Introduction to Joint DIsease Flashcards

1
Q

Define

mono

poly

oligo

A

mono-1 joint

oligo- 2-3 joint (Pauci)

poly-4 or more joints

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2
Q

What is the function of synovial joints?

A

allow gliding movement facilitated by lubricated cartilagenous surfaces

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3
Q

What tyoe of collagen is present in hyaline cartilage? what is the function of hyaline cartilage? where is it found?

A
  • on articular surfaces
  • function: elastic shock absorber spreads weight across surface of joint
  • friction-free surface (along with synovial fluid)
  • type 2 collagen: tensile strength
  • chondrocytes maintain cartilagenous matrix
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4
Q

what is a synovial cavity? What is the function of synovial cavity?

A
  • synovial cells line synovial cavity: cuboidal cells 1-4 layers thick
  • function: produe synovial fluid, remove debris, regulate movement of solutes, electrolytes and proteins from capillaries into synovial fluid
  • not present over articular cartilage
  • contains synovial fluid
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5
Q

What is the function of synovial fluid?

A

viscous filtrate of plasma hyaluronic acid

functions as a lubricant and provides nutrients to articular cartilage

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6
Q

What features should be found grosly on a healthy synovial joint?

A
  • blue/white transparency
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7
Q

What is the significance of timing when thinking about arthritis pain?

A

need to know if it is chronic or acute bc that helps you to decide if it is most likely infectious, inflammatory or non inflammaotry. acute is usually infectious

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8
Q

WHat things do you look for on physical exam for arthritis?

A
  • observation
    • deformities, redness, swelling, asymmetry
  • palpation
    • bony/hard, tender, warm, synovitis(thickening of synovium round joints leading to tender and “squishy” fell with firm palpation
  • Function
    • range of motion, pain with movement
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9
Q

What lab tests are done to assess for arthritis?

A
  • Generic markers of inflammation
    • Erythrocyte Sedimentation rate (“Sed rate”)
    • C reactive protein
    • anemia (of chronic disease)
    • leukocytosis (high whit eblood cell count)
  • Serology- ie presence of autoantibodies
    • rheumatoid factor
    • CCP Antibody
    • Anti-nuclear antigen (ANA)
  • Synovial (joint) fluid analysis
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10
Q

If inflammation is occuring will the sedimentation rate be high or low?

A

high!

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11
Q

what things raise the sedementation rate? do they change fast or slow? what things falsely elevate it?

A
  • rasie:
    • infection (most common)
    • malignancy
    • autoimmune/inflammatory conditions
  • ****changes slowly****
  • decrease:
    • low fibrinogen
    • polycythenia vera
    • sickle cell
    • sperocytosis
  • artificially elevate sed rate
    • ESRD
    • Anemia
    • Obesity
    • Age
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12
Q

WHat is C reactive protein?

A
  • small molecule that binds dying cells and/or pathogens
  • rapid response within hours of tissue injury
  • synthesized in liver
  • very high C reactive protein level suggests bacterial infection
  • High sensitivity CRP (hsCRP)
    • measuring the exact same molceule, just an assay that can detect lower concentratios. hsCRP elevations linked to increased cardiovascular disease
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13
Q

What 2 factors are used serologically to look for rheumatoid arthritis and what are the differences between these two measures? which is a better predictor for RA

A
  • Rheumatoid factor
    • autoantibosy that binds Fc region of human IgG
    • 70% sensitivity for rheumatoid arthritis, 80% specificity
    • false positive exist (hepC, sjorgen, primary biliary cirrhosis, multiple myeloma, healthy ppl)
  • Anti-Cyclic Citrillinated Peptide Antibody (CCP)
    • 70% sensitivity for RA, >90% specificity. BETTER PREDICTOR
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14
Q

What doeas ANA stand for? WHat are the autoantibodies for

systemic lupus

sjogren’s

mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)

Scleroderma

Inflammatory myopathy

Drug induced lupus

A

Antinuclear Antibody! Test looking for autoantibodies

  • systemic lupus-Double stranded DNA, SSA (RO), Smith
  • sjogren’s- SSA (RO), SSB (LA)
  • mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)- RNP
  • Scleroderma-Scl-70
  • Inflammatory myopathy-Jo-1
  • Drug induced lupus-Histone
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15
Q

What is a string sign?

