Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IAP > Introduction to Animal Husbandry > Flashcards

Introduction to Animal Husbandry Flashcards

1
Q

What is wind-sucking/crib-biting?

A

A stereotypical equine behaviour created by inappropriate husbandry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does wind-sucking/crib-biting result in?

A

Mastication promotes saliva production for acidic digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the general factors that can increase the likelihood of dystocia?

A

Stress Genetics Poor feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the potential factors leading to the incidence of mastitis?

A

Over-milking Poor milking technique Poor cleanliness and hygiene Poor housing conditions Cross-contamination between individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When did domestication begin?

A

Approximately 10,000YA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What advantages are offered by domesticating animals?

A

Food Fabric Friendship Force Fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What factors were animals originally domesticated for?

A

Easily fed Rapid growth rate Breed freely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What reasons might mean that some species were not considered beneficial to domesticate?

A

Poor feed conversion in diet Carnivores Growth rate is too slow Difficulty breeding in captivity Nasty/unfavourable disposition Tendency to panic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the term ‘feral’ mean?

A

Return of domesticated animals to the wild environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the main types of grasses domesticated?

A

Wheat Maize Rice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How long is the gestation period for a sheep?

A

5mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many months are horses pregnant for?

A

11mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cows and horses are both what kind of breeders?

A

Long day breeders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Are sheep long or short day breeders?

A

Short day breeders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are homeothermic endotherms?

A

Animals that maintain their constant body temperature at 37-38.5ºC (mammals) or 40ºC (birds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do endothermic animals maintain their internal body temperature?

A

Metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the significance of maintenance energy, ME?

A

Maintaining of structural integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is production energy?

A

Energy used for growth, performing work, reproduction, lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the main routes via which energy is lost?

A

Evaporation

Convection

Conduction

Radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is energy lost through conduction?

A

Direct transfer of KE e.g. transfer of heat between touching objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is evaporation?

A

Vaporisation of surface H2O - latent heat of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is evaporation affected by?

A

Ambient temperature

Humidity

Air movement from skin + respiratory systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Of conduction, convection, radiation and evaporation, which of these are considered sensible and insensible heat losses?

A

Sensible = conduction, convection, radiation

Insensible = evaporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What animal adaptations are there towards their seasonal environments?

A

Seasonality of reproduction

Pelage

Metabolic rate

Appetite

Growth

Behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is radiation? What is it dependent on?

A

Loss of heat as electromagnetic radiation

  • dependent on emissivity of body surface ie. darker coats radiate and absorb more heat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What factors affect conduction transfer of heat?

A

Rate is influenced by area of animal in contact ie. lying down vs standing

Thermal conductance of substrate - straw, mud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is convection?

A

Transfer of heat contained in a gas or liquid by movement of that mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What sources provide heat gain for an animal?

A

Radiation

Useful dietary E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is heat balance managed internally within animals?

A

Negative feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What behavioural adaptions are desirable within cold environments?

A

Huddling

Withdrawing extremities

Seeking shelter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What physiological heat generating processes are there for enduring cold environments?

A

Increasing surface insulation - plumage, pelage

Increasing tissue insulation - SC fat

Countercurrent heat exchange

Thermogenesis - shivering, brown fat in neonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What behavioural heat dissipating processes are possible within hot environments?

A

Maximising body SA - thermal windows

Seek air movement (aids convection) and shade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What physiological adaptations are possible for enduring hot environments?

A

Minimise surface insulation

Increase emissivity - decreased plumage or pelage

Minimise tissue insulation - conduct heat to body surface through vasodilation

Minimise heat production - inactivity, decreased food intake

Evaporative cooling - panting, sweating, licking fur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does a comfort zone refer to?

A

An animal’s preferred range of ambient temperature within the TNZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the TNZ?

A

Thermal neutral zone - between the lower and upper critical temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What factors influence heat balance?

A

Body size and shape

Body insulation

Age of animal

Nutrition

Shelter

Relative humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Do larger or smaller animals produce most heat per unit weight?

A

Smaller animals per unit weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How is the thermal gradient for body insulation calculated?

A

Tcore - Tsurface = thermal gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is body insulation proportional to?

A

Depth of coat

Ability of coat to trap air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the domesticated species have spring and autumn moults?

A

Cattle

Horses

Pigs

Dogs

Cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which species only moults in the spring?

A

Sheep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does the ambient temperature have to be for reflex vasodilation to occur at extremities?

A

Ta < 5ºC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Why is heat conduction better in adult animals than young?

