Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Advanced Principles C > Introduction to Neuro > Flashcards

Introduction to Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Cranial I Name:
Nerve Type:
Function:

A

Cranial I Name: Olfactory
Nerve Type: Sensory
Function: Smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cranial II Name:
Nerve Type:
Function:

A

Cranial II Name: Optic
Nerve Type: Sensory
Function: Vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cranial III Name:
Nerve Type:
Function:

A

Cranial III Name: Oculomotor
Nerve Type: Motor
Function: Most eye movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cranial IV Name:
Nerve Type:
Function:

A

Cranial IV Name: Trochlear
Nerve Type: Motor
Function: Moves eyes to look at nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cranial V Name:
Nerve Type:
Function:

A

Cranial V Name: Trigeminal
Nerve Type: Both Sensory and Motor
Function: Face sensation, mastication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cranial VI Name:
Nerve Type:
Function:

A

Cranial VI Name: Abducens
Nerve Type: Motor
Function: Abducts the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cranial VII Name:
Nerve Type:
Function:

A

Cranial VII Name: Facial
Nerve Type: Both Sensory and Motor
Function: Facial expression, taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cranial VIII Name:
Nerve Type:
Function:

A

Cranial VIII Name: Vestibulocochlear
Nerve Type: Sensory
Function: Hearing, Balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cranial IX Name:
Nerve Type:
Function:

A

Cranial IX Name: Glossopharyngeal
Nerve Type: Both Sensory and Motor
Function: Taste, Gag Reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cranial X Name:
Nerve Type:
Function:

A

Cranial X Name: Vagus
Nerve Type: Both Sensory and Motor
Function: Gag Reflex, Parasympathetic Innervation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cranial XII Name:
Nerve Type:
Function:

A

Cranial XII Name: Hypoglossal
Nerve Type: Motor
Function: Swallow, Speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cranial XI Name:
Nerve Type:
Function:

A

Cranial XI Name: Accessory
Nerve Type: Motor
Function: Shoulder Shrug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which Cranial Nerves are both sensory and motor?

A
  • Trigeminal (V)
  • Facial (VII)
  • Glossopharyngeal (IX)
  • Vagus (X)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which Cranial Nerves are only sensory?

A
  • Olfactory (I)
  • Optic (II)
  • Vestibulocochlear (VIII)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which Cranial Nerves are only motor?

A
  • Oculomotor (III)
  • Trochlear (IV)
  • Abducens (VI)
  • Accessory (XI)
  • Hypoglossal (XII)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What part of the brain deals with higher function?

A

Cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the function of the Cerebellum

A
  • Balance
  • Posture
  • Coordination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What part of the brain deals with automatic functions?

A

Brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the frontal lobe responsible for?

A
  • Personality
  • Behavior
  • Speech
  • Self awareness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the parietal lobe responsible for?

A
  • Language
  • Words
  • Sense of touch
  • Spatial perception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the occipital lobe responsible for?

A

Interpretation of visual stimuli (light, color)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the temporal lobe responsible for?

A
  • Understanding language
  • Memory
  • Hearing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The surface of the cerebrum is called the _________________

A

Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Differentiate between a Gyri and Sulci

A
  • Gyri are the bumps or raised ridges on the cerebral cortex
  • Sulci are the grooves or indentations on the cerebral cortex

The gyri and sulci are the folds taht increases the surface area of the brain, contains 16 billion neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What percent of the brain is grey matter?
What makes up the grey matter?

A
  • 40%
  • Neuron bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What percent of the brain is white matter?
What makes up the white matter?

A
  • 60%
  • Axons that travel deeper into the brain to communicate with other areas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the function of glial cells?

A

To provide protection and support for the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do neurons communicate with each other?

A

Through synaptic transmission (mostly chemical/ NT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

NT are stored in synaptic vesicles in the _________________

A

Axon Terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where is Acetylcholine synthesized?

A

Pre-synaptic terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Acetylcholine is commonly associated with the NMJ in the ________________ nervous system.

A

Peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What NT is in the preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is ACh broken down?

A

Broken down by Acetylcholinesterase in the Synaptic Cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Acetylcholine Actions

A
  • Regulates heart contractions
  • Decreases HR
  • Decreases BP
  • Release Urine
  • Gland and Gastric Secretions
  • Skeletal Muscle Contraction
  • Attention, Memory, Arousal (CNS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What Cholinesterase Inhibitor/ Anticholinesterase is used for the reversal of Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade?