A

normal jont fluid should be viscous, if it is liek water then it is probably an inflammaed joitn

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16
Q

Depending on the clinical scenario, synovial fluid should be analyzed for:

If WBCs are over what value should we be alarmed?

A

cell count

crystals

culture and sensitivity (if septic arthritis is suspected)

cytology (if malignancy is suspected)

if WBCs are over 2000 we should think inflammation

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17
Q

What is gout? WHat percentage of the population has gout? what gender has more gout?

A
  • very inflammatory arthritis linked to metabolic disorders resulting in elevation of blood uric acid (hyperuricemia) and pro inflammaotry crystals in the joint (although in acute flare values are often low so don’t bother checking blood)
  • 4% of pop but rising due to rising BMI. more men but after menopause pretty even
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18
Q

There are 2 main ways to get hyperuricemia. What are these 2 ways and what things can lead to these?

A
  • overproduction (10%)
    • inherited enzyme defects
    • myeloproliferative disroders
    • purin-rich diet
    • alcohol
  • underexcretion
    • renal failure
    • metabolic syndrome/obesity
    • diuretics
    • alcohol
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19
Q

what is the clinical presentation of acute gout?

A
  • abrupt onset of severe pain
  • most commonly monoarticular involving lower extremity
  • exam shows synovitis with redness, swelling and extreme tenderness over the joint
  • self-limited and resolves in 8-10 days untreated
  • *
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20
Q

the triggers to an acute gout flare are not well understoof but what is thought to cause an acute flare?

A
  • probably release of crystals from pre-formed deposits
  • changes in temperature, fluid status, and purine load (steak and beer)
  • use of diuretic, particularly thiazide diuretics
  • often occur in setting of acute illness
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21
Q

What is Birefrgence?

A

a test to look for uric acid crystals. you are looking for monosodium crystals that shoul be needle shaped. if it is negatively bifringent and yellow and parallel to the light then it si gout

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22
Q

what is chronic tophaceous arthritis? what are tophi?

A
  • repetitive episodes of gout where urates encrust articular surfaces and form deposits that destroy cartilage
  • tophi are large aggregates of urate crystals that are surrounded by lymphocytes and giant cells and fibroblasts
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23
Q

WHat things are often seen with gout?

A
  • chronic polyarticular pattern
  • tophaceuous gout pattern
    • invlvement of great toe
    • bone and cartilage erosion by urate deposits forming a tophus
  • Bifringence
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24
Q

what are the therapeutic goals for Gout?

A

increased excretion of uric acid

inhibit inflammatory cells

inhibit uric acid biosyntheis

provide symptomatic relief (typically with NSAIDS or steroids short term)

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25
Q

How shoudl NSADs be involved in the treatment of gout?

A

withing the first 24 hours

indomethacin and naproxen

NOT ASPIRIN

but remember that there are contraindications to NSAID (GI, platelets, renal, hypersensitivity)

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26
Q

why shouldn’t we use aspirin for gout?

A

Salicylic acid specific effect

  • dose dependent effect: low doses of aspirin decrease uric acid excretion bc there is a small secretory component in the neprhon for urate and this secretory portion is sensitive to low doses of salicylates. meaning they stop secretion. this leads to a build up of salicylates
  • large doses actually incerase excretion, but we still just don’t give aspriing in gout due to the low dose influence on uric acid secretion
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27
Q

How can low dose corticosteroids be involved in gout treatment?

A

symptomatic relief in patients that can’t take NSAID, short term use due to adverse effects that occur with extended use

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28
Q

WHat is the drug colchicine used for? what is its MOA? How is it given? How is it metabolized? how is it absorpbed?