A

Young animals have not been able to develop sufficient SC fat for insulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why do young animals have higher LCTs and narrower TNZs than their adult counterparts?

A

Difference in body size and shape

Poor tissue and surface insulation

Wet birth coat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

By what means can neonates survive exposure to cold conditions when they are wet?

A

Increasing their metabolic rate - limited body reserves of glycogen and lipid

Activating brown adipose tissue

Non-shivering thermogenesis

Early colostrum intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe the typical features of an unconfiend animal environment.

A

Common in hilly and mountainous regions

Land is often unsuited for improvements

Often extensive grazing is most efficient use

May require enclosing at specific times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is ‘hefting’?

A

Refers to the ability of an animal to learn the location of its home farm when placed on areas of extensive grazing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Describe typical fields and paddocks as an animal environment.

A

Enclosed by walls, fences, hedges, ditches

Increased labour effort for maintenance

Increased costs for maintenance

Affected by stocking density, fertilisation, sward type and shelter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Describe the environment that housing/accommodation has to offer.

A

Protection for animals and labourers from adverse weather

Protects lands from animals in winter - poaching, overgrazing

Increased stocking densities

Most intensive management and control - indoor lambing

Increased productivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What features must a building’s design consider?

A

Walls alone or walls + roof

Floor - natural, solid, slatted

Access to yard or pasture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What considerations are there for ventilation in animal housing?

A

Replenishing depleted O2

Preventing accumulation of CO2 (<0.3%) and NH3 (<25ppm)

Prevent accumulation of moisture, heat, dust particles and disease through aerosol transmissoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What problems are associated with inadequate ventilation levels?

A

Increased incidence of disease

Reduced appetite (+ productivity)

Condensation problems

Increased susceptibility to chilling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Why does temperature need extensive control in animal housing?

A

Daily monitoring of minima and maxima

Adults rarely require modifications, unless:

  • horses - clipped, rugging up
  • cattle - clipping
  • sheep - shearing

Young animals require frequent temperature modification

  • altricial species always - kittens, puppies, chicks, piglets
  • precocial species frequently - lambs, foals, calves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What factors need to be considered when achieving an effective and healthy social system within housed animals?

A

Preferred group size

Group composition

Group stability

Stocking density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What different space allowances are there?

A

Legal minimum requirements

Species specific

Animal size - breed, fleece, horns

Specific needs - wing-stretching, perches

Composition of group - hierachy

Production level

Segregation of living area - feeding, cubicles, kennels, loafing, bedding, latrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What must waste disposal systems consider?

A

Number of livestock kept

Duration of housing

Volume of excreta/animal/day

Fertiliser potential

Area of land for disposal

Pollution risks

Methods and cost of collection, storage and use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How frequently can a dairy cow receive veterinary medications for?

A

3x/yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What happens to the waiting time for drug withdrawal period with organic animals?

A

It is doubled for organic animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What common additives used on farms are not permitted on organic farms?

A

No injectable hormones

No synthetic fertilisers or pesticides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How frequently may an organic meat-producing animal receive veterinary treatments?

A

3x/lifetime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What ages are steers generally finished at in the UK?

A

18-24mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

At what ages are bulls generally slaughtered for meat? Why?

A

12-14mo, as they have reached sexual maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is biological efficiency influenced by?

A

Reproductive efficiency

Lactation ability

Growth and development

Longevity/replacement rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is fecundity?

A

The actual reproductive rate of an organism or population, referring to the number of offspring resulting from the number of gametes produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What different factors comprise reproductive efficiency?

A

Fertility

Fecundity

Breeding frequency

Peri/post-partum problems - maternal, neonatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Generally what is the ideal BCS preferred at the point of mating?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

For maiden heifers, by puberty what percentage of their mature weight should they have reached?

A

45-50% of mature BW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What percentage of their mature weight is desired for heifers when they are first mated?

A

65% of mature BW is sought

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the typical butter-fat content and milk-protein percentage in a cow’s milk?

A
  1. 5% butter-fat
  2. 2% milk protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

In mares’ milk, what is the typical milk protein % and butter-fat %?

A

Milk-protein = 2.7%

Butter-fat = 1.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the typical milk-protein content and butter-fat content in a lactating bitch? And in a ewe?

A

Bitch: milk-protein 9.5%

butter-fat 8.3%

Ewe: milk-protein 5.5%

butter-fat 5.3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the two main types of feeding associated with dairy cows?

