Introduction to Medical Parasitology Flashcards

1
Q

it is the area of biology concerned
with the phenomenon of dependence of one living organism on another.

A

Parasitology

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2
Q

it is concerned primarily with parasites of humans and their medical significance, as well as their importance in human communities.

A

Medical Parasitology

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3
Q

it is a branch of medicine that deals
with tropical diseases and other special medical problems of tropical regions

A

Tropical medicine

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4
Q

it is an illness, which is indigenous to or endemic in a tropical area but may also occur in sporadic or epidemic proportions in areas that are not tropical

A

Tropical Diseases

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5
Q

it is the living together of unlike organisms. It may also involve protection or other advantages to one or both organisms.

A

symbiosis

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6
Q

one species benefits without harming the other (e.g. Entamoeba coli in the intestines)

A

Commensalism

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7
Q

Both species benefits with each other (e.g. termites and flagellates aiding digestion)

A

Mutualism

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8
Q

one organism (parasite) relies on another (host) at the host’s expense (e.g. Entamoeba histolytica causing amebic dysentery)

A

Parasitism

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9
Q

type of parasite that lives inside a host

A

endoparasite

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9
Q

type of parasite that lives outside a host

A

ectoparasite

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9
Q

it is the presence endoparasite

A

infection

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10
Q

it is the presence of ectoparasites

A

infestation

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10
Q

type of parasites that requiring a host for their life cycle to complete their development

A

obligate parasites

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10
Q

A type of parasite that exist in free-living state or may become parasitic when the need arises

A

facultative parasites

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11
Q

establishes itself in a host where it does not primarily live

A

Accidental/incidental parasites

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12
Q

a type of parasites that remains on/in the body of the host for its entire life

A

Permanent parasites

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13
Q

a free-living organism that passes through the digestive tract without infecting the host

A

Spurious parasites

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14
Q

A type of hosts where parasites attains sexual maturity (e.g. humans in Taeniasis)

A

definitive hosts

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14
Q

a type of hosts that harbors the asexual or larval stage of the parasite (e.g. pigs for Taenia spp. )

A

intermediate hosts

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15
Q

a type of hosts that the parasite does not develop further to later stage (e.g. Paragonimus metacercaria)

A

paratenic hosts

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16
Q

they can be final hosts or incidental hosts for various parasites

A

human

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16
Q

a type of hosts that allow the parasite’s life cycle to continue and can become additional sources of human infection (e.g. pigs, field rats, cats)

A

Reservoir hosts

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17
Q

it transmits parasites between hosts

A

vectors

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18
Q

a type of vector that transmits the parasite only after the latter has completed its development within the host

A

biologic vector

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19
Q

a type of vector that only transports the parasite

A

mechanical vector

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20
Q

it is harmful and cam cause mechanical injury to their hosts

A

pathogens

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21
Q

it harbors a particular pathogens without manifesting any signs and symptoms

A

carriers

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22
Q

the process of inoculating an infective agent

A

exposure

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23
Q

it is the establishment of infective agent in the host

A

infection

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24
Q

the period between infection and evidence of symptoms

A

incubation period (sometimes referred as clinical incubation period)

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25
Q

the period between infection or acquisition of the parasite and evidence or demonstration of infection

A

pre-patent period (also known as biologic incubation period

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26
Q

it is when the infected individual became his own direct source of infection or self infection

A

autoinfection

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27
Q

it is when the already infected individual is further infected with the same species leading to massive infection with the parasite

A

superinfection or hyper infection

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28
Q

what are the common sources of infection?

A
  • contaminated soil and water
  • lack of sanitary toilets
  • use of human excreta or night soil as fertilizers
  • contaminated food
    (consumption of undercooked or raw freshwater fish)
  • vectors such as arthropods, mosquitos and sandflies
  • wild or domesticated animals
  • another person
    (his beddings and clothing, the immediate environment he has contaminated, or even one’s self)
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29
Q

what are the different modes of transmission?

A
  • oral
  • skin penetration
  • congenital transmission
  • inhalation
  • sexual intercourse
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30
Q

It is a type of transmission that can be acquired through ingesting raw or improperly cooked food and contaminated water

A

Oral transmission

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31
Q

a type of transmission that is acquired through exposure of skin to soil (hookworms and Strongyloides) or enter of water via skin (Schistosoma) and arthropods as vectors of parasite through their bites (malaria, filariasis, leishmaniasis, and trypanosomiasis)

A

Skin penetration

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32
Q

a type of transmission that can cross the placental barrier during pregnancy (Toxoplasma gondii trophozoites) or can be transmitted through the mother’s milk (Ancylostoma and Strongyloides)

A

Congenital transmission

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33
Q

Type of transmission that can be acquired from airborne eggs of Enterobius vermicularis

A

Inhalation

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34
Q

transmission of Trichomonas Vaginalis

A

Sexual intercourse

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35
Q

it is the basis of classification of nomenclature

A

International code of zoological nomenclature

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36
Q

It is a type of name that is latinized, with italicized or underlined genera and species names

A

Scientific names

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37
Q

This type of name are form by adding idae to the stem of the genus type

A

family names

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38
Q

it is a type of name that consist of a single word written in initial capital letter

A

generic names

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39
Q

a type of name that begins with a small letter

A

specific name

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40
Q

what is the order of Linnaeus’s system of classification of taxonomic hierarchy? (king Philip cry, oh for goodness sake)

A

kingdom - phylum - class - order - family - genus - species

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41
Q

this maturity is often reached in definitive hosts

A

sexual maturity

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42
Q

it is a study of patterns, distribution and occurrence of disease

A

epidemiology

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43
Q

the number of new cases of infection appearing in a population

A

incidence

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44
Q

it is the number of individuals in a population estimated to be infected with a particular parasite species at a given time

A

prevalence

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45
Q

it is the percentage of individuals in a population infected with at least one parasite

A

cumulative prevalence

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45
Q

this refers to the number of worms per infected person

A

intensity of infection (also refereed to as worm burden)

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46
Q

it is the clinical consequences of infections or diseases that affect an individual’s well being

A

morbidity

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46
Q

a type of treatment that uses an anthelminthic drugs in individuals or public health programs

A

Deworming

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47
Q

it refers to the number of previously positive subjects found to be egg-negative on examination after deworming

A

cure rate

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47
Q

it is the percentage fall in egg counts after deworming based on examination after the treatment

A

egg reduction rate

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48
Q

it involves individual level deworming with selection for treatment

A

selective treatment

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49
Q

it is a group level deworming

A

targeted treatment

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50
Q

it is genetically transmitted loss of susceptibility to a drug

A

drug resistance

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51
Q
A
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52
Q

it is a population level of deworming

A

population treatment

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52
Q

it is the effect of a drug against an infective agent

A

efficacy

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52
Q

it refers to the proportion of the target population reached by an intervention

A

coverage

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52
Q

it is an health education strategy that aims to encourage people to adapt and maintain healthy life practices

A

information education communication (IEC)

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52
Q

it is an avoidance of illness caused by infections, achieved by periodically deworming

A

morbidity control

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52
Q

it is a measure of the effect of a drug against an infective agent in a particular host

A

effectiveness

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52
Q
A
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52
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52
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52
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53
Q
A
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54
Q

it is the planning, organization, performance, and monitoring of activities to prevent or minimize vector or host propagation

A

environmental management

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55
Q

it involves intervention to reduce environmental health risks such as safe disposal and hygienic management

A

environmental sanitation

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56
Q

provision of access to adequate facilities for safe disposal combined with access to safe drinking water

A

sanitation

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57
Q

defined as a permanent reduction to zero of the worldwide incidence of infection, once achieved continued measures are no longer needed

A

Disease Eradication

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58
Q

defined as reduction to zero of the incidence of a specified disease in a defined geographic area, continued intervention or surveillance measures are still required

A

Disease Elimination

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59
Q

it causes changes in the molecular biology, biochemistry, immunology, and structure of the parasites. Parasites that
are more specialized have high chances of survival

A

adaptation

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60
Q

where are the noticeable adaptation usually found?