A
  • therapeutic use: Cochicine is used for acute gout attacks within hours or prophylactically in pts. with chronic gout
  • MOA: anti-mitotic. binds to microtubules in inflammatory cell (PMNs) and inhibits neutrophil activation and migration by arresting cells division in G1 by interferring with microtubules. if inflammatory cells can’t respond then there is not as much inflammation!
  • pharmacokinetics: oral, rapid absorption but variable, deposits in tissue stores/forms complex w tubulin (large volume of distribution),
    • metabolized by :CYP450s, substrate for P-glycoprotein which is a transmembrane ptoein that eliminates drugs) so think about drug drug interactiosn w colchcine
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29
Q

What is P-glycoprotein pump?

A

a pump (transmembrane protein) that eliminates drugs

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30
Q

What are the adverse effects and contraindications for colchicine?

A
  • adverse efffects: significant! narrow therapeutic toxicity window.
    • GI (nausea, vominiting, diarrhes, abdominal pain)
    • usually a latent period before symptoms but it effects the rapid proliferatin cells of the GI
    • these GREATLY limit the use of the drug
  • contraindications
    • ​hepatic or renal disease (decrease dose or less frequent doses), elderly patients,
    • especially if they are tkainf a CYP3A4 or P-gp inhibitor bc it would increase the concentration of colchicine
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31
Q

what are some non-pharmacological measures to prevent/treat gout?

A
  • abstain from alcohol
  • weight loss
  • discontinue medicines that impair uric acid excretion like aspirin or thiazide diuretics
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32
Q

what 4 drugs (besides colchine) can be used to PREVENT gout flare and destructive effects on joint snd kidneys

A

allopurinol

febuxostat

probenecid

pegloticase

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33
Q

What is the therapetuic use for allopurinol? what is its mechanism of action? how is it metabolized? what are the adverse effects?

A
  • therapeutic use: prevention of primary hyperurecemia of chronic gout
    • severe forms of gouty nephrology, tophaceous deposits, renal urate stones (also management of hyperuricemias associated w chemo/radiation)
  • Mechanism of action: blocks xanthine oxidase (last stepish in the uric acid production pathway)
  • pharmacokinetics: metabolized to an active compoud(oxypurinol) so allopurinol’s half life is only 1-2 hours, but once it is metabolized it is metabolized to oxypurinol whose half life is 18-30 hours, ad this is still active in prevention of uric acid synthesis
  • adverse effect: hypersensitivity, acute gout attack bc mobilizes tissue stores of uric acid so you would give this drug w cochicine or NSAID
34
Q

WHat is the MOA of febuxostat? what are the advantages of febuxosat over allopurinol?

A
  • Febuxostat is a newer drug and a non-purine xanthine oxidase inhibitor
  • more potent
  • more effective than allopurinol in the subset of patients with impaired renal function
  • adverse effects similar to allopurinol
  • the incidence of CV side effects was higher with Allopurinol than febuxostat
35
Q

what is the MOA for Pegloticase? what are the adverse effects of pegloticase?

A

(gout)

  • recombinant form of urate-oxidase enzyme (uricase) which is normally absent in humans and conveerts uric acid to allantoin which is an inactive water soluble metabolite
    • there is a PEGylates glycol covalently linked to the moelcule
  • adverse effects: infusion site rxns, gout flare (so need prophylaxis for acute flares) immune response (directed at PEG portion of molecule)
36
Q

What is probenecid?

A
  • Use: a uricosuric agent (monotherapy). it is a drug that increases the rate of excretion of uric acid
  • MOA: increase uric acid excretion by competing with the renal tubular acid transporter so that less urate is reabsorbed into the urine (OAT aka URAT1)
37
Q

When are the adverse effects of probenecid?