A

Lead/yield feeding

Flat-rate feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

According to sigmoidal growth curve, at what point does puberty occur? What often happens at this stage in an animal’s life?

A

Puberty occurs just at the end of the self-accelerating phase of growth and at the start of the self-decelerating stage.

Generally most livestock will be slaughtered upon reaching puberty if they are not replacements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What value is determined as the cut-off point for selling milk for the SCC?

A

400,000 cells/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What principle for the lead/yield feeding technique follow?

A

This feeding regime matches nutritiional accordingly with the milk yield, to promote further production of milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How does flat-rate feeding work?

A

This feeding regime maintains a gradual plateau throughout

Calves are not weaned off as quickly despite a lower milk yield throughout

* lower E causes lower milk protein and buttermilk content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the principle with compensatory growth?

A

Growth is halted by feed restriction ie. during winter

This is followed by ad libitum in spring to help animal reach mature weight desired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Why is it important to control DLWG when breeding cows?

A

To prevent fat from being laid down and dystocia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Why is it important to carefully monitor DLWG in bulls?

A

To prevent the occurrence of cartilage problems in the stifle and hock that often occur when forced to grow too fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What do growth co-efficients measure?

A

Growth rate of a particular anatomical region compared with that of the whole body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is one of the problems associated with UK beef breeds in comparison with their continental counterparts?

A

UK breeds reach ‘fat phase’ faster therefore quickly lay down fat reserves as early maturers that therefore rear slowly.

Continental breeds lay down bone and muscle earlier therefore rear faster as late maturers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the overall transition in the chemical composition of animals?

A

CNS -> bone -> muscle -> fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What basic components do plants require to survive?

A

Inorganic elements

N2

H2O

CO2

Solar E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What does the general H2O content range from in the main domestic species? What is it for ash?

A

H2O ranges from 55-60%

Ash ranges from 2.8-4.8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What happens to dry matter content of animals with age? Why is this significant?

A

It increases with growth

As animals mature, each unit weight gain contains more fat and less protein, minerals and water

  • therefore confirming the occurrence heterogeneous growth
  • justifies slaughtering meat animals around the inflection point of their sigmoidal growth curve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Define a nutrient.

A

Any chemical element or compond in the diet that supports, either structurally or energetically, normal reproduction, growth, lactation or the maintenance of life processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Describe the main features of carnivores and their diets.

A

Prehension - grasping canines and cutting carnassials

  • powerful bite

Mastication - minimal

Diet - E-dense, easily digested foods require expansive stomach to maximise use of opportunistic kills

Digestion = monogastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Why is tartar accumulation a common occurrence with today’s dogs?

A

Current canine diets lack much friction when masticating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Descrive the main features of a herbivore and their diet.

A

Prehension - ruminants: blunt, tender muzzle

prehensile tongue

* specialise in longer, lusher grasses

  • equidae: prehensile upper lip

less tongue involvement

nipping incisors

* specialise in shorter, coarses grasses

Mastication: hypsodont grinding teeth + copious salivary secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the significance of copious salivary secretions in herbivores?

A

Alkali secretions are essential for neutralising stomach acids prior to entering intestinal tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How much time during the day do ruminants and horses spend grazing?

A

Ruminants - graze 33% day (rest 33%, ruminate 33%)

Equidae - graze 50-60% day = trickle feeders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the significance of the symbiotic microorganisms within herbivore digestive systems?

A

Mammals CANNOT synthesise cellulase

Some bacteria and protozoa can digest cellulose

  • within the gut, microorganism populations flourish on ingested grasses and digesting the complex chemicals
  • this releases simple fermentation products (VFAs) that the host mammal can absorb along with the microorganisms that serve as a protein source
93
Q

Approximately how much of a cow is accounted for by their rumen?

A

~150kg

94
Q

How does a generalised herbivore digestive system function?

A
  1. Food enters stomach via oesophagus
  2. Enzymatic digestion degrades food bolus; very little absorption.
  3. Stomach contents enters SI where absorption is very high and there is very little further enzymatic digestion.
  4. On reaching the caecum and colon (hindgut), microbial digestion degrades stomach contents further into VFAs and absorption is high.
  5. All remaining material is excreted via rectum into environment as faeces.
95
Q

What is the route for consumed material within a cow’s digestive system?

A

Reticulum -> rumen -> omasum -> abomasum

96
Q

What is the advantage of ruminant digestive systems? What is the disadvantage?

A

Enables ruminant to be able to use ‘inaccessible’ nutrients from forage feeds.

