IPC Flashcards

1
Q

Validity of an Instrument Proficiency Check

A

An instrument proficiency check is valid:
• From the period the holder passes the flight test to the end of the 12th month after the month in which the holder passes the flight test.
or
• For the period during which the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s training and checking system for an IFR operation in the relevant aircraft.

Remember: the 3 month bonus.

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2
Q

Privileges and Limitations of an Instrument Rating

A

the holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft:

(a) under the IFR; or
(b) at night under the VFR.

The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to:
• conduct an instrument approach only if the aircraft is equipped for that kind of operation;

• pilot an aircraft in a single-pilot operation under the IFR only if, at some time in the past, the holder has passed an instrument rating flight test in a single-pilot aircraft or has completed an instrument proficiency check in a single-pilot aircraft;

• conduct a circling approach under the IFR only if:
o the holder passed the instrument rating flight test within the previous 12 months and that flight test included a circling approach; or
o the holder’s most recent instrument proficiency check (or operator’s proficiency check that covers IFR operations and is conducted by a flight examiner who holds an instrument rating flight test endorsement) included a circling approach; or
o the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s training and checking system for an operation that includes circling approaches;

• conduct an instrument approach only if the holder has completed training in the conduct of that instrument approach and has demonstrated competence to CASA or an examiner.

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3
Q

Recent Experience Requirements

A

Fly under IFR: 3 app in the last 90 days
2D: 1 in the last 90 day
3D: 1 in the last 90 days
Azi: 1 in the last 90 days
CDI: 1 in the last 90 days
Pilot an a/c of a particular category: conduct 1 app in an aircraft of that particular category in the last 90 days and a flight under ifr of atleast an hour.

The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft under the IFR in a single-pilot operation only if the holder has conducted a flight or simulated flight under the IFR in a single-pilot operation within the previous 6 months.

(2) For subregulation (1), the flight or simulated flight must:
(a) have a duration of at least one hour; and
(b) include at least one instrument approach or simulated instrument approach

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4
Q

Aircraft Equipment

A
Approved GNSS 
AI 1 
ASI 2 3 
ALT 3 
VSI 3 
T+S 4 5 
DG 6 
Compass 
OAT 
Clock 7

1 Primary and alternate power supply unless independent of T+S or a second AI required
2 Pitot heat required on at least one ASI
3 With alternate static source or a balanced pair of flush static ports
4 Slip only if a second AI is available
5 Primary and alternate power supply unless independent of other gyroscopic instruments or a second AI required
6 Primary and alternate power supply unless independent of T+S or a second AI required
7 Can be worn

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5
Q

Altiude alerting system and assigned altitude indicator

A

1) For an IFR flight, the following aircraft must be fitted with altitude alerting equipment in accordance with subsection (2):
a) a piston-engine aircraft operating in controlled airspace above FL 150;
b) an unpressurised turbine-engine aircraft operating in controlled airspace above FL 150;
c) a pressurised turbine-engine aircraft operating in any controlled airspace.
2) For subsection (1), the altitude alerting equipment must:
a) include an assigned altitude indicator; and
b) alert the flight crew members if the aircraft approaches a preselected altitude; and
c) alert the flight crew members, including by an aural warning, if the aircraft deviates from a preselected altitude.
3) If an aircraft, other than an aircraft to which subsection (1) applies, is operating under the IFR in controlled airspace, the aircraft must be fitted with altitude alerting equipment that at least includes an assigned altitude indicator.

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6
Q

Flight with inoperative equipment

A

1) Subject to subsection (2), an aircraft may begin a flight with equipment that is inoperative, despite a requirement under this Chapter that equipment must be fitted to, or carried on, the aircraft for the flight.
2) Subsection (1) only applies if the aircraft is operated:
a) in accordance with the MEL for the aircraft for the flight; or
b) if the equipment is inoperative because of a defect that has been approved as a permissible unserviceability for the aircraft for the flight in accordance with regulation 21.007 of CASR — in accordance with the permissible unserviceability.