A
  • some GI effects, ineffective in pts w renal insufficiency
  • contraindicated in patient with uric acid kidney stones
  • use when don’t respond to xanthine oxidase inhibitor (like allopurinol)
38
Q
  • drug interactions for allopurinol or fexobuxostat
  • drug interactions for cochiine
  • drug interactions for probenecid
A
  • allopurinol or febuxostat: inhibit the metabolism of azathiorine and mercaptopurine so increased toxicity with these drugs
  • cochicine: susceptible to inhibition of CYP3A4 metabolism and P-gp transport
  • Probenecid: interference with renal excretion of drugs that undergo active tubular secretion, especially weak acids
39
Q

which gout drugs have an inhibitory effect and which have a stimulatory effect?

A
  • inhibitory:
    • XO inhibitors: Allopurinol (oxypurinol), febuxostat
    • NASIDS, colchicine, steroids
  • stimulatory:
    • uricosurics: probenecid
    • uricases: pegloticase
40
Q

what is Rhuematoid Arthritis? hat is the worldwide prevelance? men or women?

A
  • inflmmatory symmetric chronic polyarthritis
  • immunological disease (both T and B cells)
  • genetic predisposition (HLA-DR4, HLA-DR1)
    • 1st degree relatives of an RA patient at 1.5 fold higher risk of developing the disease
  • WWP: 1%, women over men
41
Q

what is the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • dendritic (antigen-presenting) cells phagocytose anitgens and present them to T cells
  • activated T cells stimulate the production of B and T cells
  • B cells produce plasma cells that form rheumatoid antibodies
  • Helper T cells activate macrophages and cytotoxic T cells
  • Togteher, T cells, macrophages, and cytotoxic T cells produce cytoxic cytokines (TNFa, IL1, IL6 and others) and prostaglandins that cause joint inflammation, synovial proliferation and bone and caritlage destruction
42
Q

what is the clinical presenation of Rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • gradual onset of joint pain, swelling and inflammation present for greater than 6 weeks
  • symmetrical in nture and often involving small joints (MCP, PIP, but NOT DIP)
  • morning stiffness lasting longer than 1 hour
  • elevated markers of inflamamtion and abnormal serology
43
Q

what are 3 deformities often seen with RA?

A
  • swan neck deformity
  • boutiniere deformity
  • RA nodules
  • **usually see ulnar deviation and erosion
44
Q

Is RA just a joint diease?

A

no!

there are several extra-articular manifestations

rheumatoid vasculitis

interstitial lung disease

premature coronary artery disease

secondary sjorgens syndrome

feltys syndrome (big spleen. low WBC count)

45
Q

What is a panus?

A
  • a covering that grows and covers up the cartilgae and the synvoium within it are inflammatory cells there are aslo inflammatory cells in the snovial fluid
  • papillary strucutres composed of synovial hyperplasia, lymphoid infiltrates, and fibrin
46
Q

What is the pathology of Rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • chronic papillary synovitis (finger-like projections)
    • chronic inflammation of the synovium: CD4+ T cells, plasms cells and macrophages, giant cells
      • frequently forming lympohoid follicles
    • accompanied by synovial cell hyperplasia
      • results in papillary pattern on the surface of the synovium
    • PMNs and fibrin on joint surfaces in acute phase
    • Hyperplastic inflammed synovium extends over the articular surface forming a pannus which fills the joint space
      • Overtime articular cartilag is destroyed
      • increased osteoclast activity in underlying bone causing bone to be eroded (destroyed)
      • end result may be joint fusion (ankylosis) due to fibrosisossification
      • Osteophytes and new bone formation are not prominent (unlike osteoarthritis)
47
Q

What are rheumatoid nodules?

A
  • develop most commonly on skin (subcutaneous) in areas exposed to pressure (extensor surface of forearm and elbow)
    • less than 25% (severe disease)
    • less commonly in viscera
  • grossly: non-tender, firm, oval.round
  • microscopically: central zone of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by rim of epithelail histocytes and then lymphocytes and plasma cells
  • causes of nodules: necrosis secondary to vascular damage possibly secondary to vasculitis (inflammation of the vessel walls) associated with RA
48
Q

What are the therapeutic goals for RA?