A

locomotory and digestive organs

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61
Q

it is an interference with the vita processes of the host through the enzyme system and invasion and destruction of host tissue

A

effect of the parasite on the host

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62
Q

it secretes cysteine proteinases which do not only digest cellular materials but also degrade epithelial basement membrane facilitating tissue invasion

A

trophozoites of E. histolytica

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63
Q

it invades red blood cells which causes cells to rupture after multiplication

A

Plasmodium

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64
Q

it causes infection and cumulative deposition of eggs in the liver results in granuloma formation and then fibrosis

A

Schistosoma japonicum

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65
Q

it have cutting plates which can attach to the intestinal mucosa and destroy the villi

A

hookworms

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66
Q

can cause intestinal obstruction and may invade appendix and bile ducts

A

Ascaris

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67
Q

possession of this trait confers some protection (Falciparum malaria)

A

sickle-cell trait

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68
Q

the presence of this factor increases the susceptibility to Plasmodium vivax infections

A

Duffy blood factor

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69
Q

a type of diet that is not suitable for the development of intestinal protozoans

A

diet rich in protein

69
Q

a type of diet that favors amebiasis

A

low protein diet

70
Q

a type of diet that favors the development of some tapeworms

A

high carbohydrate diet

71
Q

a type of immunity that occurs rarely following protozoan infections

A

absolute immunity to reinfection

72
Q

type of immunity that is important in modifying the severity of disease in endemic areas

A

acquired immunity

73
Q

an infection that causes massive intestinal bleeding which results in chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia

A

heavy hookworm infection

74
Q

it competes with its host for the supply of Vitamin B12 producing megaloblastic anemia

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

75
Q

types of non-specific defenses

A
  • Intact skin
  • Acidic pH of the vaginal secretion and
    gastric juice
  • Mucus secretions
  • Lipase content of breast milk
  • Coughing
  • Flushing action of urine
  • Cells in the body
  • Macrophages (phagocytosis)
76
Q

it provides effective surface
protection against microbial invasion

A

intact skin

77
Q

it regulate T-lymphocyte activities

A

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

78
Q

gamma interferons & interleukin 2; activates cytotoxic lymphocytes (CD8)

A

Th1 lymphocytes

79
Q

interleukins 4, 5, & 6 enhance proliferation & differentiation of B lymphocytes

A

Th2 lymphocytes

80
Q

bound to mucosal mast cells, eosinophils, & goblet cells
* involve in expulsion & cytocidal action on some parasites, antibody dependent cellmediated cytotoxicity mediated by eosinophil activating factor (EAF), interleukin 5’ (IL5), & granulocyte monocyte colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF)

A
  • IgE
81
Q

can act on mast cells and basophils

A

homocytotrophic IgG1

82
Q

prevent penetration of erythrocytes by
Plasmodia spp. & Babesia spp.

A

Combined activity of IgG & IgM

83
Q

protect against metacestode and gastrointestinal infections

A
  • Secretory IgA
84
Q

mediate ADCC in Giardia lamblia infection

A

IgM

85
Q

help cleave the parasite from enterocytes
(Cryptosporidium spp.)

A
  • IgA, IgG w/ CMI
86
Q

Reduce the immune function of macrophages

A

Immune Suppression

87
Q

it diminished production of
lymphokines & immunoglobulins

A

Trypanosoma gambiense (trypomastigotes)

88
Q

The parasites had changed the antigenic profile of its surface coat

A

Antigenic Variation

88
Q

Antibodies produced against the parasite then fail to recognize non-self from
self-antigens

A

Host mimicry

89
Q

Able to escape the host immune response

A

Intracellular Sequestration

90
Q

Provided with nucleus/nuclei,
cytoplasm, outer limiting
membrane, organelles

A

Protozoa

90
Q

what are the locomotory apparatus of protozoa?

