Investments Flashcards
You have a required rate of return of 20% . You want to invest in a stock paying an annual dividend of .64 and is projected to increase its earnings and dividends by 17% annually, Current market price is 36.50. What is the intrinsic value of the stock per share?
24.96
V=D(1+g)/(r-g)
(.64 *1.17)/(.20-.17)
Using the constant growth dividend valuation model. What is the intrinsic value of a stock that pays a dividend this year of $2, and is expected to growth at 6%. The beta is 1.5, the risk free rate is 3% and the market return is 12%
20.19
Must use CAPM to calc the required return of the investor
R=Rf+b(Rm-Rf)
Take that and throw it into your dividend growth model as the required return.
What is a firm commitment?
The investment banker has an agreement to purchase the entire issue and resell to the public. In a firm commitment, the issuing corp does not bear the risks if an entire issue is not marketed.
I got this one wrong because the other answer was “banker agrees to sell a minimum number of share before the offering close date” This is not a firm commitment it is actually the best effort agreement!
You bought a stock at the minimum margin, when the stock was trading at $10. The stock paid quarterly dividends of $.25. Holly held the stock for one year and sold the stock when it was trading at $11. What was Holly’s holding period return?
Answer is 40%
So as soon as you see minimum margin you should think 50% of the purchase must be covered by you b4 borrowing.
HPR = Selling-Purchase +/- cash flow/purchase
The biggest thing to remember is that the numerator includes the full amount of the purchase. Meaning, you need to include the $5 you paid in cash and $5 that you borrowed (also remember that your cash flows would include margin interest but that’s not in this problem). For the denominator you only use the equity portion of the purchase so (10 *.05). Dalton views this as the out of pocket purchase price vs the total purchase price
Describe the the listed biases:
Affect Heuristic
Anchoring
Availability Heuristic
- Is soley based on ones judgement of the company but does not account for the financials. It’s their view on if the company is good or bad.
- Your thought/view is attached to one concept no matter what logical discussion you have, the investor will stick to their belief because of 1 fact.
- As it says in the name, this is your attachment to an idea based on what information is readily available for you. If you receive an update from morningbrew your will base your decisions on that instead of confirming from other sources.
Which of the following option strategies would be considered the most risk?
Buying a call.
Buying a put.
Selling a covered call.
Selling a put.
Put the answers in this one to see if I make the same mistake. What just clicked is the fact that a covered call is a security that the investor already owns. This offsets the loss associated with it.
The correct answer is selling a put because of the options given the stock could fall to 0. Compared to just buy/selling a put/call you are just dealing with premiums.
Define the characteristics of a muni bond investment trust
Because its a UIT new securities cannot be added once the trust is established. That also means that shares are not purchased or sold (also not called shares they are units!). Lastly, the trust is self liquidating
Robin purchased a mutual fund at NAV of $20.00 and sold it 8 months later at $21.00. During the time he owned the fund, he received a LTCG of $1.00/share and a qualified dividend distribution of $.75/share from the mutual fund. He has a marginal tax rate of 32%. The tax on LTCG is 15%. What is his after-tax holding period return?
- 84%
- 5%
- 8%
- 3%
I don’t full understand this one yet just looking at the formula
Since this is a ST holding period, it’s ordinary income at the marginal tax rate for the price increase. Since the dividend distribution is a qualified dividend, it receives capital gians tax treatment.
HPR = (SP - PP +/- CF) × (1-TR) / PP
[($21.00 - $20.00) × (1 - .32)] + [($1.00 + $.75) × (1 - .15)] / $20.00
Answer: 10.84%
(remember to follow order of operations: Parenthesis, exponents, multiplication, division, addition, subtraction)
Based on Subchapter M or pipeline theory, investment companies must payout at least 90% of their portfolio earnings. If a mutual fund sells a position they hold at a gain, it passes the gain, like-kind, to its investors.
What is a Mortgage REITs?
Instead of equity REITS that would receive its income from the property itself, Mortgage REITs are more volatile bc they invest and receive monthly income from investing in real estate loans
Jan Grimlaw is interested in purchasing a municipal bond that pays $35 interest on a semi-annual basis. The bond is selling at par of $1,000 and Jan is in the 28% marginal tax bracket. She would like to know what pre-tax yield she would need to receive to have a comparable corporate bond investment.
9.72%
Tax exempt Rate/(1-marginal tax rate)
Calc muni bonds coupon for the tax exempt rate
Which shares are repurchased by the corporation?
They are treasury shares!
Another type of share are authorized, they have be unissued or outstanding but not repurchased
Gabby, a CFP® professional, is working with Debby, a retiree. Debby has a concentrated position in a highly appreciated growth stock, which makes up the majority of her assets. Debby requires income from her portfolio but is hesitant to sell her stock position. Which of the following strategies should Gabby recommend that would provide the least amount of risk to the retiree?
Sell a covered call on the stock option. This will generate income for because it’s a strategy using the shares
A stock that has produced superior earnings and rates of return but has gone mostly unnoticed by securities analysts and is often considered underpriced is said to benefit from the:
The neglected firm effect is one of the market anomalies. This anomaly is said to exist because the security in question is allowed greater potential for movement as a result of the lack of scrutiny by analysts.
An investor buys a share of stock for $50. At the end of the first year, he purchases a second share for $55. At the end of the second year, the stock is worth $62 per share and the investor sells both shares. (The investor received a cash dividend of $2 per share each year.) What is the time-weighted return on this investment?
15.2%,
Need to remember that time weighted only cares about the security not the investor.
So for this we have our initial purchase
Cf (50)
Cf (2)
Cf (64) due to the dividend you need to add.
IRR=
Again, we don’t care how many shares because this is the time weighted so we just add the 1 $2 dividend
Bristol-Buyers Company has a market price of $36.00 per share with earnings of $3.00 per share, a beta of 1.1 and a dividend of $1.20, which means a dividend payout ratio of 40%. Earnings for next year are projected to increase by 25%, and the retention ratio is projected to remain at 60%. Using the price/earnings multiplier, to what level might your client expect to see market prices move in a year?
The $36.00 per share price is divided by the $3.00 earnings per share resulting in a price/earnings multiplier of 12. The increase of earnings by 25% results in a projected earnings of $3.75 next year. This new earnings times the P/E multiplier of 12 (assuming the P/E ratio remains constant) results in a price of $45.00. The dividend information provided is unnecessary in answering the question.
Specific companies are researched and chosen as investments based on their outstanding investment possibilities by analysts who practice:
I’ll give you a hint it’s either bottom or top but you need to tell me why
So the answer is the bottom up. That’s because the bottom starts from the company itself, takes it out into the industry, and finally the economic climate.
The reason bottom up is the answer is bc analysts use this to find that next big stock that no one knows about yet
The form of technical analysis that utilizes Advances and Declines (also known as Breadth of the Market) as an indicator is known as:
You dummy, how many times have you seen this in trading?? It’s the price indicator! Advances and Declines are all about the price.
Volume indicates the number of shares being traded
Which one of the following statements correctly matches a technical indicator to the information it provides to signal a bear market?
Odd lot theory indicates that the ratio of odd lot purchases to odd lot sales has been falling.
Dow theory confirmation after the fact not predictive indicates that there is a decline in both the Dow Jones Industrial Average and Dow Jones Utility Average.
A moving average chart indicates that actual prices have dropped through the moving 200 day average line.
Barron’s Confidence Index indicates that the yield differential between municipal bonds and corporate bonds is increasing
Choice “A” - Odd lot purchase levels indicate the number of small investors in the market. Odd lot theory says that small investors are always wrong. If odd lot purchases are falling relative to odd lot sales, it indicates the little guy thinks the market will fall. Since the little guy is always wrong, this would indicate a rally is coming, not a bear market. Choice “B” - The Dow Theory deals in three levels of market activity over time. Choice “D” - Barron’s does not have a confidence index.
Tell me which 2 belong to bottom up equity managers and the other 2 are top down
Group rotation managers.
Value managers.
Market timers.
Technicians.
So group and market times are top down
Value and technicians are bottom down