Investigations Flashcards

1
Q

acute coronary syndrome

A

ECG
- ST elevation or new bundle branch block = STEMI
- no ST elevation – then perform troponin
-> raised troponin (+/- ECG changes) = NSTEMI
-> normal troponin = unstable angina or e.g. MSK chest pain

other:
- Blood (FBC, U+Es, LFTs, lipid profile, TFTs, HbA1C)
- Chest X-ray
- Echocardiogram after the event to assess for functional damage
- CT coronary angiogram - to assess for coronary artery disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cardiac Arrest

A
  • Check carotid pulse - gold standard = lack of
  • Continuous cardiac monitoring - check if rhythm becomes shockable
  • FBCs - check for haemorrhage and subsequent hypovolemia
  • Serum electrolytes - abnormalities can cause cardiac arrest e.g. hypo/erkalaemia
  • ABG - shows acid base balance (acidosis)
  • Cardiac biomarkers - elevated in MI
  • POCUS - can identify tamponade, haemorrhage, PE etc (point of care ultrasound)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cardiac Arrest diagnostic criteria

A

when the pt is
- unconscious
- apnoeic (not breathing)
- pulseless (no arterial pulse)

gold standard for diagnosis = lack of carotid pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Angina

A
  • ECG - should not have ischaemic changes
  • Blood tests:
  • FBC
  • TFT
  • LFTs
  • Lipid profile
  • HBA1C
  • U&Es (prior to ACEi + other meds)
  • CT coronary angiography (contra in renal impairment)
  • myocardial perfusion PECT - shows any damage from an MI
  • stress ECHO
  • MRI for regional wall motion abnormalities
  • coronary angiogram - if the results from the non-invasive tests are inconclusive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Atrial Fibrillation

A

Bedside
- ECG - definitive diagnosis: absence of p waves with irregularly irregular rhythm

bloods
- routine to look for reversible causes: infection, hyperthyroidism, alcohol use

imaging
- echocardiogram - to see if cardiac cause of the AF
e.g. left atrial dilatation secondary to mitral valve disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Atrial Flutter (re-entry circuit within right atrium)

A

ECG
- sawtooth pattern - in leads II, III, aVF
- narrow QRS
- regular rhythm (AV block may make it irregular)
- ventricular rate depends on level of AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

SVTs - AVRT + AVNRT

A

(AV re-entry tachycardia, AV nodal re-entry tachycardia)
- ECG
- check digoxin levels
- Chest X-ray
- TFTs
- Cardiac enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Wolff-Parkoinson-White Syndrome

A

ECG
- short PR
- delta wave (sloped upstroke before QRS)
- left or right axis deviation (depending on where the accessory pathway is)

Routine Bloods (including TFTs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Complete Heart Block

A
  • ECG
  • U&Es
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ventricular Tachycardia

A
  • ECG
  • U&Es
  • Cardiac enzymes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Heart Failure

A

- ECG (usually abnormal)
- Echo (assesses myocardial function - can identify pericardial effusion + cardiac tamponade)
- B-type Natriuretic Peptide - released in pressure overload of the heart >100mg/L
- Troponin
- ABG
- Blood tests - troponin, FBCs, U+Es, glucose+HbA1C, LFTs (↑ when reduced CO), TFTs, ↑CRP, D-dimer (PE)

Chest X-ray
- bilateral blunting of costophrenic angles
- pulmonary venous congestion
- pleural effusion
- cardiomegaly
- interstitial or alveolar oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ABCDEF mnemonic for CXR in HF

A

A - alveolar oedema (with batwing perihylar shadowing)
B - Kerley B lines (caused by interstitial oedema)
C - cardiomegaly (cardiothoracic ration >0.5)
D - upper lobe blood diversion
E - pleural effusions (bilateral usually)
F - fluid in the horizontal fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Essential & Secondary HTN

A

if pts have 2 BP readings > 140/90:
- ambulatory 24hr BP monitoring
- or home BP monitoring if 24hr unvailable

following diagnosis, pts have following tests:
- U&Es - check for renal disease (either cause or consequence)
- HbA1C - check for co-existing diabetes - CVS RF
- lipids - hyperlipidaemia is CVS RF
- fundoscopy - check for hypertensive retinopathy
- urine dip - check for renal disease
- ECG - check for left ventricular hypertrophy or ischaemic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Aortic Valve Disease