A

Neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What Cholinesterase Inhibitor/ Anticholinesterase is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the unwanted side effects of Cholinesterase Inhibitor/ Anticholinesterase (Cholinergic SE)?

A
  • Salivation
  • Lacrimation
  • Urination
  • Diaphoresis
  • GI Issues (Diarrhea)
  • Emesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How does Cholinesterase Inhibitor/ Anticholinesterase improve symptoms of Dementia, Alzheimer’s, and Parkinson’s Disease?

A

An increase in ACh in the CNS can help nerve cells better communicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

This group of drugs block the action of Acetylcholine

A

Anticholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Blocking acetylcholine signals can decrease the following:

A
  • Digestion
  • Mucus Secretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Unwanted side effects of anticholinergics

A
  • Urine Retention
  • Dry Mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The drug prevents communication b/w the nerves of the vestibule and the vomiting center in the brain

A

Scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the major excitatory NT in the brain and spinal cord (CNS)

A

Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Glutamate Actions

A
  • Learning/Memory
  • Cognition
  • Mood Regulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What can negatively affect glutamate levels?

A

Chronic Stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Problems with making or using glutamate can lead to the following conditions

A
  • Depression
  • Bipolar
  • Schizophrenia
  • Autism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Excessive activation of glutaminergic synapses can lead to very large influxes of ________________

A

Calcium (Excitotoxicity leading to cell damage and cell death)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Too much glutamate can lead to the following conditions

A
  • Parkinson’s
  • Huntington’s
  • Alzheimer’s
  • Depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What essential amino acid is used to make Dopamine?

A

Phenylalanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Does dopamine have an inhibitory or excitatory effect?

A

Generally inhibitory effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Where are dopaminergic neurons located?

A
  • Between substantia nigra and caudate nucleus/ putamen
  • Limbic system (Reward System)
  • Retina
  • Olfactory System
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What kind of effect does dopamine have outside the CNS?

A
  • Paracrine Effect (acts as a hormone on nearby cells)
  • Inhibit NE release
  • Increase Na+ excretion
  • Reduces insulin secretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What condition is related to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons?

A

Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the most effective Parkinson’s medication?

A

Levodopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

MOA of Levodopa

A

Passes into the brain and converts to dopamine

Dopamine can not cross through the BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What drug is given in combination with Levodopa to protect the drug from early conversion of dopamine outside the brain?

A

Carbidopa (Lodosyn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Why would you want to avoid Reglan in someone with Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Reglan is a dopamine antagonist
  • Reglan can worsen the condition of someone with Parkinson’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine are made from this NT

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where is Epi produced in the nervous system

A
  • Epi produced in small number of neurons in the brain stem
  • Medulla oblongata
  • Pons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Where is NE produced in the nervous system

A

Locus Coeruleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which NT (Epi or NE) has a greater effect on the blood vessel

A

Norepinephrine has a greater effect on the blood vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which NT (Epi or NE) has a greater effect on the heart

A

Epinephrine has a greater effect on the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Actions of Epi/NE

A
  • Flight or Flight
  • Sleep/Wake Cycle
  • Increase HR/ BP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What amino acid is used to synthesize serotonin

A

Tryptophan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

90% of serotonin produced produced at this spot

A

GI Tract Enterochromaffin Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Serotonin are stored in _____________. Released during clot formation and play an important role for wound healing.

67
Q

Serotonin causes _____________ in pathological states.

A

Vasoconstriction (HTN, Atherosclerosis)

68
Q

Serotonin causes _____________ in physiological states.

A

Vasodilation (releases NO)

69
Q

Serotonin Actions

A
  • Modulation of pain
  • Biological Rhythms
  • Mood
70
Q

If Serotonin isn’t being produced/used effectively it can cause the following:

A
  • Depression
  • Anxiety
  • Digestive problems
  • OCD
  • Panic disorders
  • Phobias
  • Schizophrenia
71
Q

What areas store large amount of GABA?

A
  • Brain/ Spinal Cord
  • Pancreas (Beta Cells, inhibit glucagon secretion)
72
Q

GABA actions

A
  • Regulate formation of synapses, secretion of cytokines
  • Calm and control nerve cell hyperactivity
  • Immune response
  • Improve sleep
73
Q

Effects of decreased GABA

A
  • Anxiety
  • Mood disorders
  • Schizophrenia
  • Autism
  • Depression
  • Epilepsy/seizures
74
Q

Effects of increased GABA

A
  • Narcolepsy
  • Hypersomnia
75
Q

What receptors do endorphins bind to in the PNS?

A

Mu-receptors to block to release of Substance P

76
Q

What receptors do endorphins bind to in the CNS?

