing of the runway edge light.

80
Q

What are the minimum altitude and visibility for a circling approach?

A

• minima from the IAP
• minima specified by the AFM Aircraft flight manual
• minima specified by the operator

81
Q

When should we do a missed approach?

A

So Not Visual ROFL
• Straight in landing can’t be performed without circling at weather equal or better than circling minima
• Not visual at DA/RA height or MAPT
• RAIM Warning or lost of RAIM after the AIF
• Outside of tolerance during the final segment
• Failure of aid or suspect failure and below MSA
• Lost of visual during circling

82
Q

How do you calculate PNR

A

PNR= (endurance x GSout x GShome)/ (GSout + GShome)

83
Q

How do you calculate CP?

A

CP= (Total distance x GS home)/ (GS out + GS home)

IPC Elodie (1 decks)

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