A

relieve pain, reduce inflammation, slow down or stop joint dmage, imrove a person’s sense of well being adn ability to function

49
Q

How can NSAIDs be used to treat RA?

A

no effect on progression of disease, only relieves symptoms of pain. be careful about ulcers!!

50
Q

What are DIsease Modifying Anti-RHeumatic Biologic Respinse Modifiers (DMARDs)?

A

class of drugs that include monoclonal antibodies, receptor analogues, and small molecules that are involved in modiying the disease process!

51
Q

What is the half-life os these biologics fro RA and what is the significance of this?

A

the half-life is 21 days for human mAbs. Long half-life=infrequent administration!!

this is important because a lot of these drugs are administered parenterally (subQ 24-95% bioavailable, intramuscular 24-95%, IV 100%)

they are distributed extracellularyl and don’t cross the BBB

52
Q

What are some adverse effects of therapeutic acntibodies and biologics used to treat RA?

A
  • generally safe and well tolerated
  • immunogenicity: generation of endogenous antibodies against the therapeutic ntibodies
    • neutalize therapeutic antibodies, or cause hypersensitivity reactions
  • Increased risk of serious infections
    • bacterial (opportunistic-due to imunosuppresion) and TB (screen for latent TB before beginnin treatment bc of increased risk of reactivation of latent TB)
53
Q

What are teh therapeutic indications for Etanercept? What is the mechanism of action? what is the half-life? what are the adverse effects?

A
  • TI: moderate to severe RA, juvenile RA, early stage RA
  • MOA: inhibits the ability of TNF-a to bind to its receptor (inhibits solble form of TNFa)
  • long half-life
  • adverse effects: injection site reactions or infections
54
Q

What are the therapeutic indications for Adalimumab? MOA> half-life? adverse effects?

A
  • TI: active moderate to severe RA, junvenile idiopathic arthritis, alone or in combo with methotrexate
  • MOA: binds to soluble and transmembrane forms of TNFa to prevent binding of TNFa to its receptor (remember etanercept was just the soluble form)
  • long half-life
  • adverse effects: injection site recations, infections
55
Q

Difference betweeen etanercept and adalimumab?

A

adalimumab- bind m-TNF and s-TNF and induce apoptosis of the expressing cells of TNF (ones that make it)

Etanercept- only s-TNF

56
Q

Therapeutic use of Tocilizumab? MOA? half life? adverse effect?

A
  • TI: adult patients with moderately to severly active RA who have had an inadequate response to one or more TNF agents
  • MOA: binds to soluble and membrane bound Il-6 receptors and inhibits Il-6 mediated signaling via these receptors (remember Il-6 activates T cells, B cells, macrophages, and osteocalsts and mediator of acute phase resonse)
  • long half-life
  • adverse effects: injection site reactions, increased risk of infections, alterations in lipid profile (increases in total cholesterol, triglycerides, LDL, and/or HDL
57
Q

TI for Tofacitinib? MOA? adverse effects? administration

A
  • TI: treatment of moderately to severely active RA in patients who have had an inadequate response or intolerance to methotrexate
  • MOA: inhibits Janus kinase (JAK) enzymes which are intracellular enzymes involved in stimulating immune function
  • oral administration
  • adverse:
    • increase risk of infections, alteration in lipid profiel (increases in total cholesterol, triglycerides, LDL and/or HFL)
58
Q

Therapeutic use for Rituximab? MOA? half-life? adverse effects?

A
  • TI: moderately to severely active RA (in combo w methrotrexate) in adult patients with inadequate response to one or more TNF antagonists
  • MOA: B cell-depleting monocolonal anti-CD20 antibody
    • CDC, ADCC
  • long half-life
  • adverse: injection site reactions, increased risk of infections
59
Q

Abatacept MOA? adverse? TI? half-life?

