Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Human Diseases > Introduction to Haematology > Flashcards

Introduction to Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

How many cells do we have in our body?

A

35-40 trillion cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many white and red cells do we produce in a minute?

A

White 5-7 million/minute
Red 100-150 million/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many cells in total divide in a minute?

A

Somewhere between 200-300 million cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the cells involved in haematopoiesis from the multipotent stem cell?

A

Multipotent stem cell - haematopoietic stem cell
Primitive progenitor cells - common myeloid progenitor & common lymphoid progenitor
Committed precursor cells - (CMP) megakaryocyte and erythroid progenitor, granulocyte and macrophage progenitor; (CLP) T-cell and natural killer cell progenitor, B-cell progenitor
Lineage committed cells - (MEP) megakaryocyte->platelets, erythrocyte progenitor->erythrocytes; (GM) monocyte progenitor->macrophage/monocyte/dendritic cell, granulocyte progenitor->neutrophil/basophil/eosinophil; (TNK) T-cell progenitor->T-cell, natural killer cell progenitor->NK cell; (BCP) B-cell; (CLP) dendritic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which components of the blood are seen in a normal FBC?

A

Platelets
Neutrophils/WBC
Red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What condition is seen in iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Angular stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What determines iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Microcytic hypochromic RBCs (pale/small)
Low haemoglobin (Hb)/Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)/Ferritin levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the causes of iron deficiency?

A

Dietary deficiency
Malabsorption
Blood loss
GI tract conditions eg coeliac and Crohn’s
Menorrhagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What deficiency is a smooth tongue an indication of?

A

B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of anaemia is caused by vitamin B12 or B9 (Folate) deficiency?

A

Macrocytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How long does folate stored in the body usually last?

A

4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the main sources of folate?

A

Leafy vegetables
Fruits
Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the main sources of B12?

A

Meat
Fish
Eggs
Dairy
Fortified breakfast cereals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where are folates usually absorbed?

A

Duodenum and jejunum (small intestine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is B12 usually absorbed?

A

Ileum (small intestine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long does the body supply of B12 usually last?

A

2-6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What protein is involved in the absorption of B12?

A

Intrinsic factor (IF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Apart from a smooth tongue, what may occur in B12 deficiency?

A

Macroglossia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do neutrophils and red cells look like in macrocytic anaemia?

A

Hypersegmented (extensive lobing) neutrophils and large red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What will the blood test results of a patient with macrocytic anaemia show?

A

Low Hb
High MCV (large RBCs)
Low B12 and folate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What can cause folate deficiency?

A

Reduced intake
Increased requirements/demands eg pregnancy
Malabsorption eg coeliac disease
Alcoholism
Drugs eg septrin & methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What can cause B12 deficiency?

A

Inadequate intake
Low gastric acid (10-30% patients with partial gastrectomy)
Intrinsic factor antibodies against parietal cells (pernicious anaemia)
Abnormal terminal ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How to diagnose B12 and folate deficiency?

A

Measure red cell folate levels
Measure vitamin B12 levels
Measure intrinsic factor antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How to treat B12 and folate deficiency?

A

Identify underlying cause
Oral folate replacement
Lifelong injections of B12 (every 3 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Apart from B12/folate deficiency, what can cause macrocytic anaemia?

A

Drugs eg methotrexate
Alcohol
Myelodysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is myelodysplasia?

A

A type of rare blood cancer where blood cells are poorly formed or don’t function properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are petechiae?

A

Small red dots on the hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where may petechiae manifest on apart from hard palate?

A

Legs (bruises)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Can we give dental treatments to patients with petechiae?

A

No as patient will bleed excessively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What causes petechiae?

A

Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Recent infection eg mononucleosis/glandular fever
Bone marrow infiltration eg acute leukaemia
Bone marrow failure syndromes eg aplastic anaemia, myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Petechiae presents due to reduced _________

A

Platelets

32
Q

What disease is gingival hyperplasia seen in?

A

Acute leukaemia

33
Q

What do primary marrow disorders such as acute leukaemia usually present with?

A

Bruising
Bleeding
Infection
Skin rash
Lymphadenopathy
Gum hypertrophy

34
Q

What may primary marrow disorders treatment include?

A

Bone marrow transplantation

35
Q

What is the 5-year-prognosis/survival rate depending on leukaemia type and treatment?

A

30-70%

36
Q

Which patients have a poorer leukaemia prognosis?

A

Elderly

37
Q

What treatment is osteonecrosis of the jaw associated with?