All food molecules have to be processed by the symbiotic microorganisms first, therefore there is no guarantee of the nutrients reaching the ruminant’s own tissues.

97
Q

What are the advantages of hindgut fermentation seen in horses and rabbits? What is the main disadvantage?

A

Permits animal to be able to utilise otherwise ‘inaccessible’ nutrients from forage feeds following absorption of accessible feeds.

Can evacuate fermentation vat rapidly for flight.

These animals cannot ruminant therefore less digestion of fibre is possible

98
Q

What are two important considerations with hind gut fermenters?

A

Small amounts of feed are required regularly to prevent gut stasis from occurring

Risk of rupture if overfed or fed excess dry food

99
Q

How is digestibility (%) of a nutrient or E calculated?

A

Amount ingested - amount in faeces x100

amount ingested

* better digestibility is ideal as the animal will benefit more

100
Q

What are the assumptions made when calculating digestibility?

A
  1. That faeces only contain undigested food
  2. That all ingested nutrients and E absent from the faeces have been absorbed
101
Q

How doed fibre content affect digestibility of feeds?

A

For every 1% increase in dietary fibre, digestibility decreases by ~1% in ruminants and ~2% in monogastrics

102
Q

What feed preparation factors affect digestibility?

A
  1. Heat treatments
  2. Cold treatments
  3. Chemical treatments
103
Q

How do heat treatments affect digestibility?

A

Can improve digestibility

  • degrades plant cell walls -> increasing nutrient availability
  • destroys anti-nutritive factors e.g. toxins

Can decrease digestibility by denaturing proteins

  • dependent on wet/dry heat + temperature e.g. dried milk
104
Q

How does cold treating a feed alter its digestibility?

A

Can improve digestibility for cattle, pigs and horses

  • unnecessary for birds because of their gizzard
  • not necessary for sheep with longer rumen retention time
105
Q

How does chemically treating a feed change its digestibility? How this achieved?

A

Can increase the digestibility of forage foods with a high lignin content e.g. straw, whole crop silages

Use Naoh or NH3 to promote microbial activity

106
Q

In what forms can energy be quantified?

A

As calories

Or Joules

107
Q

What is the definition of a calorie?

A

Heat required to warm 1g of H2O from 16.5-17.5ºC at STP

1 calorie = 4.184 J

108
Q

How is the energy content of feedstuffs determined?

A

By bomb calorimetry:

  • feed samples are dried
  • a known quantity of DM is combusted within a sealed chamber
  • total E released by oxidation of covalent bonds is determined by the extent of warming of the surrounding H2O

= Gross Energy (MJ/kg DM)

109
Q

What are example of products of anabolic reactions?

A

Muscle contractions

Active ion transport

Gene expression

Hormone secretion

Cell division

Adipose reserves

Muscle

110
Q

What is the 1st Law of Thermodynamics?

A

Energy can neighter be created nor destroyed, it can only be converted in form

111
Q

What factors affect Metabolisable Energy?

A

Diet quality

Species - higher protein intake by carnivores increases their urinary excretion of E-rich N-compounds e.g. urea, creatinine

N-balance - protein deamination or anabolism

112
Q

What does the Specific Dynamic Action of Feeding refer to?

A

Heat producing mechanisms including:

  • prehension + mastication
  • increased gut contractions to propel food
  • icreased production and release of digestive enzymes and hormones
  • catabolism of nutrients within the gut and tissues
  • absorption of nutrients across the gut wall
  • heat of fermentation in the rumen and hindgut
113
Q

What is the metabolic rate of an animal?

A

Its rate of heat production (MJ/day)

114
Q

What means are there for measuring the metabolic rate?

A

Direct calorimetry

Indirect calorimetry

115
Q

How does indirect calorimetry work?

A

It estimates heat production by measuring CO2 evolution and O2 consumption rates based on

C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6Co2 + 6O2 + 2.82MJ

116
Q

What is the respiratory quotient (RQ) and what is its significance?

A

Expired CO2 (L/h)

Inspired O2 (L/h)

RQ allows determination of heat production rates which can be used to define the metabolic rate as MJ/animal/day

117
Q

What is the basal metabolic rate? How is it measured?

A

The minimal expenditure of energy required for life

With animals studied in negative E balance, so that E to fuel basal metabolism is derived from body tissues

= fasting catabolism

118
Q

What does economic maintenance refer to?

A

Unavoidable movement, feeding and digestion

119
Q

In the dairy industry, what weight losses are accepted as a normal aspect of their husbandry during milk production?

