Investigation

Question 1

In police investigation, the paraffin test is used to

A: determine whether a suspect has fired a revolver recently.
B: discover whether a deceased person has been poisoned.
C: estimate the approximate time of death of a deceased person.
D: detect forged signatures.
E: detect whether a witness is telling the truth

Answer 1

A: But it’s not conclusive

Question 2

In a recent murder case a man was found shot to death in a room under circumstances which made it appear that he was shot through an open window. The science of ballistics would be most helpful in establishing

A: the approximate time at which the shot was fired.
B: whether the window had been forced open from the outside.
C: the identity of the murdered man from his fingerprints.
D: the caliber and special characteristics of the murder weapon.
E: whether death may be attributable to some other cause.

Answer 2

D: Ballistics is the study of projectile motion

Question 3

“On a dark background bloodstains are often difficult to recognize. When searching for bloodstains in such cases, one should use a flashlight, even in the daytime.” Of the following, the best reason for this procedure is that

A: movement of the flashlight will cause a moving reflection.
B: the contrast around the edges of the light is great.
C: artificial light may make differentiation between the blood and the background possible
D: it is important to get as much light as possible.

Answer 3

C: Sometimes called OBLIQUE light.

Question 4

Of the following, the type of evidence generally most useful in deciding disputed paternity cases is

A: blood type.
B: fingerprints.
C: dental formation.
D: X-rays.

Answer 4

A: If the answer given is D.N.A., go for that.

Question 5

A simple test for distinguishing a blood stain from other substances is the

A: Benzidine Test.
B: Alphanapthylamine Test.
C: Diphenylamine Test
D: Hydrochloric Acid Test.

Answer 5

A: The result is BLUISH/GREEN.

Question 6

“When a defendant claims that the presence of blood sprinkles on his clothing is due to the fact that he has touched such clothing with bloody hands, one can immediately conclude that he is lying.” The fact upon which this conclusion is based is most nearly that

A: clothing absorbs blood.
B: blood does not sprinkle.
C: fingerprints would have been left by the defendant if he had touched the clothing.
D: bloody hands will not leave the described mark.
E: the defendant’s hands were bloody.

Answer 6

D: Sounds like the O.J. trial.

Question 7

Suppose that, while on patrol, you find the victim of a knife attack lying unconscious in the street. Nearby, a blood-stained handkerchief is found. A suspect with a bleeding nose is picked up by a police officer several blocks away. Of the following, the inference which can be established most accurately on the basis of blood typing is that the

A: blood on the handkerchief is NOT the blood of the suspect.
B: blood on the handkerchief is probably the blood of the victim.
C: person whose blood was found on the handkerchief is not of the same race as the victim.
D: person whose blood was found on the handkerchief is of approximately the same age and physical condition as the suspect.

Answer 7

A: The stem says BLOOD TYPE. If DNA testing is used, more positive results are possible.

Question 8

In the classification of any fingerprint it is always necessary to find first the

A: core.
B: delta.
C: ridge count.
D: ridge pattern.

Answer 8

D: Remember the importance of the PATTERN.

Question 9

It is least accurate to state of fingerprints that

A: the value of fingerprints left at the scene of a crime does not vary with the distinctness of the fingerprint impressions
B: it is possible to fingerprint even a dead person.
C: it is of value to fingerprint a person with an abnormal number of fingers.
D: no fingerprints of different persons have ever been found to be alike
E: the prime value of fingerprints lies in their effectiveness in identifying people

Answer 9

A: It sure does.

Question 10

Generally the number of identical and characteristic details which must be found before fingerprint evidence is considered valuable is

A: three (3).
B: six (6).
C: twelve (12).
D: twenty (20).

Answer 10

C: This number has been around for years. With modern techniques, the number will probably be less.

Question 11

Of the following procedures, the one which is most likely to result in furthering cooperative effort between detectives and patrol officers is to

A: avoid precise definition in departmental regulations of the allocation of duties among the detective and patrol units.
B: increase the number of violations which are entered on the Complaint File and are referred only to the patrol force.
C: make investigative duties the responsibility solely of the detective division.
D: require patrol officers to seek additional information concerning crimes committed on their posts.

Answer 11

D: Get them involved

Question 12

With respect to “corpus delicti,” it is generally NOT correct to state that

A: it is defined as the essential elements of a crime.
B: it may be established by circumstantial evidence.
C: the purpose of its establishment is to prevent the punishment of an innocent person who may confess to the commission of a crime, when fact no crime has been committed
D: it is concerned mainly with felonious homicide.