A

Bisphosphonate

38
Q

Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a severe ____ disease affecting the jaws leading to ______, probably _______ related

A

Bone, necrosis, ischaemia

39
Q

_________-containing bisphosphonates, especially ________ and __________, are associated with worse osteonecrosis.

A

Nitrogen, pamidronate, zoledronate

40
Q

Should bisphosphonates be stopped if dental extraction or root canal treatment is required?

A

Yes

41
Q

What should be given to patients treated with oral and intravenous bisphosphonates prior to oral surgery and why?

A

Antibiotics eg augmentin to avoid osteonecrosis and promote healing of the affected area

42
Q

Nearly all ________ patients are on bisphosphonates

A

Myeloma (bone marrow cancer)

43
Q

What is the median age of presentation of myeloma?

A

67 y/o

44
Q

What symptoms are present in myeloma patients?

A

Anaemia
Bone pain
Infection
Constipation
Stomach upsets secondary to hypercalcaemia

45
Q

What are the lab findings for myeloma?

A

Normochromic normocytic anaemia
Paraprotein
Bence Jones proteinuria
High plasma viscosity or erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

46
Q

What would a myeloma skull present in an X-ray?

A

Bare punched out holes

47
Q

Where does lymphomatous lesion affect?

A

Hard palate

48
Q

What is the clinical feature of lymphoma parotid?

A

Parotid swelling

49
Q

Axillary lymphadenopathy could be a more benign form of lymphoma or __________ ________ ________ (CLL)

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

50
Q

What are the 2 types of lymphoma?

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Hodgkin’s lymphoma

51
Q

What are the two different types of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

High-grade or aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Low-grade or indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma

52
Q

What is the cancer growth of high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Quickly and aggressively

53
Q

What is the cancer growth of low-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Slowly and may not experience any symptoms for many years

54
Q

How common is non-Hodgkin lymphoma compared to Hodgkins?

A

3 to 4 times as common as HD

55
Q

How many different subtypes are there under non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

~50

56
Q

Treatment of non-Hodgkin lymphoma depends on ___ and ______. It may be anything from innocuous oral chemotherapy to _________ chemotherapy and transplant. In terms of outcome, some subtypes are incurable but _________ for long periods, whereas others have a 5-year survival rate of ____ to ____%

A

Age, subtype, intensive, controllable, 30 to 40%

57
Q

What is mucositis?

A

Inflammation of the mucosal surfaces throughout the body

58
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of oral mucositis?

A

Erythema, inflammation, ulceration, haemorrhage in the mouth and throat

59
Q

When is oral mucositis frequently seen?

A

Post-chemotherapy and radiotherapy

60
Q

What can be used to get some relief from oral mucositis?

A

Mouthwashes
Anti-inflammatories

61
Q

According to the World Health Organisation’s Oral Toxicity Scale, what are the grades for severe mucositis?

A

Grade 3 and 4

62
Q

What are the 4 conditions that can coexist in immunocompromised patients and require differential diagnosis?

A

Petechiae or local, denture-related lesions
Oral thrush
Aphthous ulcer
Oral mucositis

63
Q

What can oral candidiasis be treated with?

A

First line - nystatin
Severe cases - oral fluconazole

64
Q

What can be used to treat reactivated herpes simplex?

A

Topical aciclovir

65
Q

What is herpes simplex virus 3 also known as?

A

Herpes zoster

66
Q

What does herpes zoster or HSV3 cause?

A

Shingles
Chickenpox/varicella

67
Q

How to treat shingles?

A

Oral aciclovir

68
Q

How are shingles distributed?

A

Dermatomal/centripedal distribution (more in trunks than limbs)

69
Q

What is the normal range of Hb in female?

A

11-18 g/dl

70
Q

What is the normal range of Hb in male?

A

13-18 g/dl

71
Q

What are the main types of anaemia and their indications?

A
  1. Iron deficiency - microcytic hypochromic RBCs
  2. Anaemia of chronic disease eg rheumatoid arthritis and chronic kidney disease - normocytic RBCs
  3. B12 & folate deficiency - macrocytic RBCs
72
Q

What is the normal white cell count?

A

4-11 x 10^9 per litre

73
Q

When will white cell count increase past the normal?

A

During infections or leukaemia

74
Q

When will white cell count decrease outside the normal?

A

Viral infections

75
Q

What is the normal platelet count?

A

150-400 x 10^9 per litre

Human Diseases (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions