Intro Week Lectures 2 Flashcards

1
Q

When during pregnancy is fetal growth the fastest?

A

Peaks in 2nd trimester

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2
Q

How fast should children grow normally?

A

Growth velocity 5-7cm/yr

Falls slowly to <5cm/yr pre-pubertally

mid-childhood spurt at 6-8 yrs

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3
Q

First sign of puberty in girls v boys?

A

Breast change in girls/testicular growth in boys (4 mls size)

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4
Q

Sign of completion of puberty in girls v boys?

A

menarche in girls/ 10 mls size testes in boys

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5
Q

What tools can you use to assess growth?

A

Leicester height measure (stadiometer), weighing scales, head circumference
Growth charts
Bone age
Prader orchidometer

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6
Q

Short stature with normal growth velocity suggests what?

A

constitutional delay

Often associated with medical conditions e.g. asthma
Delayed bone age
Later onset of puberty
Often familial, will eventually achieve genetic height potential

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7
Q

Causes of short stature with slow velocity?

A

Chronic disease - e.g. Coeliac
GH deficiency
Skeletal dysplasia
Syndromes e.g Turner, Down, Prader-Willi,
Endocrine e.g hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, Cushings
Child abuse

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8
Q

How may isolated growth hormone deficiency present?

A

midline defects e.g. cleft lip and cleft palate
undescended testes

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9
Q

Questions to ask patient / parents with suspected Turner’s?

A

Lymphoedema of hands/feet in neonates
Congenital Heart Disease
Recurrent ear infections
Learning difficulties– coordination, numerical
Delayed puberty – primary amenorrhoea

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10
Q

How can Turner’s syndrome be managed?

A

Growth Hormone – supraphysiological doses
Pubertal hormones
Educational help
Hearing aid/grommets
Cardiac monitoring
Osteoporosis prevention

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11
Q

What conditions are screened for in newborn screening?

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

Congenital Hypothyroidism

Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)

Cystic fibrosis (CF)

Medium chain Acyl- CoA-dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD)

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12
Q

Causes of tall stature in children?

A

Familial
Early / precocious puberty
Hyperthyroidism, GH secreting adenomas
Marfan’s, Klinefelters

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13
Q

How does Marfan’s syndrome present?

A

tall stature with arm span to height ratio > 1.05
high-arched palate
pes planus
arachnodactyly
pectus excavatum
lungs: repeated pneumothoraces
eyes: upwards lens dislocation

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14
Q

Define hypersensitivity

A

Objectively reproducible symptoms or signs following exposure to a defined stimulus (e.g. food, drug, pollen) at a dose which is tolerated by normal people

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15
Q

Define allergy

A

A hypersensitivity reaction initiated by specific immunological mechanisms, leading to disease. This can be IgE mediated or non-IgE mediated.

Allergy is not a disease, but a mechanism leading to a disease

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16
Q

Define atopy

A

A personal and/or familial tendency to produce IgE antibodies in response to ordinary exposures to potential allergens, usually proteins.

Strongly associated with asthma, rhinitis and conjunctivitis, eczema and food allergy.

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17
Q

Define anaphylaxis

A

Severe, potentially life-threatening generalised or systemic hypersensitivity reaction which is characterised by being rapid in onset, effecting airway, breathing or circulatory problems, and is usually associated with skin and mucosal changes.

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18
Q

How may anaphylaxis present in children?

A

Signs that are difficult to interpret: behavioural changes, fussing, irritable
hoarseness (after crying), drooling
regurgitation (common after feeds)
drowsiness, somnolence (after feeds)

Signs obvious but non-specific: rapid onset coughing, choking, stridor
sudden, profuse vomiting
rapid onset unresponsiveness

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19
Q

How do allergies develop?

A

Allergic diseases occur when individuals make an abnormal immune response to harmless environmental stimuli, usually proteins

The developing immune system must be ‘sensitised’ to an allergen before an allergic immune response develops.

Sensitisation may be ‘occult’ e.g. sensitisation to egg in from exposure to trace quantities in maternal breast milk.