A

Mu-receptors in the brain to block GABA to increase dopamine

77
Q

What arteries provide cerebral blood flow?

A
  • 2 common carotid arteries (R/L)
  • 2 vertebral arteries (R/L)
78
Q

The internal carotid arteries ascends and bifurcates into what arteries?

A
  • Anterior Cerebral Artery
  • Middle Cerebral Artery
79
Q

The vertebral arteries ascends posteriorly through the foramina of the cervical bodies and join to form the ____________ artery.

A

Basilar Artery

80
Q

The basilar artery divides into ________________ cerebral arteries.

A

Posterior Cerebral Arteries

81
Q

The anterior, middle, and posterior cerebral arteries merge and form _______________

A

Circle of Willis

82
Q

Arteries that travel up and along the brain surface give rise to what kind of arteries?

A

Pial Arteries

83
Q

What does the Pial Arteries branch into?

A

Penetrating Arteries

84
Q

Penetrating arteries give rise to this structure which will perfuse deeper brain tissue

A

Intracerebral arterioles

85
Q

Where is the major site of collateral circulation in the brain?

A

Circle of Willis

  • Loops of low resistance vascular connection.
  • Often asymmetrical
86
Q

Label A

A

Anterior Cerebral Artery

87
Q

Label B

A

Anterior Communicating Artery

88
Q

Label C

A

Middle Cerebral Artery

89
Q

Label D

A

Posterior Communicating Artery

90
Q

Label E

A

Posterior Cerebral Artery

91
Q

Label F

A

Basilar Artery

92
Q

Label G

A

Vertebral Artery

93
Q

Label the Black Star

A

Internal Carotid Artery

94
Q

This region of the internal carotid artery is considered to be a part of the Circle of Willis

A

Distal Tip of the Internal Carotid Artery

95
Q

What is the most prominent venous sinus that runs along the surface of the cerebrum?

A

Superior Sagittal Sinus

96
Q

The veins deep in the brain tissue join behind the midbrain to form this structure.

A

Great Cerebral Vein (Great Vein of Galen)

97
Q

The Great Cerebral Vein will drain blood into this sinus.

A

Inferior Sagittal Sinus

98
Q

The Inferior Sinus will drain blood into this sinus.

A

Straight Sinus

99
Q

The Superficial and Deep systems meet in this area.

A

Confluence of Sinuses

100
Q

The blood in the confluence of sinuses make it’s way down through this structure.

A

Internal Jugular Veins

101
Q

Label A

A

Superior sagittal sinus

102
Q

Label B

A

Inferior Sagittal Sinus

103
Q

Label C

A

Great Vein of Galen

104
Q

Label D

A

Straight sinus

105
Q

Label E

A

Confluence of Sinuses

106
Q

Label F

A

Internal Jugular Veins

107
Q

Why is cerebral blood flow important for the brain?

A
  • Cerebral blood flow is crucial in delivering oxygen and glucose to the brain
  • The brain does not have the ability to store glucose
108
Q

The brain makes up only 2% of body weight but requires _____________% of resting cardiac output.

A

15-20%
(Highly metabolic organ)

109
Q

What is the Cerebral Blood Flow of an average adult?

A
  • 750-900 mL/min
  • 50-60 mL of blood/ 100 grams of brain tissue/ minute
110
Q

CBF under this amount might indicate cerebral impairment and slow EEG

A

Less than 20-30 ml/100g/min

111
Q

CBF resulting in flat/ isoelectric EEG

A

15-20 mL/100g/min

112
Q

CBF resulting in irreversible brain damage

A

10 ml/100g/min

113
Q

What is the equation for Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP)?

A

CPP = MAP - ICP

Normal CPP: 60-80 mmHg
Normal ICP: 7-15 mmHg
Normal MAP: 60-100 mmHg

114
Q

What are the 3 main factors affecting CBF?

A
  • Myogenic
  • Neurogenic
  • Metabolic
115
Q

How will cerebral autoregulation curve be affected for patients with chronic HTN?

A

Cerebral Autoregulation curve will be shifted to the right

116
Q

Describe how CBF autoregulation is affected by Myogenic Control

A
  • Cerebral vasculature smooth muscles (in arterioles) is highly responsive to changes in cerebral perfusion pressure
  • Dilates when CPP is down to increase CBF
  • Constricts with CPP is up to decrease or maintain CBF
117
Q

How will a decrease cardiac output affect myogenic regulation?