A

GOLD STANDARD
- Echo: shows pressure gradient across the stenotic aortic valve

**Chest X-ray **
- cardiomegaly
- calcified aortic valve

ECG
- left ventricular hypertrophy - increased QRS voltage, left axis deviation, poor R wave progression
- absent Q waves
- AV block
- Left axis deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mitral Valve Disease

A

ECG
- broad P wave indicative of atrial enlargement

X-ray
- cardiomegaly
- enlarged left atrium + ventricle

Echocardiography
- to diagnose and assess severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Right Heart Valve Disease

A

Echocardiography
- detect and quantify tricuspid regurgitation and heart function

ECG
- usually non-specific
- may all show peaked P waves or incomplete right bundle branch block

Cardiac MR
- evaluating right ventricular size and function

Cardiac catheterisation
- may be required prior to surgery to assess for coronary artery disease

17
Q

Asthma (chronic)

A

Peak flow
- measurement of how quickly you can blow air out of lungs
- lower in the morning
- variability > 20% (which is high)

Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO)
- measures levels of NO in breath
- high level of NO when you breathe out can be a sign of inflamed airways
- > 40 ppb in adults
- > 35 ppb in children

Spirometry
- FEV1/FVC < 0.7
- performed before and after bronchodilator

Bloods
- total IgE and eosinophils will be raised
- can also test specific allergens

Chest X-ray
- to exclude other causes of wheeze

BDR - bronchodilator reversibility
- an improvement in lung function in reponse to a beta-2-agonist

18
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

serum levels of mast cell tryptase can be measured to confirm diagnosis
- 1st sample ASAP after starting treatment
- 2nd sample within 1-2hrs (no later than 4hrs symptom onset)
- 3rd sample after complete recovers (as a baseline)

19
Q

COPD

A

Bloods
- FBC - polycythaemia due to chronic hypoxia
- ABG - ↓pO +/- ↑pCO2 (may be acute or compensated type 2 resp failure)

ECG
- p-pulmonale - right atrial enlargement
- right ventricular hypertrophy if there is cor pulmonale

Chest X-ray
- hyperinflated chest - >6 anterior ribs
- bullae
- decreased peripheral vascular markings
- flattened hemidiaphragms

Spirometry - can be performed at diagnosis or to monitor progression
- FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.7 (as per GOLD criteria)
- increased TLC
- ↓ TLCO (transfer factor for CO) -> seen in pts with significant emphysema without signifiant bronchitis element

Other
- sputum culture
- BNP + echocardiogram - assess for HF
- serum alpha-1 antitrypsin - genetic cause in young pt

20
Q

Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis

A
  • eosinophilia
  • CXR
  • positive RAST (radioallergosorbent) test to aspergillus
  • positive IgG preciptins
  • raised IgE
21
Q

Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis

A
  • imaging: upper/mid zone fibrosis
  • bronchoalveolar lavage: lymphocytosis
  • serologic assays for specific IgG antobodies
  • NO eosinophila
22
Q

oral allergy syndrome

A

clinical diagnosis
- standard IgE RAST + skin prick testing to identify common allergens
- skin prick testing with culprit foods

23
Q

Respiratory Failure

A

ABG
- PaO2 < 8 kPa
- PaCO2 > 6 kPa

pulse oximeter

spirometry

FiO2 - fraction of inspired oxygen
- patients may be on supplementary oxygen therapy causing PaO2 to be normal - but inapropriately low for the fraction of oxygen they are consuming

ECG
- to check for arrhythmias due to hypoxaemia or acidosis

24
Q

DVT general investigations

A

2 level DVT Wells score
- score ≥ 2 = DVT likely
- score ≤ 1 = DVT unlikely

D-dimer (protein fragment made after blood clot has dissolved)
- can only exclude DVT not confirm it

proximal leg ultrasound

digital subtraction venography is technically gold standard or CT/MR venogram

ECG
- sinus tachycardia

25
Q

Diagnostic Criteria and Algorithm for DVT

A

Well’s score ≥2
- proximal leg ultrasound (within 4 hrs otherwise anticoag + d-dimer then US within 24 hrs)
- if positive: DVT, start anticoag
- if negative: D-dimer (-ve D-dimer = unlikely, +ve = stop interim anticoag, repeat prox leg US 6-8 days later)

Well’s score ≤ 1
- perform D-dimer (within 4 hrs otherwise start interim anticoag)
- if negative: DVT unlikely
- if positive: conduct proximal leg ulstrasound (within 4 hrs, otherwise start anticoag then US within 24 hrs)