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20
Q

Outline the process of mast cell activation in IgE mediated allergy

A

antigen binds to specific IgE

IgE releases mediators such as histamine, tryptase and prostaglandins

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21
Q

Describe onset and resolution of sxs in IgE mediated versus non-IgE mediated allergy

A

IgE : comes on within 2 hours, usually resolves within 12 hours

non-IgE: comes on hours or days post ingestion, may continue for days

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22
Q

Describe sxs in IgE mediated allergy

A

Gastrointestinal such as vomiting, pain and diarrhoea

Cutaneous such as urticaria, angiodema, pruritis

Respiratory such as acute rhinoconjunctivitis, wheezing, coughing, stridor

Cardiovascular such as collapse due to hypotension

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23
Q

Describe sxs in non-IgE mediated allergy

A

Often non-specific symptoms.

These can include diarrhoea, vomiting, colic/pain, blood in the stool, gastrooesophageal reflux and food refusal or aversion.

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24
Q

Give some examples of IgE-mediated clinical phenotypes

A

Acute urticaria and angioedema, anaphylaxis, oral allergy syndrome

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25
Give some examples of non-IgE-mediated clinical phenotypes
Food protein induced proctocolitis, food protein induced enteropathy, allergic dysmotility
26
How might an IgE mediated reaction appear in the skin?
pruritus erythema acute urticaria acute angioedema
27
How might a non-IgE mediated reaction appear in the skin?
pruritus erythema atopic eczema
28
What questions could you ask a parent to determine if their child has asthma or a viral wheeze?
Does your child have a diagnosis of asthma? Is your child ever wheezy? When do they become wheezy? What triggers it? Do they get symptoms with exercise, stress, with colds? Do they cough at night? Do they respond to salbutamol? How do you give the salbutamol?
29
What questions would you ask the parent of a child with eczema?
When did the eczema start? What happened around the time of weaning? Severity? When did the eczema get worse? How much moisturiser / steroid do you use?
30
What should you ask in the family history component of an allergy history?
Does anyone in the family have: Asthma, Hay fever, Eczema, Food allergies Any pets at home?
31
How can allergies be diagnosed?
specific IgE immunoassay skin prick Gold standard for food allergy is DBPCFC (Double blind placebo controlled food challenge)
32
How can allergies be managed?
allergen avoidance disease specific tx e.g. non-sedating antihistamines for urticaria, emollients/steroids for eczema
33
How would you explain to a patient how to use their EpiPen?
lie down remove blue safety cap - 'blue to the sky, orange to the thigh' hold pen with fist - don't put thumb over the top as if wrong way round will stab finger jab the EpiPen firmly into your outer thigh at a right angle until you hear a click. Hold firmly for 3 seconds, before removing and safely discarding massage the injection site for 10 seconds elevate your legs if the first injection does not work, do a second injection after 5-15 minutes call 999
34
What are the two main brands of adrenaline auto-injector?
EpiPen Jext- good for older children / teenagers as links with an app
35
What online resource can be helpful for education and mx of children with allergy?
itchy sneezy wheezy - educational website
36
What is the acute mx of anaphylaxis?
Assessment: ABCDE First-line treatment IM adrenaline Second- and third-line treatment Removal of the trigger and call for help Posture Oxygen Fluids Other drugs e.g. β2-agonists, glucocorticoids
37
What is involved in the long term risk reduction of anaphylaxis?
Risk assessment Emergency preparedness: Allergen identification, Emergency Action Plan, Adrenaline Auto-injector prescription Allergen avoidance Immunomodulation
38
Dose of adrenaline to give in kids in anaphylaxis?
0-6 years or up to 30kg : 0.15 mg 6-12 years or 30-50 kg : 0.30 mg > 12 years or above 50kg : 0.50 mg
39
What effects risk of anaphylaxis?
Age: infants, adolescents, elderly Concomitant disease: asthma and other respiratory diseases, cardiovascular disease, psychiatric illness Concomitant medication e.g. beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors Cofactors that amplify anaphylaxis: stress, infection exercise Allergen itself - prevalent?
40
What to ask in a history of a food allergy
food and amount eaten, timing of symptoms nature of symptoms (each system) details around event (e.g. cold, exercise) associated allergies (i.e. asthma, eczema) concomitant diseases
41
What is the underlying pathology in inguinal hernias and hydrocoeles in infants?
patent processes vaginalis fully patent = inguinal hernia partially patent = hydrocoele ( enough space for peritoneal fluid to escape but not for bowel to pass through)
42
Parents bring in child to ED with sudden appearance of fluctuant testicular swelling that transilluminates following recent viral illness =
hydrocoele during viral illness production of peritoneal fluid increases so may cause hydrocele to become more obvious
43
What is the gubernaculum?
embryological structure that guides the descent of the testes - becomes the tunica vaginalis (double layer that surrounds the testes)
44
What type of inguinal hernia is more common in kids?
indirect - passes through the deep and then superficial inguinal ring can cause obstruction!!! - look for hernia in young child with bowel obstruction of unknown cause
45
What should be done if a paediatrician assesses that a child’s testicle is not situated within the scrotum after 3 months?
straight to examination under anaesthetic and diagnostic laparoscopy USS is unhelpful as the testicle will be very small and difficult to see
46
Why is it important that testes are surgically returned to the scrotum if undescended ?
reduced risk of testicular cancer allows to self examine for testicular tumour as risk is still higher than general population ideal temperature for hormone production and maintaining fertility reduced risk of trauma
47
What does the blue dot sign on an infant’s testis suggest?
torted hyatid of morgagni (Mullerian remnant)
48
Give some causes of bilious vomiting in neonates
duodenal atresia jejunal atresia malrotation with volvulus meconium ileus necrotising enterocolitis NOT pyloric stenosis - in PS obstruction is above the 2nd segment of the duodenum where bile enters the GI tract so vomitus will not be bilious
49
What is the definition of diabetes?
Fasting plasma glucose > 7.0 mmol/l 2 hour post prandial plasma glucose > 11.0 mmol/l during an OGTT
50
How should you investigate a child who presents to the GP with suspected T1DM?
Children and young people with suspected T1DM should be offered immediate (same day) referral to multidisciplinary paediatric diabetes team - risk of deterioration to DKA
51
Ix in paediatric diabetes?
BMI HbA1c OGTT Fasting Insulin Fasting C peptide Autoantibodies
52
What is DKA?
diabetic ketoacidosis - caused by uncontrolled lipolysis which results in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies hyperglycaemia (plasma glucose more than 11 mmol/litre) and acidosis (indicated by blood pH below 7.3 or plasma bicarbonate below 15 mmol/litre) and ketonaemia (indicated by blood ketones > 3 mmol/litre) or ketonuria (++ and above on the standard strip marking scale)
53
Suspect DKA even if the blood glucose is normal in a child or young person with known diabetes and any of the following:
nausea or vomiting abdominal pain hyperventilation dehydration reduced level of consciousness
54
When a child or young person with suspected or known DKA arrives at hospital, measure their:
capillary blood glucose capillary blood ketones (beta‑hydroxybutyrate) or urine ketones capillary or venous pH and bicarbonate
55
Give some of the main differences between T1DM and T2DM
Deficiency of insulin v insulin resistance Absent C peptide v detectable C peptide Markers of autoimmunity v none Sudden v gradual onset Ketoacidosis common v rare Not obese v obese
56
How do you calculate fluid requirements in children?
for 24 hours: First 10 kg - 100 ml/kg Second 10 kg - 50 ml/kg Subsequent 10 kg – 20 ml/kg
57
What are the fluid requirements of neonates born at term?
Day 1 – 50 ml/kg/day Day 2 – 75 ml/kg/day Day 3 – 100 ml/kg/day Day 4 – 120 ml/kg/day Day 5 onwards - 150 ml/kg/day
58
Why do preterm babies have a high fluid requirement ?
very fragile skin = large fluid losses require more fluid replacement than term babies and incubators often contain humidified air
59
What fractures should raise suspicion of physical abuse?
Metaphyseal fractures - bucket handle or corner fractures Rib fractures - commonly posterior Skull fracture - usually non parietal and associated with subdural haemorrhage Scapular fractures Sternal fractures
60
Give some differentials for unexplained bruising
NAI Congenital melanocytic naevi Thrombocytopenia Haemophilia Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
61
What is a skeletal survey used for?
Children under 2 with suspected physical abuse Used to detect occult bone injury Ideally within 72 hours, provides imaging of the whole skeleton
62
Why do babies have a large amount of brown fat?
carries a high water volume to prevent them from becoming dehydrated colostrum is calorie rich but does not contain enough fluids significant WL in babies suggests dehydration