A

**RA**

  • inhibiting the binding to CD28 therefore preventing the activation of T cells (interfing with co-stimulation) Abatacept contains CTLA-4 that binds CD80/86 so CD28 can’t! (fusion protein CTLA-4=endogenous ligand for CD28)
  • long half-life
  • adverse effect: injection sit ereactions, infections
  • TI: moderately to severely active RA in adults inadequate response to one or more DMARDs or TNF inhibitors
60
Q

Site of action of

  • Abatacept:
  • Methotrexate and leflunomide:
  • Etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab, golimumab, and certolizumab:
  • Anakinra:
  • Tocilizumab:
  • glucocorticoids:
  • NSAIDs:
A
  • Abatacept: blocks co-stimulation of T cells
  • Methotrexate and leflunomide: inhibit the proliferation and activity of B cells and T cells
  • Etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab, golimumab, and certolizumab: inactivate TNF a
  • Anakinra: block the activation of I-L-1,
  • Tocilizumab: inactivates IL-6
  • glucocorticoids: inhibit T cell activation and IL-2 production by regulation of gene transcription, and inhibit formation of prostaglandins
  • NSAIDs: inhibit formation of prostaglandins
61
Q

What are the Disease modifying anti-rheumatic non-biologics (DMARDs)

A

Methotrexate, leflunomide, hydroxychloroquine

62
Q

MOA of Methrotrexate

A
  • it is a structural analog to folic acid. it inhibits the folate pathway (therefore purine and pyrimidine synthesis). works by blocking dihydrofolate reducatse
  • accumulation of adensoine has anti-inflammatory effects
63
Q

How is MTX administered? common toxicities?

A
  • long-term, low-dose therapy oral, IM or SubQ
  • common toxicities are GI (nausea), stomatitis or soreness of the mouth, rash on extremities, CNS (headache fatigue) and hemtologic abnormalities
64
Q

What is the initial treatment plan for RA?

A
  • GOAL=remission
  • Non-biologic DMARD: Methotrexate
  • alternative include other non-biologics like leflunomide or sulfasalazine or the DMARD Biologic, TNFa inhibitors
  • symptomatic reliefs with NSAIDs
65
Q

What is osteoarthritis? is it common? What are the risk factors?

A
  • progressive, degenerative joint disroder caused by gradual loss of cartilage which results in bony spurs at margins joints and subchondral cysts
  • most common cause of arthritis in adults
  • risk fctors
    • female gebder
    • advanced age
    • genetic predisposition
    • obesity
    • diabetes
    • trauma
66
Q

how does osteoarthritis present clinically?

A
  • Non-inflammatory joint pain
    • worse w activity
    • minutes of morning stiffness (remember RA was an hour)
    • brief stiffess after prolonged immobility (“gelling”)
    • associated with “crunching” (loud joint)
67
Q

what are features of late stage osteoarthritis vs late stage RA?

A
  • Osteo:
    • fusiform swelling of joint
    • Herden’s nodes (bony enlargement of DIP joints. remember RA spares DIP)
  • RA:
    • Boutonniere deformity of thumb
    • ulnar deviation of metacarophalngeal joints
    • swan nech deformities
68
Q

How do we diagnose Osteoarthritis?

A
  • primarily based on joint distribution, character of pain, and exam findings
    • blood tests not helpful
    • X-rays not required (controversial)
    • synovial fluid aspiration may rule out other types of arthritis (non-inflamm aka osteo synovial fluid the WBC count would be less than 2000, whereas inflamm like RA WBC would be greater than 2000)
69
Q

WHat is the general pathogenesis of ostero arthritis

A

imbalance in cytokine and growth factor activity resulting in matrix loss and degradation (breakdown of normal physiologic process)

70
Q

what are the early changes seen with osteo arthritis?

A
  • superficial layers of cartilage are destroyed fibrilation and crackling of the cartilage matrix
  • limited chondrocyte proliferation and new matrix formation
71
Q

what happen with osteoarthritis? physical changes/pathology?