A

Losses of 0.5-1.0kg/day

120
Q

For a racehorse with a heavy workload, what would the energy requirements be?

For a moderate workload of show-jumping, what would the energy requirements be?

For a horse with a light workload in a riding school, what would the energy requirements be?

A

Maintenance + 100%

Maintenance + 50%

Maintenance + 25%

121
Q

Approximately how many amino acids are there? How many of these are essential components of animal diets?

A

About 25 AAs in total

10 essential (15 non-essential)

122
Q

What is an essential AA?

A

When tissue synthesis is incapable or unable to meet body requirements when they are absent from the diet.

123
Q

What is a non-essential AA?

A

When tissue synthesis is able to compensate for their absence from the diet.

124
Q

What is the role of Arginine for many species?

A

Essential for achieving maximum growth rates

125
Q

Which species has a high dietary requirement for taurine?

A

Cats

126
Q

Name the 10 essential AAs.

A

Arginine Threonine

Lysine Leucine

Isoleucine Tryptophan

Valine Histidine

Methionine

127
Q

What 3 means are there for evaluatin dietary protein?

A
  1. Crude protein
  2. Digestible crude protein
  3. Standardised digestible crude protein
128
Q

What factors need to be considered when evaluating conversion efficiency within animals?

A

Protein efficiency ratio

Net efficiency retention

Gross protein value

129
Q

How can protein degradability be measured?

A

By placing a known quantity of protein into a synthetic mesh bag into the rumen of a fistulated animal

= in sacco evaluation

130
Q

How long does complete protein degradation take?

A

Approximately 20hrs

131
Q

What is effective rumen degradable protein, ERDP?

A

ERDP = SDP + QDP

132
Q

What is fermentable metabolisable energy?

A

The energy sources in the diet that can be fermented by intestinal microorganisms for fuelling host metabolism

133
Q

When are biological values useful?

A

BV values are only useful if:

  • there is a sufficient E supply to prevent use of protein as an E source ie. carbohydrates, lipids
  • protein provision > maintenance
134
Q

What is RUDP?

A

Rumen undigestible protein = protein sources presented to abomasum and SI for degradation

135
Q

What happens if protein degradation occurs too fast in the rumen?

A

Intestinal microorganisms are unable to capture rapidly produced NH3 -> decreased efficiency of MP synthesis

& wastage of dietary N

136
Q

What 2 assumptions does the Kjeldahl technique make?

A

That all food N is in protein

That all food protein contains 160g N/kg DM

137
Q

What is the empirical formula for carbohydrates?

A

(CH2O)n when n is 3 or more

138
Q

Which chemical groups are also classified under carbohydrates?

A

Alchohols

Ketones

Aldehydes

139
Q

What are sugars?

A

Carbohydrates containing lss than 10 monosaccharides residues

140
Q

Name 3 examples of glucans (polysaccharides).

A

Starch

Cellulose

Glycogen

141
Q

How might carbohydrates be stored within the body?

A

Glycogen stores

Adipose stores

142
Q

What role does plant cell contents play within the digestive system of a ruminant?

A

Mammalian enzymes hydrolyse cell contents of sugars and starches -> glucose

Glucose is fermented as FME to yield VFAs

143
Q

What are the pros and cons of feeding energy dense cereal diets to animals like cattle and sheep?

A

Pros: provides FME to ruminants and readily assimilated source of glucose to monogastrics → increased productivity

Cons: reduces animal fibre intake + compromises digestive health

144
Q

What are the indirect nutritional effects of fibre?

A

Alters behaviour

Alters body composition

Alters milk fat content

Alters H2O intake

145
Q

What are the two functional classes of vitamins?

A

H2O-soluble

Lipid-soluble

146
Q

What is avitaminosis?

A

Total absence of a vitamin

  • results is severe signs of deficiency
147
Q

What is hypovitaminosis?

A

Partial lack of a vitamin

  • shows non-specific signs of disease
  • treat with vitamin supplementation via diet/parenterally
148
Q

What is the chemical name for vitamin A? What is its inactivated form?

A

Retinol

ß-carotene

149
Q

What sources of vitamin A are there?

A

Plants - grass

Liver

Egg yolk

Milk fat

150
Q

What are the main signs of vitamin A deficiency?