A
  • Decrease MAP will activate myogenic regulation
  • This will cause dilation to encourage more blood flow to the brain
118
Q

Describe how CBF autoregulation is affected by Neurogenic Control

A
  • CBF can be affected by SNS innervation of large brain arteries and vasoactive NT
  • Myogenic mechanism can override these effects.
  • Increase SNS, decrease CBF
  • Minor role compared to the effects of myogenic and metabolic control
119
Q

What factors are involved with Metabolic Control for CBF autoregulation?

A
  • CMRO2
  • CO2/ H+ concentration
  • O2 concentration
  • Astrocytes
120
Q

What is Cerebral Metabolic Rate of Oxygen (CMRO2)

A

Rate of oxygen consumption by the brain

121
Q

Increase brain activity (can be good/bad) will lead to increase in what category?

A
  • Cerebral Metabolism
  • Demand for O2
  • Increase CBF
122
Q

Due to the high metabolism of the brain, the organ needs a second by second delivery of what substances to maintain viability?

A
  • Glucose
  • Oxygen

If the brain is not receiving O2 or glucose, there can be dysfunction and unconsciousness in seconds

123
Q

What is the CMRO2 of the brain?

A
  • 3 ml O2 per 100g of brain tissue PER MINUTE in a resting state
  • 40-50 mL of O2/min
124
Q

How will hypoxia affect the arterioles of the brain?

A

Hypoxia will cause vasodilation (PaO2 <60 mmHg, SpO2 <90%)

125
Q

What is the meaning of Neurovascular Coupling?

A
  • In a state of health, CBF will proportionally match Cerebral Metabolic needs (CMRO2) & O2 demand
  • Blood flow matches neuronal activity

  • In a pathologic state… responses to hypoxia change
  • O2 delivery may not match up with O2 demand
126
Q

How will hemodilution cause vasodilation of the cerebral arterioles?

A
  • Hemodilution can cause a decrease in CaO2 (arterial oxygen content)
  • Results in local regulatory mechanism leading to vasodilation
127
Q

What are non-pharmacologic factors affecting CMRO2?

A
  • Temperature
  • Glucose
  • Seizure Activity
128
Q

How will hypothermia affect CMRO2?

A
  • Degree-dependent reduction in CMRO2
  • 1C reduction = CMRO2 reduction by 6-7%, until completely depressed
129
Q

How will hyperthermia affect CMRO2?

A
  • Increases CMRO2 until 42C
  • > 42C will result in decrease CMRO2 d/t toxic effects
130
Q

How does severe hypoglycemia affect CMRO2 and CBF?

A
  • Blood glucose < 36 mg/dL will result in an increase CBF
  • Hypoglycemia increases CMRO2
131
Q

How will seizure activity affect CMRO2?

A
  • Direct increase in CMRO2
  • Important to control/prevent
132
Q

How does Carbon Dioxide cause vasodilation?

A
  • Excess CO2 in arterial blood combines with water
  • Formation of Carbonic Acid
  • Dissociates to H+ and HCO3-
  • Causes vasodilation of cerebral vessels
133
Q

What is cerebral blood flow is directly proportional to?

134
Q

Vasodilation is directly proportional to the increase in H+. What are the sources of H+?

A
  • Dissociation of carbonic acid
  • Lactic Acid
  • Pyruvic Acid
  • Other acidic material formed during metabolism
135
Q

Why is it important to draw an ABG for Neurosurgery?

A
  • Check ABG for PaCO2
  • Note the difference between PaCO2 and ETCO2
  • Provide mild hyperventilation to keep CO2 at desired level to provide brain protection
136
Q

What is the primary function of astrocytes?

A
  • Provide support and nutrition to neurons
  • Help regulate neuroinflammation
  • Antioxidant response

  • Star shaped glial cell
  • Foot projections that contact neurons and blood vessels
137
Q

Describe the patho for Astrocyte-mediated Vasodilation

A
  • Glutaminergic excitatory neurons stimulate astrocytes
  • Increase Ca2+ ion concentration in foot projections
  • VASODILATION of nearby arterioles/capillaries
  • Astrocytes also release substances including Nitric Oxide (NO) leading to
    VASODILATION of nearby arterioles/capillaries
138
Q

Factors That Disturb Autoregulation

A
  • Hypoxia (limit brain blood flow)
  • Chronic HTN (shift curve right, keep MAP w/in 20-25% of baseline)
  • Trauma (head injury), can result in impaired autoregulation
  • Brain compression (tumors, bleeds, edema), can cause vasogenic edema, increase ICP
139
Q

Negative effects of low CBF.
Negative effects of high CBF.