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7
Q

Aircraft Lighting

A

Cockpit and cabin lighting (checklist/chart light, dimmer, panel light, overhead light, cabin lights (emergency exit))

Anti-collision lights ( 1 red or 2 white or a combination of both)

Landing lights (atleast 1) - 2 landing lights or 1 with 2 independent and separate energized illumination sources.

Navigation lights

Portable light (torch for pilots)

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8
Q

VMC Criteria

A
Glass G:
5000m Vis,
8000m vis(above 10,000ft)
1000ft Vertical sep (above and below),
1500m Horizontal sep

When below 3000FT AMSL or 1000 AGL, can remain clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water if radio carried and used on appropriate frequency

Class C:
5000m Vis 
8000m vis (above 10,000ft)
1500m horizontal sep,
1000ft vertical above and below sep,
Class E:
5000m Vis 
8000m vis (above 10,000ft)
1500m horizontal sep,
1000ft vertical above and below sep,
Class D:
5000m Vis,
600m horizontal sep
1000ft above sep
500ft below sep,
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9
Q

Fuel Reserve Requirements

A

MTOW ≤ 5700 kg:
Day VFR: 30 min fixed reserve
Night VFR: 45 min fixed reserve
IFR: 45 min fixed reserve

Turbojet or > 5700 kg turboprop
IFR or VFR: 30 min fixed. 5% variable (contingency)

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10
Q

Alternate Requirements

A

Alternates Could Very Well Prove Life Savers

Aids:

destination alternate aerodrome must be planned for an IFR flight by night to a planned destination aerodrome that is:

a) not served by an instrument approach procedure; or
b) is served by 1 or more instrument approach procedures, none of which the pilot is able to conduct.

For IFR flights, the alternate minima are as follows:
a. For aerodromes with an instrument approach procedure that the pilot is able to conduct, the alternate minima published on the chart

b. By day only – for aerodromes without an instrument approach procedure, or that has an instrument approach procedure but the pilot is unable to conduct that procedure, the alternate minima is the lowest safe altitude for the final route segment plus 500FT and a visibility of 8KM.

Night VFR aircraft must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome within one hour flight time of the destination unless:

a. the destination is served by a radio navigation aid (NDB/VOR) and the aircraft is fitted with the appropriate radio navigation system capable of using the aid, and the pilot is competent in using the aid, or
b. the aircraft is fitted with an approved GNSS, as defined in the relevant MOS for the kind of operation being conducted), and the pilot is competent in using the GNSS.

Clouds, Visibility and Wind
Except when operating an aircraft under the VFR by day within 50NM of the point of departure, the pilot in command must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome when arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to 30 minutes prior to the forecast commencement of, the following weather conditions:
cloud - more than SCT below the alternate minimum (see AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.7.2.10 and Para 10.7.2.11 (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.2.10 and 3.2.11));
or
visibility - less than the alternate minimum; or

visibility - greater than the alternate minimum, but the forecast is endorsed with at least a 30% percentage probability of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon restricting visibility below the alternate minimum;

or wind - a crosswind or tailwind component more than the maximum for the aircraft.

Provided and PROB

When an aerodrome forecast is not available, the pilot in command must make provision for a suitable alternate that has an available forecast.

If a TAF has been endorsed with a probability of conditions being below the alternate minima, an alternate must be planned for.

Lighting

When aerodrome lighting is required and PAL is not being used, the pilot in command or operator must ensure that arrangements have been made for the lighting to be operating during the following periods:

a. departure: 10 minutes before departure to at least 30 minutes after take-off;
b. arrival: from at least 30 minutes before ETA to the time landing and taxiing has been completed.

Portable
When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome where the runway lighting is portable, provision must be made for flight to an alternate aerodrome unless arrangements are made for a responsible person to be in attendance during the period specified (AIP)

If No Standby Power Available

When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome with electric runway lighting, whether pilot activated or otherwise, but without standby power, provision must be made for flight to an alternate aerodrome unless portable runway lights are available and arrangements have been made for a responsible person to be in attendance during the period specified in AIP ENR 1.1 Para 10.8.1.1 (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 2.1), to display the portable lights in the event of a failure of the primary lighting.

Alternate aerodrome need not have standby power in this case.