A

Night blindness

Cattle - scaly skin → serious risk of infertility, abortion, retained placenta or stillbirths if prolonged

Pigs - eye disorders; weak, dead or deformed litters

Poultry - high mortality rate, retarded growth, ruffled plumage

Dogs - night blindness, abnormal skeletal growth

Horses (rare) - night blindness, hoof splitting

151
Q

What species can be affected by hypervitaminosis A? What are the potential effects?

A

Cats and dogs

  • abnormal bone deposition
  • lameness
  • vertebral spondylosis
  • gingivitis
  • weight loss
  • poor coat
152
Q

Which vitamin is also known as the calciferols?

A

Vitamin D

153
Q

What are the functions of vitamin A?

A

Function and integrity of intestinal mucosa + mm

Bone growth

Humoral immunity

Combines with opsin → rhodopsin for night vision

154
Q

What are the functions of vitamin D?

A

Regulates DNA transcription for synthesis of Ca2+ binding protein - increased intestinal mucosa absorption of Ca2+

When hypocalcaemia occurs, hormones promote kidney activation of vitamin D

Stimulates uptake of P from gut

absorption of Ca2+ + P from bone + kidney

155
Q

What are the signs of vitamin D deficiency?

A

Disturbed bone growth in young animals

Osteomalacia in adult animals

Calves - weak, bowed or easily broken legs

Poultry - retarded growth; soft, rubbery bones; reduced egg shell quality

Pigs - enlarged joints + stiffness

156
Q

What is the role of vitamin E? What is its chemical name?

A

Biological anti-oxidant working against free radicals

a-Tocopherol

157
Q

What are the signs of vitamin E deficiency?

A

Nutritional myopathy - generally affects skeletal muscle causing a stilted shaky gait with difficulty standing; cardiac myopathy sometimes seen

Calves - white muscle disease immediately following turnout onto fresh pasture

Lambs - stiff lamb disease immediately following turnout onto fresh pasture

Pigs - cardiac disease seen more often than skeletal muscle weakness

Chicks - nutritional myopathy and brain damage (crazy chick disease)

Horses - lameness and muscle stiffness

158
Q

Which vitamin deficiency causes crazy chick disease? What is this vitamin’s chemical name?

A

Vitamin E

a-Tocopherol

159
Q

What is the vitamin for thiamin?

A

Vitamin B1

160
Q

What is the function of vit B1?

A

Thiamin is involved with initiation and propagation of nervous impulses

Is also a coenzyme within TCA assisting with cellular respiration

161
Q

What are the signs of thiamin deficiency?

A

Generically: loss of appetite, emaciation, muscular dysfunction, progressive dysfunction of NS

Pigs - vomit; respiratory disorders

Chicks - polyneuritis; head retraction; paralysis

Ruminants - cerebro-cortical necrosis

162
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with CCN?

A

Blindness → incoordination → recumbency → death

Staggering gait

Opisthotonus (severe state of hyperextension + spasticity)

Limb extension/paddling

163
Q

What would a PM of a case of CCN reveal?

A

Cerebral oedema

164
Q

Is cerebro-cortical necrosis treatable? How would it be done?

A

Thiamin injection

Recovery possible within 24hrs

165
Q

Which vitamin is riboflavin?

A

Vit B2

166
Q

What are the associated signs with vit B2 deficiency?

A

Pigs - skin eruptions; infertility; abortions; V++; poor appetite and growth; eye abnormalities

Poultry - ‘clubbed down feathers’; ‘curled toe paralysis’ (walk on their hocks with toes clenched)

Young ruminants - inappetant; mouth lesions; D++

167
Q

What is the chemical name for vit B6?

A

Pyridoxines

168
Q

What is the function of the pyridoxines?

A

Coenzyme in protein and N-pathways

Important for AA absorption from intestines

169
Q

What is the active form of the pyridoxines?

A

Pyridoxal phosphate

170
Q
A
171
Q

What are the clinical signs of vit B6 deficiency?

A

Chicks - neural degeneration and jerky gait

172
Q

Which of the vitamins is Cyanocobalamin?

A

Vit B12

173
Q

What is the biological significance of vit B12?

A

Important coenzyme for cellular respiratory pathways

174
Q

Which vitamin is ascorbic acid?

A

Vit C

175
Q

What are the functions of Vit C?

A

Antioxidant

Oxidation and reduction reactions (REDOX)

Normal collagen formation

Fe storage

176
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with a deficiency in ascorbic acid?

A

Oedema

Emaciation

D++

Failure of collagen formation → bone + cartilage defects, teeth slackening, CT + muscle weakness, reduced resistance to infection

177
Q

What mineral is not taken up in cases of enteritis?