Answer 12

D: It means the BODY of the CRIME. It doesn’t refer to a DEAD BODY

Question 13

The responsibility of police officers in the proper administration of criminal law is to

A: attempt to procure the conviction of the person arrested, leaving to the defense attorney the responsibility for obtaining evidence in favor of the accused.
B: gather all facts concerning the commission of a crime that are favorable to the prosecution, and also indicate to the District Attorney any investigative leads which might prove favorable to the defense, but which have not been followed.
C: gather all the facts pertaining to an incident and to present them all to the proper court.
D: gather as much information as is necessary to constitute a prima facie case, and not to proceed any further in the investigation.

Answer 13

C: gather all the facts pertaining to an incident and to present them all to the proper court.

Question 14

“Each interrogation has as its central theme one or more particular incidents of police business. All available information concerning an incident should be known to the interrogator before the interrogation is undertaken.” Information concerning the incidents in question should least be used as the basis for

A: asking leading questions.
B: evaluating the information which is secured.
C: reconciling conflicting accounts of the incident.
D: stimulating a lagging interrogation.

Answer 14

A: An easy answer. But look at the first sentence in the stem. This is the answer to another popular question.

Question 15

For purposes of securing information through interrogation, young adults, whether married or single, are generally poor subjects. This is so primarily because

A: their personal contacts tend to be too diversified.
B: they are too preoccupied with their own problems.
C: they lack the emotional stability which comes with maturity.
D: they do not usually have an appreciation of the police responsibility.

Answer 15

B: An old chestnut.

Question 16

The preliminary investigation of a crime with respect to uncovered leads can best be defined as the investigation of them up to the point at which

A: a definite corpus delicti has been established.
B: excessive physical demands are not required of the investigating officer.
C: postponement of further investigation would not jeopardize its successful completion.
D: these leads point to a specific individual as the possible perpetrator.

Answer 16

C: A frequently used concept.

Question 17

“It is not possible for anyone, not even the skilled prosecutor, to determine exactly which items of physical evidence found at the scene of a crime will eventually be declared admissible as evidence by the court.” For a competent police officer this should mean most importantly that

A: evidence which has been collected as soon as possible after the commission of the crime is recognized as admissible by skilled prosecutors
B: items of physical evidence should be collected even though some doubt exists as to their admissibility
C: the admissibility of evidence is a technical matter concerning which the police officer has no guides.
D: the District Attorney or his assistant should be summoned to every crime scene to offer guides as to what may be administered in evidence.

Answer 17

B: It’s a READING question

Question 18

An expended bullet, which is needed as important physical evidence, is found at the scene of a crime by a police officer. For the purpose of being able to identify the bullet positively, at some later date, the police officer scratches his initials on the side of the bullet. This method of marking is

A: good; the important impressions on the side of the bullet made by the gun barrel will then not be destroyed
B: poor; important bits of physical evidence which may have adhered to the side of the expended bullet could be destroyed.
C: good; the actual marking of the nose of the bullet may reveal the presence of minute amounts of important physical evidence.
D: poor; the nose of the bullet will probably be flattened and will therefore, be difficult to mark legibly.

Answer 18

B: Remember B - B, S - S.

Question 19

“It is generally advisable for a police investigator to form a theory that tentatively explains the manner of commission of a crime even though no supporting facts may be available in the beginning of the investigation.” This statement is generally

A: true; as facts become available they may direct the investigator to case solution.
B: false; the investigator is likely to restrict his investigation to a search for facts which lend support to the theory.
C: true; the formulation of a theory helps to direct the investigation along more general lines.
D: false; the investigator who holds such a theory will arrest a suspect without enough real evidence to support a specific charge.

Answer 19

A: Straight out of MANUAL FOR POLICE.

Question 20

The breathalyzer is used by police departments in programs aimed at the detection of drunken drivers. This device indicates the percent of alcohol in the

A: blood.
B: nervous system.
C: breath.
D: urine.

Answer 20

A: The BREATH is tested to determine B.A.C. (Blood Alcohol Content).

Question 21

It is considered desirable for a police officer who is to testify at a criminal trial to discuss the case with the prosecuting Assistant District Attorney before the trial begins. The one of the following that is the most likely reason for this practice is that

A: during the trial, the police officer may unwittingly reveal prejudice towards the defendant.
B: the police officer should be briefed as to how the prosecutor intends to develop his detailed presentation of the case in court.
C: the prosecutor and the police officer should agree as to the amount of information to be revealed during the trial.
D: there may have been developments in the case of which the prosecutor is unaware.

Answer 21

D: Common sense.

Question 22

“A police officer who is testifying in court in a criminal trial should rarely volunteer information, but should trust the prosecutor to ask the ‘key’ questions.” This statement is generally

A: false; the ends of justice may be defeated if important testimony is not presented.
B: true; the prosecutor may be waiting for the proper psychological moment when the police officer’s response will have the greatest effect on the jury.
C: false; the police officer’s opinion as to the value of evidence should be expressed clearly and forcefully in court
D: true; the prosecutor may feel that information possessed by the police officer will adversely affect his case.