Pilot Activated Lighting
When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome with PAL and standby power, provision must be made for a flight to an alternate aerodrome equipped with runway lighting unless a responsible person is in attendance to manually switch on the aerodrome lighting.

Lighting Systems for Alternate Aerodrome
An aerodrome served by PAL may be nominated as an alternate aerodrome. There is no requirement for a responsible person to be in attendance, but the aircraft must be equipped with:
a. dual VHF; or
b. single VHF and HF and carries 30 minutes holding fuel to allow for the alerting of ground staff in the event of a failure of the aircraft’s VHF communication.

Storms

The pilot in command must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome when arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to 30 minutes prior to the forecast commencement of, the following weather conditions:
d. a thunderstorm or associated severe turbulence, or a forecast of at least a 30% probability of such an event;

Additional holding fuel or an alt is req in association with TS and associated met phenomenon.
Inter: 30 min holding fuel or alt
Tempo: 60 min holding fuel or alt

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11
Q

Altimeter Checks

A

2 Altimeters:
Check within 60ft of marked height. if in excess of 75ft altimeter is U/S for IFR ops.

one of the altimeters must read the nominated elevation to within 60 ft. When the remaining altimeter has an error between 60 ft and 75 ft, flight under the IFR to the first point of landing, where the accuracy of the altimeter can be re-checked, is approved. In the event that the altimeter shows an error in excess of 60 ft on the second check, the altimeter must be considered unserviceable for flight under the IFR.

Single:
When an aircraft is fitted with only one altimeter and that altimeter has an error between 60 ft and 75 ft, flight under the IFR to the first point of landing, where the accuracy of the altimeter can be re-checked, is approved. In the event that the altimeter shows an error in excess of 60 ft on the second check the altimeter is to be considered unserviceable for flight under the IFR.

VFR:

100ft of test point altitude (110ft at aerodromes above 3300ft) anything more than 100ft(110ft) is considered u/s

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12
Q

Take-off Minima

A

conducted using a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane

The take-off minima are:

a) a cloud ceiling of 300 ft; and
b) visibility of 2 000 m

A pilot in command must not commence a take-off if, at the time of take-off:

a) the meteorological conditions are less than the take-off minima for the aircraft; or
b) the meteorological conditions that would exist if it were necessary to return to land at the departure aerodrome because of engine failure, are not:
(i) at or above the landing minima for any IAP that the pilot in command is able to conduct at the aerodrome; or
(ii) such as to allow a visual approach for the return to land.

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13
Q

Navigation Requirements Under the IFR

A

An aircraft operating under the IFR must be navigated by:

a. an approved area navigation system that meets performance requirements of the intended airspace or route; or
b. use of a radio navigation system or systems where, after making allowance for tracking errors of ± 9° from the last positive fix, the aircraft will come within the rated coverage of a radio aid which can be used as a fix. The maximum time interval between fixes must not exceed two hours; or
c. visual reference to the ground or water by day, on route segments where suitable enroute radio navigation aids are not available, provided that weather conditions permit flight in VMC and the visual position fixing requirements

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14
Q

Holding (Sector Enties)

A

Sector 1: Parallel
Sector 2: Teardrop (30 degree offset)
Sector 3: Direct

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15
Q

Flying (decent) Below Lowest Safe Altitude

A

“V I V A T”
Visual approach or departure
Instrument approach or departure
VMC by day
ATC clearance
Take-off or landing

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16
Q

Circling Approaches and Visual Circling

Decent below circling minima

A

“VMC, Day Obstacle, Night MDA”

Visibility along flight not less than specified for circling
Maintain visual contact with landing environment
Inside circling area (2.66nm for cat B)
By day not below obstacle clearance(300ft cat b)
By night not below MDA until downwind, base or final

Maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment (i.e., the runway threshold or approach lighting or other markings identifiable with the runway); and either
• By day:
While complying with a), b) and c), maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path and an obstacle clearance not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway; or
• By day and night:
While from a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg, complete a continuous descent from MDA to the threshold using rates of descent and manoeuvres normal to the aircraft type.

17
Q

Can you circle in ‘no circling areas’ as designated on charts?