A
  • absence of articular cartilage; polished appearance of exposed bone (eburnation)
  • subchondral sclerosis: more dense bone develops underneath areas where cartilage is gone
  • subchondral cyst: formed by break in cartilage; this allows synovial fluid to be forced into subchondral space, forming fibrous walled cyst
  • osteophyte formation: bony outgrowth develops at margins of articular surface in characteristic locations fo specific joints; results in increased joint size
    • hip joint: all around entire joint margin, typically flat ostephyte on medial surfac extending to fovea
    • distal interphalangeal joint: Heberden nodes
    • proximal interphalangeal joint: Bouchard nodes
72
Q

What are some therapies for OA?

A
  • weight loss, exercise, physical therapy
  • intra-articular therapies, corticosteroid, hyaluronans
  • topical therapies: capsaicin, salicylates, menthol
  • systemic: acetaminophen, duloxetine, NSAIDs
73
Q

What is the MOA for capsaicin? how is it administered? adverse effects? use?

A
  • use: OTC temporary treatment of pain associated w muscles and joints due to backache, strains, sprains, bruises, cramps, arthritis
  • MOA: agnosite for the TRPV1 receptor (transmembrane receptor ion-channel)
    • induces release of substance P (mediator from pain impulses from the periphery to the CNS) after repeated application, capsaicin depletes the neuron of substance P and prevents reaccumulation
    • adverse: local transient application sit reations, pain and erythmeia
74
Q

What is involed in the pain pathwat?

A
  • pain signals detced by nociceptors in periphery and carried to the dorsal horn or the spinal cord
  • nociceptors synapse with second-order neurons and carry the signal up the spinal cord
  • projection neurons relay pain signals to the brainstem. signals propagated to different areas of the brain. both facilitating and inhibtory descedning pathways (black arrows) modulate pain transmission. Descending inhibitory pathways release NE and 5-HT. SNRISs target desceding inhibitory athways
75
Q

TI for Duloxetine? MOA/ Side effects?

A

use: FDA approved from chronic musculoskeletal pain

MOA: centrally acting oral analgesic, Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRI) lower dose adn faster acting pain relief effect than anti-depressant effect

side effects: nausea, dry mouth, constipation,

76
Q

What are 2 symtpomatic slow-acting drugs for OA (SYSADOA)

A
  • Glucosamine Sulfate
    • aminosaccharide
    • MOA principal substrate in the biosynthesis of proteoglycan, which is essential for maintaining cartilage integrity (helps w proteoglycan synthesis which maintains cartilage integrity)
  • Chondroitin Sulfate
    • glycosaminoglycan
    • MOA:
      • maintains viscosity in joints
      • stimulate cartilage repair mechanisms,
      • inhibit enzymes that break down cartilage
77
Q

how does the FDA view Glucosamine and Chondroitin?

A

dietary supplements

effectiveness of these remains to be established. regulated as food

78
Q

What is Hyaluronic Acid (HA)? what is it s MOA, therapuetic use and adverse effects?

A
  • polysaccharide composed of glucosamine and glucuronic acid (exists in normal synovial fluid)
  • MOA: inhibiting inflammatory mediators, decreasing cartilage degradation, promoting cartilage matrix synthesis
  • Yse: approved for treating OA of knee, ppl who can’t take NSAIDS, doesnt slow progression of OA
  • injections 1 daily for 3 weeks
  • adverse effects: joint inflammation, small risk of infection
79
Q

How are opioids used for Osteoarthritis?

A

no high quality evidence that opioids improve function more than nonopioid analgesics

80
Q

A patient has RA. You need to give them what 3 classesof drgs and what are examples of each?

A
  1. comfort:
    1. NSAIDS, prednisone
  2. Disease modfying agent (“traditional” DMARD)
    1. methotrexate (1st line)
    2. sulfasalazine
    3. leflunomide
    4. hydroxychloroquine
  3. Pending response add biologic
    1. TNFa inhibitor (adalimumab, etanercept)
    2. abatacept (blcoking the T cell-costimulation)
    3. TOcilizumab (Il-6 inhibitor)
    4. Tofactinib (Jak-kinase inhibitor)
    5. Rituximab
81
Q
A