A

cilia, flagella, pseudopodia

91
Q

why protozoa require wet environment?

A

for feeding, locomotion,
osmoregulation, & reproduction

91
Q

it is the infective stages of protozoa, relatively resistant

A

cyst

91
Q

it is the vegetative stages of protozoa

A

trophozoite

91
Q

where kingdom protozoa belong?

A

protista

91
Q

it is the only ciliated protozoan

A

balantidium coli

91
Q

Also known as roundworms. it has elongated, cylindrical , bilateral
symmetry, complete digestive tract and separate sexes & some are parthenogenetic. Found in the small and large intestines , some are found
outside the intestine

A

nematodes

91
Q

they are segmented parasites with an anterior scolex, neck, and strobila.

A

cestodes (tapeworms)

91
Q

they reside in the intestines of definitive hosts, and the larval stage is encysted in the tissues of the intermediate host.

A

adult tapeworms (hermaphroditic)

91
Q

it is an
anterior structure which is
the main organ of attachment of the worm to the definitive host

A

scolex

91
Q

it is considered the region of growth, because segmentation or strobilization originates from it.

A

neck

91
Q

what are only two orders of tapeworms
with medical and public health significance?

A

Order Pseudophyllidea and Order
Cyclophyllidea.

91
Q

it is the spatulate scolex with sucking grooves of a Pseudophyllidean tapeworms

A

bothria

91
Q

it is globular with four muscular suckers.

A

Cyclophyllidean scolex

91
Q

it has a uterine pore which allows release of eggs from the gravid uterus.

A

Pseudophyllidean segments

91
Q

they do not have the uterine pore and they
undergo the process of apolysis whereby gravid segments are detached from the main body of the worm and eggs are eventually released.

A

Cyclophyllidean
segments

91
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93
Q

presence of this factor increases the susceptibility to Plasmodium vivax infections

A

Duffy blood factor

93
Q

a type of diet that is not suitable for the development of intestinal protozoans

A

diet rich in protein

93
Q

a type of diet that favors amebiasis

A

low-protein diet

93
Q

infection that causes massive intestinal bleeding which results in chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia

A

heavy hookworm infection

94
Q

it is important in modifying the severity of disease in endemic areas

A

acquired immunity

94
Q

it competes with its host for supply of vitamin b12 producing megaloblastic anemia

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

95
Q

a type of diet that favors the development of some tapeworms

A

high carbohydrate diet

96
Q

it occurs rarely following protozoan infections

A

absolute immunity to reinfection

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115
Q

what are the different types of non specific defenses?

A
  • intact skin
  • acidic pH of the vaginal secretion and gastric juice
115
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116
Q

it diminished the production of lymphokines and immunoglobulins

A

Trypanosoma gambiense

116
Q

the parasites had changed the antigenic profile of its surface coat

A

antigenic variation

117
Q

antibodies produced against the parasite then fail to recognize non-self from self-antigens

A

host mimicry

118
Q

able to escape the host immune response

A

intracellular sequestration

119
Q

it is provided with nucleus/nuclei, cytoplasm, outer limiting membrane, organelles

A

Protozoa

120
Q

what are the locomotory apparatus of protozoa?

A

cilia, flagella, pseudopodia

121
Q

why protozoans require wet environment?

A

for feeding, locomotion, osmoregulation, and reproduction

122
Q
A
123
Q
A
124
Q
A
125
Q
A
126
Q
A
127
Q
A
128
Q
A
129
Q

they reside in the intestines of definitive hosts, while larvae encyst in intermediate hosts.

A

adult tapeworms

130
Q

it usually occurs through the consumption of infected intermediate hosts

A

transmission

131
Q

they are composed of flukes

A

trematodes

132
Q

type of trematodes that has oral sucker and a ventral sucker, and genital sucker

A

adult trematodes

133
Q

what do you call the oral sucker and ventral sucker?

A

acetabulum

134
Q

what do you call the genital sucker

A

gonotyl