A

Ca2+

178
Q

When does acute hypocalcaemia most commonly occur and why?

A

Most commonly seen in female mammals at the onset or peak of lactation

Due to high demands on mammary gland(s) for Ca2+ for milk synthesis

Also seen in laying hens for eggshell production

179
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

A condition in which one or more convulsions occur in a pregnant animal suffering from high BP, often followed by a coma and poses a threat to both the dam and offspring.

180
Q

When does milk fever tend to occur in dairy cows?

A

Usually 1d before-3d post-partum

181
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with milk fever?

What is the Tx?

How can this be prevented?

A

Signs: flaccid paralysis, slow HR, recumbency, rumen stasis, pupil dilation

Tx: IV Ca2+ infusion

Prevention: induce hypocalcaemia prior to calving to promote homestatic Ca2+ mobilisation from skeleton in readiness

182
Q

What are the clinical signs of eclampsia?

How is it treated?

How can it be prevented?

A

Signs: spastic paralysis, convulsion

Tx: SC Ca2+ infusion

Prevention: ensure adequate dietary intake + absorption, reduce lactation pressure

183
Q

What is a pica? Which mineral is it associated with?

A

Pica refers to an appetite for substances that are non-nutritive such as bone, wood, or soil

It is seen in association with P

184
Q

Which element decreases absorption of Mg2+?

A

High Cu intake

185
Q

In which 4 instances can hypomagnesaemia arise?

A
  1. Calves fed all milk diets
  2. Beef cattle and sheep fed on poor quality roughage or fodder crops
  3. Lactating cattle and sheep
  4. Sub-clinical hypomagnesaemia
186
Q

What is grass staggers?

A

A disease of livestock caused by Mg2+ deficiency, occurring especially when there is a change from indoor feeding to outdoor grazing

187
Q

Name 8 trace elements.

A

Molybdenum

Copper

Seleniumm

Manganese

Iodine

Cobalt

Iron

Zince

188
Q

What is the importance of Cu?

A

Essential for immune function

Essential for normal hair and feather pigmentation, and ‘wool crimp’

Vital part of cytochrome oxidase in oxidative phosphorylation

Formation of important plasma proteins

189
Q

What are the biological functions of Ca2+ in the body?

A

Dynamic structural component of skeleton

Controls cell excitability - nerve, muscle

Regulates muscle contraction

Regulates blood coagulation

Many enzymatic functions

190
Q

What are the functions of Mg2+?

A

Propagates nervous impulses

Most common enzyme activator

Muscle contraction

191
Q

Does Mg2+ absorption increase or decrease with age?

A

Decreases

192
Q

What are the clinical signs for grass staggers? What are these followed by? Which species are commonly affected?

A

Signs: hyperaesthesia recumbency

incoordination ⇒ convulsions

muscle tremor death

Most commonly seen in sheep + cattle

193
Q

What is hyperaesthesia?

A

Excessive physical sensitivity, especially of the skin

194
Q

What is paresis?

A

A condition of muscular weakness caused by nerve damage or disease ie. partial paralysis

195
Q

What is ataxia?

A

The loss of full control of bodily movements

196
Q

What happens with swayback in sheep? What is it caused by? What are the clinical signs?

A

Affects lambs that are born to Cu2+ deficient ewes:

Caused by Cu2+ deficiency

  • congenital: stillborns, weak, ataxia and paresis, inability to stand, death
  • delayed onset: normal at birth, rapid onset HL weakness, ataxia → paresis + death
197
Q

What are the signs for copper deficiency in cattle?

A

Typically occurs from 3-9mo

Signs: ill thrift, poor growth, stiff gait/lameness, loss of hair pigment

198
Q

What is grass staggers? Which species are affected? What is it caused by? What are the clinical signs?

A

An emergency condition caused by a deficiency in Mg2+.

It affects in particular lactating cattle + sheep

Signs: hyperaesthesia recumbency

incoordination ⇒ convulsions

muscle tremors death

199
Q

What 4 situations can hypomagnesaemia arise from?

A

Calves fed all milk diets

Beef cattle and sheep fed poor quality roughage or fodder crops

Lactating cattle + sheep

Sub-clinical hypomagnesaemia

200
Q

What conditions arise from acute hypocalcaemia?

A

Milk fever in dairy cattle

Eclampsia in bitches, sows, and beef cattle

Transit tetany in cattle + horses

201
Q

What happens to animals if chronic hypocalcaemia occurs?