Answer 22

B: That’s the D.A.’s job.

Question 23

“It is just as much the duty of police officers to see that persons suspected of criminal offenses are not deprived of their statutory or constitutional rights as it is to investigate the circumstances surrounding the commission of the crime.” This statement is generally

A: false; the protection of these rights of suspects should be reserved to the courts.
B: true; the most enlightened police officers usually prefer an acquittal to a conviction of their prisoner.
C: false; police officers should have the right to decide when the constitutional rights of due process are to be applied.
D: true; the police responsibility in the administration of justice includes the protection of these rights.

Answer 23

D: Police gather evidence - where it falls, who knows.

Question 24

Questions put to a suspect or a witness should not be so formulated as to lead the questioned person to answer in a certain direction or suggest the answer to him. Of the following, the most important reason for this principle is that such questioning

A: usually implies guilt on the part of the questioned person.
B: tends to diminish the possibility of ascertaining the true facts.
C: will cause the denial of knowledge by the person questioned.
D: draws the interrogation away from relevant matters.
E: indicates bias on the part of the questioner.

Answer 24

B: Why? Because it suggests an answer.

Question 25

When a bullet is fired at fairly close range through a glass window, the direction from which it has been fired can be determined. Of the following, the statement that is correct concerning such determinations is that

A: radial fractures will form on the side from which the bullet was fired.
B: the hole is wider on the side facing the source of the bullet.
C: numerous small flakes are found blown away from the side opposite the one from which the bullet was fired.
D: numerous small flakes are found blown from the side from which the bullet was fired.

Answer 25

C: The P.T.S. code word, invented by George Mullins in 1954, is:
CoRn-FLAKES.
CONCENTRIC FRACTURES FORM ON ENTRY SIDE.
RADIAL FRACTURES FORM ON EXIT SIDE, but form before the concentric fractures. Flakes are blown away on exit side.

Question 26

Tom, in great pain and believing himself to be dying, said, “My brother Roger did not murder Tondelayo. I murdered Tondelayo.” Tom died the next day. At the trial of Roger for the murder of Tondelayo, the statement of Tom was not admitted as a dying declaration. This was so primarily because

A: the great pain of Tom probably affected his mental processes and judgment.
B: Tom’s statement did not concern his own death.
C: Tom did not die shortly after the confession.
D: Tom was a relative of Roger.
E: it could be proved that shortly before he died, Tom thought he was recovering.

Answer 26

B: If he said, “Tondelayo shot me…,” that could be a dying declaration.

Question 27

“A defendant in a criminal action is presumed to be innocent, until the contrary be proved, and in case of a reasonable doubt whether his guilt is satisfactorily shown, he is entitled to an acquittal.” In interpreting or applying the above statement, it would NOT be accurate to say that

A: the words “beyond a reasonable doubt” and “to a moral certainty” are explanatory of the quantum of proof required to convict are synonymous.
B: a fair test of reasonable doubt is the conviction upon which one may act in his own important affairs.
C: whether the charge involves a crime or a mere offense, proof thereof must be beyond a reasonable doubt.
D: in order to convict, each and every element of the crime charged must be established beyond a reasonable doubt.

Answer 27

B: a fair test of reasonable doubt is the conviction upon which one may act in his own important affairs.

Question 28

The chief weakness of the Dermal Nitrate Test (Paraffin Gauntlet) lies in the fact that

A: non-incriminating nitrates may be found on the hands of farmers, miners, heavy tobacco users, etc.
B: the findings may be similar to those experienced with the Florence Test
C: bleaching agents are found on the hands of many persons.
D: presence or absence of nitrates depends on the type of firearm discharged.

Answer 28

A: It is NOT conclusive. The Florence Test is a test for semen.

Question 29

In discussing Pattern Types of fingerprints are listed three (3) basic pattern types: (a) no delta; (b) one delta; (c) more than one delta. The following statement which is inaccurate is

A: arches - a simple series of lines traveling horizontally across a central rise - no delta
B: loops - the least common of patterns - one delta.
C: whorl - ridges appear to revolve around a center point (the core) - two or more deltas.
D: radial loop - open end of loop points towards the thumb.

Answer 29

B: B - Loops are MOST common.
Long - Winded - Ass
LOOPS - WHORLS - ARCHES

Question 30

A formal entry upon the record by the prosecuting officer in a criminal action, by which he declares that he will not further prosecute the case is known as

A: non sequitor.
B: nolle contendere.
C: non compos mentis.
D: nolle prosequi.

Answer 30

D: Check them out. Sometimes they are asked. Look also in MANUAL FOR POLICE. Re: J.D. proceedings in ANCIENT TIMES (prior to 1972) PARENTS PATRIAE meant STATE is FATHER to the child.