A
  • Low CBF can lead to ischemia
  • High CBF can lead to capillary leakage and edema
140
Q

Effects of Nitrous on CBF and CMRO2

A
  • N2O administration may result in minor increase in CMRO2
  • Minor increase in CBF
  • Synergistic effect with volatile anesthetic
141
Q

Effects of Ketamine on CBF and CMRO2

A
  • Increase in CMRO2and CBF
  • Potent cerebral vasodilator
  • Ketamine is usually not recommended for neurosurgery
142
Q

Effects of Barbiturates on CBF and CMRO2

A
  • Decrease CMRO2
  • “Robinhood Effect”/Reverse steal phenomenon
  • Decrease cerebrovascular response to CO2, vasoconstrict “healthy” parts of the brain, and allow preferential perfusion to ischemic areas
143
Q

Effects of Etomidate, Propofol, Opioids on CBF and CMRO2

A

Reduce CMRO2 and CBF in parallel

144
Q

Effects of Volatile Agents on CBF and CMRO2

A
  • Dose-dependent reduction in CMRO2
  • BUT… They also have dose-dependent vasodilatory properties
  • Overall effect = balance between CMRO2-related CBF reduction AND vasodilatory-related increase in CBF
  • Circulator Steal phenomenon

Circulator Steal phenomenon: Vasodilation in all brain areas… both healthy & ischemic

145
Q

Effect of Volatiles below 1 MAC on CBF

A

Minimal effect

146
Q

Effect of Volatiles above 1 MAC on CBF

A
  • Potent cerebral vasodilation
  • Increase CBF
147
Q

What arteries provide the blood support for the spinal cord?

A
  • Anterior spinal artery (1)
  • Posterior spinal arteries (2)
  • Artery of Adamkiewicz
148
Q

Where does the anterior spinal artery originate?

A

Vertebral Artery

149
Q

The anterior spinal artery runs midline from the ____________ to the ____________.

A

Foramen magnum to filum terminale

150
Q

The anterior spinal artery will supply blood to the anterior ______________(fraction) of the spinal cord.

151
Q

The posterior spinal artery will supply blood to the posterior ______________(fraction) of the spinal cord.

152
Q

What two arteries fed into the posterior spinal arteries at each spinal level?

A
  • Radicular artery
  • Medullary artery
153
Q

What is the largest anterior medullary segmental artery?

A

Artery of Adamkiewicz

154
Q

The Artery of Adamkiewicz most commonly arises on which side of the aorta?

A
  • Left side of the aorta from T9 to T12
  • Most dominant artery seen on an angiogram (Recognizable d/t a hairpin turn)
155
Q

Artery of Adamkiewicz provides the major blood supply to what area of the spinal cord?

A

Anterior Thoracolumbar Spinal Cord

156
Q

Factors that can cause risk of ischemia or infarction if there is damage to the artery of Adamkiewicz from pathology?

A
  • AAA dissection or repair
  • Malignancy
  • Vascular malformations or emboli
  • Spine surgery
157
Q

Effects of a damage or obstructed Artery of Adamkiewicz?

A
  • Impaired motor function of the legs
  • Paralysis
  • Urine/fecal incontinence
  • Sensory usually intact
158
Q

Spinal Cord Disorder involving a mass effect can cause the following symptoms for the patient.

A
  • Pain
  • Weakness
  • Paralysis
159
Q

Considerations for a tumor on a spinal cord

A
  • Surgical removal
  • Microsurgery
  • Preserve healthy tissue/function
  • Stabilization of spine
160
Q

Considerations for a hematoma on a spinal cord

A
  • Control bleeding
  • Remove blood to take pressure off spinal cord
161
Q

Considerations for a abscess on a spinal cord

A
  • Washout
  • Culture
  • Antibiotics
162
Q

What spinal cord disorder must be corrected within 72 hours of birth to mitigate infection?

A
  • Spina Bifida (Myelomeningocele)
  • Opening in the back with exposed nerves
163
Q

What is Tethered Cord Syndrome?

A
  • Spinal cord tissue attached to spinal column that limits the movement of the spinal cord
  • Can cause stretching and nerve damage
164
Q

Anesthetic Considerations for Spinal Surgery

A
  • Thorough pre-operative neuro assessment
  • Surgery may involve a laminectomy for access, or reconstruction/hardware placement
  • Pain control considerations… spine surgery hurts!
  • Consider multimodal when appropriate
  • Prone positioning considerations
  • Neuro check prior to extubation (awake extubation)
  • Caution using long acting sedatives

Advanced Principles C (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions