Investment Planning Flashcards
An investor who would like to know how a portfolio manager performed relative to how the manager was expected to perform on a risk-adjusted basis would use which one of the following indicators?
A.Sharpe index.
B.Jensen index.
C.Treynor index.
D.Sharpe and Treynor.
Solution: The correct answer is B.
To compare a portfolio manager’s performance to that of the market using Sharpe or Treynor models, one must calculate the results of both of these models on other portfolios or on a market being used as a benchmark, as well as the portfolio in question.
Kimberly Thurman is a private investor who researches individual stock purchases thoroughly. She studies company annual reports and 10k reports, computes comparative financial ratios from the reports, and compares company financial information to industry statistics to find undervalued stocks. Kim believes in:
A.The weak form of the efficient market hypothesis.
B.The neglected firm effect.
C.The random walk hypothesis.
D.The semi-strong form of the efficient market hypothesis.
Solution: The correct answer is A.
Kimberly believes fundamental analysis will help her achieve above average market returns. The weak form of the EMH states that “the current price of a security reflects all historical information available on that security and does not reject fundamental analysis.”
A client has bought a stock for $40 per share. At the end of the first year, she purchases another share at $43 per share. At the end of the second year with the share price of $48, she sells her shares. Along the way, at the end of each year, she received a $2 per share dividend. What is the time-weighted return on her investment?
A.9.53%
B.13.5%
C.14.3%
D.16.6%
Solution: The correct answer is C.
This is simply an uneven cash flow problem.
CF0 = <$40>
CF1 = $2
CF2 = $50
IRR = 14.33%
Note: Since this is a time weighted return, we are only concerned about the security’s cash flow. Therefore, we ignore the second purchase at $43 per share.
After examining several funds and calculating the correlation coefficient relative to the client’s existing portfolio, when do diversification benefits begin?
A.When correlation < 1.
B.When correlation = 0.
C.When correlation = -1.
D.When correlation = 1.
Solution: The correct answer is A.
Diversification benefits begin anytime correlation is something less than 1.
The Federal Reserve is currently tightening the money supply. As the treasurer and CFO of your company, which of the following best describes the hedge position that you should undertake and the reason for taking it to protect your company’s long-term bond inventory.
A.A short position to hedge against increases in bond prices.
B.A long position to hedge against increases in bond prices.
C.A short position to hedge against decreases in bond prices.
D.A long position to hedge against decreases in bond prices.
Solution: The correct answer is C.
You own a long position on the bonds. A tightening of money will cause a rise in the interest rates, thus exposing your bonds to a loss in value when bond prices decrease as a result. You should undertake a short (sell) position in interest rate futures to protect your position.
asmine has a large paper profit in her Amalgamated Corporation shares, currently at $46 per share. She is happy with the stock, but realizes that a good thing CANNOT go on forever. She bought the stock so inexpensively that she is not worried about the downside. If she is willing to sell at $50, what strategy could you recommend to her?
A.Buy $50 call options.
B.Sell $50 call options.
C.Buy $50 put options.
D.Sell $50 put options.
Solution: The correct answer is B.
She gains the premium from selling the call, and if the price rises, at or above the strike price of $50, her stock will be called away at $50. “C” would be a good choice, but she is not worried about the downside risk.
What is the standard deviation of a stock with the following returns?
Year Return
1 5.75%
2 12.23%
3 11.16%
4 <3.94%>
5 9.37%
A.6.55%
B.6.91%
C.9.37%
D.10.16%
Solution: The correct answer is A.
6.5476
You have to input the info into data, then hit the stat button and scroll until you see Sx
Which of the following best describes the fees charged based on the average daily fund assets and used principally to meet marketing expenses are called:
A.Front-end load.
B.12b-1 fees.
C.Back-end load.
D.Deferred sales charge.
Solution: The correct answer is B.
The above statement describes 12b-1 fees.
You are faced with several fixed income investment options. Which of these bonds has the greatest interest rate risk?
A.A U.S. Treasury bond with an 11.625% coupon, due in five years with a price of $1,225.39 and a yield to maturity of 6.3%.
B.A U.S. Treasury strip bond (zero-coupon) due in five years with a price of $735.12 and a yield to maturity of 6.25%.
C.A corporate B-rated bond with a 9.75% coupon, due in five years with a price of $1,038.18 and a yield to maturity of 8.79%.
D.A U.S. T-bill selling for $950 due in six months.
Solution: The correct answer is B.
With the term being equal, the bond with the lowest coupon will have the biggest duration. The longer the duration, the more sensitive the bond price is to interest rate changes. Bond B has the lowest coupon, zero.
To immunize a bond portfolio over a specific investment horizon, an investor would do which of the following?
A.Match the maturity of each bond to the investment horizon.
B.Match the duration of each bond to the investment horizon.
C.Match the average weighted maturity of the portfolio to the investment horizon.
D.Match the average weighted duration of the bond portfolio to the investment horizon.
Solution: The correct answer is D.
Duration, not maturity is used to immunize a portfolio. The average weighted duration rather than the duration of each specific bond is used for successful portfolio immunization.
An investor with a required rate of return of 12.5% is looking at a stock that pays a $3.75 dividend per share, has a growth rate of 6%, and is selling in the market for $60 per share. What would you recommend?
A.Buy; it meets the buyer’s return requirements and is underpriced.
B.Buy; does not meet the buyer’s return requirements, but it is underpriced.
C.Do not buy; it does not meet the buyer’s return requirements and is overpriced.
D.Do not buy; it meets the buyer’s return requirements, but is overpriced.
Solution: The correct answer is A.
Use the intrinsic value formula and the expected rate of return formula to arrive at the correct solution for this problem.
(3.75 × 1.06) ÷ (.125-.06)
V = 3.975 ÷ .065
V = $61.1538; therefore, the stock is undervalued since it is trading at $60.
Rate of Return
3.975 ÷ 60 = .066
.066 + .06 = 12.6 > 12.5
Your client, Bill McGill, has asked you to help him to better understand the inner workings of three very different bonds that he owns by helping him to run some calculations with him. The descriptions of the three bonds are as follows:
Bond A: Price = $1,025; Par value = $1,000; Coupon rate = 8.75%; Years to Maturity = 5
Bond B: Price =$985; Par value = $1,000; Coupon rate = 7.95%; Years to Maturity = 4
Bond C: Price = $1,040; Par value = $1,000; Coupon rate = 9.15%; Years to Maturity = 3
Bill has asked you to please help him calculate the yield to maturity of each of his bonds. You have done this and arrived at the following:
A.Bond A = 8.08%; Bond B = 8.29%; Bond C = 7.51%
B.Bond A = 7.63%; Bond B = 8.78%; Bond C = 6.31%
C.Bond A = 8.13%; Bond B = 8.40%; Bond C = 7.64%
D.Bond A = 8.75%; Bond B = 7.95%; Bond C = 9.15%
Given the following diversified mutual fund performance data, which fund had the best risk-adjusted performance if the risk-free rate of return is 5.7%?
Fund A: Average rate of return = .0782, Standard deviation of annual return = .0760 and Beta = 0.950
Fund B: Average annual return = .1287, Standard deviation of annual return = .1575 and Beta = 1.250
Fund C: Average annual return = .1034, Standard deviation of annual return = .1874 and Beta = 0.857
Fund D: Average annual return = .0750, Standard deviation of annual return = .0810 and Beta = 0.300
A.Fund B, because the annual return is highest.
B.Fund C, because the Sharpe ratio is lowest.
C.Fund D, because the Treynor ratio is highest.
D.Fund A, because the Treynor ratio is lowest.
Solution: The correct answer is C.
Fund D .060
If a fund is diversified, use the Treynor model.
(Return - Risk free) / Beta
If it is a single stock, use the Sharpe model.
(Return - Risk free) / SD
The higher calculation is always better because it means more return for a given risk
Tip: to save time, start with funds with high returns and small values to divide by
What is the standard deviation of a portfolio invested 60% in stock “A” with a 15% return and a standard deviation of 17.5%, and the balance in stock “B” with an 18% return and a 16.75% standard deviation. There is a .29 correlation between the two securities.
A.16.2%
B.14.0%
C.13.05%
D.4.69%
Solution: The correct answer is B.
Step 1
(.6 * .6 * 17.5 * 17.5) sto in mem 1
Step 2
(.4 * .4 * 16.75 * 16.75) sto in mem 2
Step 3
(2 * .6 * .4 * 17.5 * 16.75 * .29) sto in mem 3
Step 4
mem 1 + mem 2 + mem 3
Step 4
Square root it √
= 13.99%
The ideal correlation for portfolio construction is:
A.+1
B.-1
C.0
D.+.17
Solution: The correct answer is B.
Graphically depicted, a correlation of negative one (-1) means that any two investments move exactly opposite from one another.
As a measure for risk, the Capital Market Line (CML) uses the:
A.Risk free rate of return.
B.Beta of the market.
C.Standard deviation of the market.
D.Portfolio weighted beta.
Solution: The correct answer is C.
The CML (Capital Market Line) uses standard deviation, while the SML (Security Market Line) uses the beta as its “risk” measurement.
Mutual fund XYZ has a beta of 1.5, standard deviation of 12% and a correlation to the S&P 500 of .80. How much return of fund XYZ is due to the S&P 500?
A.20%.
B.64%.
C.80%.
D.100%.
Solution: The correct answer is B.
.8 * .8 = .64
Correlation is .80, therefore r-squared is .64 (R-squared = correlation coefficient squared). Therefore 64% of mutual fund’s return is due to the S&P 500. Remember, r-squared measures the percentage of return due to the market.
Commercial Paper with a maturity greater than 270 days is prohibited under SEC regulations.
A.True
B.False
Solution: The correct answer is B.
Commercial paper is generally issued with maturities of 270 days or less. There are costly registration procedures required for securities over 270 days, but they are not prohibited.
Michael has an investment with the following annual returns for four years:
Year 1: 12%
Year 2: -5%
Year 3: 8%
Year 4: 18%
What is the arithmetic mean (AM) and what is the geometric mean (GM)?
A.AM = 8.25%, GM = 7.91%
B.AM = 8.25%, GM = 10.64%
C.AM = 10.75%, GM = 7.91%
D.AM = 10.75%, GM = 10.64%
Solution: The correct answer is A.
AM = (.12 -.05 + .08 + .18) / 4 = .0825 = 8.25%
GM = (1.12 × .95 × 1.08 × 1.18) ^ (1/4) - 1 × 100
GM = (1.356) ^ (1/4) - 1 × 100
GM = 7.91%
Tip: GM is always lower than AM so you can quickly eliminate some answers!!!!!
The type of risk which measures the extent to which a firm uses debt securities and other forms of debt in its capital structure to finance is known as:
A.Business risk
B.Systematic risk
C.Default risk
D.Financial risk
Solution: The correct answer is D.
Financial risk has to do with the amount of leveraging or use of borrowed funds a firm utilizes to structure its investment and finance its assets.
Sylvia has two assets in her portfolio, asset A and asset B. Asset A has a standard deviation of 40% and asset B has a standard deviation of 20%. 50% of her portfolio is invested in asset A and 50% is invested in asset B. The correlation for asset A and asset B is .90. What is the standard deviation of her portfolio?
A.Greater than 30%.
B.Less than 30%.
C.Equal to 30%.
D.Not enough information to determine.
Solution: The correct answer is B.
It’s not necessary to use the standard deviation of a two asset portfolio formula to answer this question. Since there’s a 50/50 weighting for each asset, simply take a simple average of the standard deviations (.40 + .20) / 2 = .30. Since the correlation is less than 1, the standard deviation for the portfolio will be less than the simple average. If correlation was equal to 1, then the standard deviation would be equal to 30%.
This is to help to understand the concept of standard deviation of a two asset portfolio. It is not simply the weighted average, but how those assets move in relation to one another (correlation).
To obtain the maximum reduction in risk, an investor should combine assets that
A.are negatively correlated.
B.are uncorrelated.
C.have a correlation coefficient of positive one.
D.have a correlation coefficient of negative one.
Solution: The correct answer is D.
Uncorrelated assets have a correlation equal to 0. Perfect negatively correlated assets will have a correlation equal to -1 and achieve the more diversification.
Investment A produced annual rates of return of 4%, 8%, 14% and 6% respectively over the past four years. Investment B produced annual rates of return of 5%, 12%, 8% and 11% respectively over the past four years. Which investment was more risky over the past 4 years?
A.A
B.B
C.Both A & B
D.Neither A nor B
Solution: The correct answer is A.
Standard Deviation for A=4.3%, B=3.2%; therefore, A is more risky.
Combining uncorrelated assets should
A.increase the overall risk level of a portfolio.
B.decrease the overall risk level of a portfolio.
C.not change the overall risk level of a portfolio.
D.cause the other assets in the portfolio to become positively related.
Solution: The correct answer is B.
Uncorrelated assets have a correlation equal to 0. Negatively correlated assets will have a correlation equal to -1 and achieve the more diversification.