A

Visual circling is prohibited in ‘no circling’ sectors by day in less than VMC and at night.

If VMC exists and visual reference by DAY ONLY is maintained, then you may circle if it is safe to do so.

18
Q

Approach Speeds

A
Cat B: 
Vat: 91-120kt
Initial app speed: 120-180 (140kt for reversal procedure)
Final: 85-130kt
Circling: 135kt (max)
missed: 150kt (max)
Cat C:
Vat: 121-140kt
initial app speed: 160-240kt
Final: 115-160 kt
Circling: 180kt
missed: 240kt
19
Q

Instrument Approach Tolerances – Flight Tests

A
2D APP:
azimath: +-5 degrees
CDI: 1/2 scale
with RNP value specified for min alt
\+-2nm of DME or GNSS arc

3D:
1/2 scale deflection
Minimal: +100ft -0ft

20
Q

Missed Approaches

When must you go missed?

A

SO NOT VERY ROFL

Straight in landing can not be affected unless a circling approach can be conducted and the weather is suitable for the circle

Not visual at the DA/DH, MAPt,

Raim warning or outage/loss

Outside tolerance for approach

Failure of an aid

Lost visual reference while circling

21
Q

Descent Below the Straight-in MDA or DA

A

“vmc”

Visual reference can be maintained

Minima requirements adhered to

Continuously in a position where a landing can be made with normal rates of descent and manoeuvres for a landing in the touch down zone.

22
Q

Speed Definitions VMCA

A

Minimum Control Speed, air (red radial)

  • critical engine inoperative
  • live engine at take-off power
  • landing gear retracted
  • maximum of 5 degrees bank towards live engine
  • propeller feathered (only for aircraft with automatic feathering devices)
23
Q

Speed Definitions VMCG

A

Minimum Control Speed, ground
- critical engine inoperative
- live engine at take-off power
The minimum speed, whilst on the ground, at which it is possible to maintain directional using only aerodynamic controls.

24
Q

Speed Definitions VYSE

A

Single Engine Best Rate of Climb Speed (blue radial)
- critical engine inoperative
- live engine at take-off power
- landing gear retracted
The speed at which the best rate of climb can be achieved with the critical engine inoperative.

25
Q

Deviations in Controlled Airspace

A
Tolerance
 NDB ± 5° 
VOR Half-scale deflection 
RNP/RNAV Outside the prescribed RNP/RNAV value DME ± 2 NM 
VISUAL 1 NM
26
Q

Holding Limitations

A

Up to and inc. FL140 = 230kt (170kt where hold is limited to cat a & b)

27
Q

Setting QNH Before IAF ?

A

Prior to passing the IAF, pilots are required to set either:

(a) the actual aerodrome QNH from an approved source, or
(b) the Forecast Aerodrome (TAF) QNH, or
(c) the forecast area QNH

An actual aerodrome QNH obtained from an approved source is valid for a period of 15 minutes from the time of receipt.
Where the forecast area QNH is used, the minima used must be increased by 50FT.

28
Q

Landing climb performance

A

In the landing configuration with all engines operating at take-off power an aeroplane must have the ability to climb at a gradient of 3.2% in standard atmospheric conditions at a speed not exceeding 1.3VS.

29
Q

Special Alternate Minima

A

Special alternate weather minima are available for specified approaches at some airports for use by aircraft with dual ILS/VOR approach capability. Dual ILS/VOR approach capability must include:

a. duplicated LOC; and
b. duplicated GP; and
c. duplicated VOR; and
d. either:
(i) duplicated DME; or
(ii) duplicated GNSS; or
(iii) single DME and single GNSS.

Not available without a METAR and outside Tower hours.

30
Q

Approach Ban for IFR Flights

A

For an aircraft conducting an IAP at an aerodrome:
• that has an air traffic control service in operation; and
• for which RVR reports are available for IAPs to the relevant runway PIC must not descend below 1,000 feet AAL where the TDZ RVR (for other than low-visibility operations) or controlling zone RVR (for low-visibility operations) is reported by ATC as continually less than the landing minima for the IAP

Despite the above, the PIC may continue the IAP if already below 1,000 feet AAL when this information is received.