A

Growing animals - osteodystrophy + rickets

Adults - osteomalacia; urethral calculi; weak, thin bones; decreased milk yields

202
Q

What different kinds of stocking are there?

A

Set stocking - animals left to graze pasture until autumn

Paddock system - crop rotations

Strip grazing - intensive grazing over restricted area

Zero grazing

203
Q

How many times per year is grass normally cut for making silage?

A

Roughly 3x

204
Q

What happens to hay once its cut?

A

Left to dry from 3-4d + is turned over - to absorb moisture

Baled

205
Q

Describe haylage. How is it produced?

A

Very palatable roughage

Contains fewer spores and dust than hay

Left for a day once cut, then baled + bagged to be airtight - retains moisture better

206
Q

Describe grass silage.

A

Grass is cut

All air is removed and grass wrapped in black baling, silage clamps used to remove as much air as possible - prevents mould + clostridial succession

Anaerobic bacteria ferment silage - raising temperature

207
Q

Describe dried grass.

A

Mainly used for horses + rabbits

eC.g. grass or alfalfa (lucerne)

Slow (100ºC) or fast (1000ºC) air-dried

Good way to promote feeding to prevent gut stasis

208
Q

Name 3 plants that are harmful to livestock if consumed.

A

Ragwort - kills horses, dangerous to cattle, sheep, pigs + goats

Acorn poisoning

Rhodedendrum poisoning in sheep

209
Q

What do straights refer to?

A

Energy concentrates

Protein concentrates

210
Q

Name some examples of energy concentrates.

A

Cereal grains

Cereal by-products

Brewery by-products

Molasses

Beet pulps

Roots + tubers

Maize silage

Animal + vegetable fats

Whey

211
Q

What means of coll treatment are there for cereal processing?

A

Rolling

Crushing

Grinding - important for poultry and pigs

212
Q

How can cereals be processed with hot treatments?

A

Steam flaking

Micronisation

Roasting

Hot pelleting

213
Q

Why do horses required their feeds to be processed?

A

For maximising pre-caecal digestion

214
Q

What kinds of whole crop silages are there?

A

Maize silage

Barley silage

Pea/wheat silage

215
Q

What kinds of chemical treatment are there for processing feeds?

A

NaoH - softens hull to expose endosperm

NH3 - increase CP + softens grain

Mineralisation

216
Q

What nutritional benefit do straws offer. Give some examples.

A

High fibre content - mostly lignin

Low cost roughage

Can be degraded by NH3 to give further nutrients = silage

Barley > wheat > oat

217
Q

What is the benefit of feeding sugar beet pulp?

A

Dried form as shreds or pellets - has to be soaked first

Excellent source of energy + fibre

218
Q

What is the nutritional benefit offered by feeding molasses? Give 2 examples.

A

Highly palatable feed

Good E provision

Binding agent - making feeds taste better

E.g. cane, beet

219
Q

What nutritional benefit is offered by roots and tubers?

A

Grown for both animal and human feed

e.g. turnips, swedes, fodder beet, potatoes

220
Q

State 6 examples of protein concentrates.

A

Oilseeds

Leguminous seeds

Animal protein concentrates

Milk products

Single cell proteins

NPN compounds

221
Q

What nutritional benefit is offered by feeding oilseeds?

A

Protein-rich cakes + meals

e.g. soa bean, rapeseed, sunflower

222
Q

What benefit is gained from planting legumes?

A

Fixing of soil N2

e.g. clovers, peas, beans, lupins

223
Q

What are some of the potential risks associated with feeding of animal proteins to livestock?

A

Salmonella

Yellow scrapie

BSE

224
Q

What is meant by non-protein N-sources?

A

Ruminants - increased microbial protein synthesis

e.g. urea/NH3-treated forages or cereal grains

direct inclusion of urea - source of FME

225
Q

What different kinds of additives are there for feeds?

A

Medicated - antibiotics, coccidiostats, (growth promoters)

* require a prescription

Vits + min supplements

Neutraceuticals (foods believed to have curative properties)

Probiotics

226
Q

What is a probiotic?

A

A food or dietary supplement containing ‘beneficial’ bacteria

227
Q

Define a prebiotic.

A

A non-digestible foor ingredient that promotes the growth of beneficial microorganisms within the intestine.

228
Q

What are the different estimations for appetite as a percentage of BW in the main domestic species?

A

Cattle ~3% BW as DM

Sheep ~4% BW as DM

Horses ~1.5-3% as DM

Pigs ~10% at 2-3wo → 4% BW at maturity

IAP (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions