Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DPT 530 > Intro to Pharmacology > Flashcards

Intro to Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

why do PTs need to understand pharmacology?

A

bc so many of our pts will be on medications (especially the geriatric population)

adverse drug events are a leading cause of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the role of the PT in pharmacology?

A

review and monitor pt meds (prescriptions, OTC meds, homeopathic and herbal supplements)

monitor side effects

alert pt and physician of adverse rxns

assess how meds impact PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the broad definition of a drug?

A

any chemical that alters physiologic fxn in an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

would caffeine be a drug by the broad definition of a drug?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the FDA definition of a drug?

A

chemical that the FDA allows medical professionals to use to diagnose, prevent, or treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

would caffeine be a drug under the FDA definition of a drug?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is pharmacology?

A

the study of a drug on the human body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the FDA?

A

an agency of the US Dept of Health and Human Services that facilitates the availability of safe and effective drugs and provides clear and understandable drug info for safe and effective use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

t/f: a drug MUST be demonstrated to be safe and efficacious b4 it is approved and marketed

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

t/f: safe means the complete absence of risk

A

false, it means free of serious side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

t/f: safety is relative to the drug (ie Advil vs cancer meds)

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how long does the research phase of the FDA approval process take?

A

2-4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how long does the pre-clinical phase of the FDA approval process take?

A

1-2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how long do the clinical phases of FDA approval take?

A

5-7 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when are animals tested first in the FDA approval process?

A

in the pre-clinical phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when are a small amount of human 1st used to test a drug?

A

phase one clinical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what happens in phase one clinical in the FDA approval process?

A

small number of humans are used

testing safety of the drug in healthy individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what happens in phase two clinical in the FDA approval process?

A

small number of patients with the condition are used to test efficacy of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what happens in phase three clinical in the FDA approval process?

A

1000s of affected individuals are used to further determine the efficacy of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when is an IND application put in?

A

after the pre-clinical phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what happens in phase 4 of the FDA approval process?

A

the drug is manufactured, marketed, and administered

post market surveillance for long term effects

available to the public

FDA approval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does dispensing mean?

A

how the drug is administered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how are most OTC meds dispensed?

A

orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

t/f: OTC meds usually have milder safety concerns than prescription drugs

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

t/f: prescription drugs can have a higher dose than OTC meds

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

t/f: OTC meds can still have serious adverse/side effects when overdosed

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

t/f: OTC meds should be included in the initial eval

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

can prescription drugs become OTC over time?

A

yes!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

generic name and brand name drugs are ___

A

bioequivalents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the chemical name of a drug?

A

the active ingredient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the generic name of a drug?

A

the shortened name of the chemical name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

t/f: there are often many brand names for the same generic name drug

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what does the therapeutic classification of a drug tell us?

A

what the drug is trying to treat?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are some examples of therapeutic classifications of drugs?

A

anticoagulant, antihypertensive, antihyperlipidemic, antidysrhythmic, or antianginal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what does the pharmacological classification of a drug tell us?

A

the mechanism of action (how the drug works)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are some examples of pharmacological classifications of antihypertensives?

A

diuretic, calcium channel blocker, ACE inhibitor, adrenergic antagonist, vasodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is pharmacokinetics?

A

how the drug changes as it moves in the body (absorption, metabolism, distribution, excretion)

what the body does to the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is pharmacodynamics?

A

effects of a drug on the body

what a drug does to the body

ID mechanism of action and how it interacts with the body to produce therapeutic and side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what elements are included in pharmacokinetics?

A

route of administration

absorption

metabolism

distribution

elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the 2 man classifications for routes of drug administration?

A

1) enteral administration
2) parenteral administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is enteral administration?

A

administration of a drug via the GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the most common enteric administration?

A

oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the pathway of oral meds?

A

mouth–>GI tract–>liver–>systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are the types of enteric administration?

A

oral

sublingual

buccal

rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how are sublingual drugs administered?

A

under the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how are buccal drugs administered?

A

bw the gums and cheek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

t/f: sublingual and buccal meds are not chewed or swallowed, but dissolved

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

do drugs administered sublingually or buccally go through the liver?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the pathway of drugs administered sublingually or buccally?

A

absorbed by submucosa–>venous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

does oral or sublingual and buccal administration have faster delivery and usually lower dosage?

A

sublingual/buccal administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what portion of rectal circulation bypasses the hepatic portal?

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

t/f: rectal administration of drugs can irritate the mucosal lining of the rectum

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is parenteral administration?

A

administration of a drug outside of the GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are some examples of parenteral administration?

A

vaccines, inhaler, creams, patches, nose spray, ear drops, eye drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are some examples of topical parenteral administration?

A

eye drops, ointments, creams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is an example of transdermal parenteral administration?

A

patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

is enteral or parenteral administration more predictable delivery

A

parenteral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is the pathway of drugs administered orally?

A

stomach–>intestines–>portal circulation–>systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the pathway of drugs administered parenterally?

A

intravenous–>system circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

t/f: drugs going through the liver can leave some inactive or active

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

metabolism __ biotransformation

A

=

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is metabolism/biotransformation?

A

chemically altering the og drug compound

changes drug from active to inactive/less active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is the primary organ of metabolism?

A

the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what happens if the liver enzymes are not working well or are absent?

A

the 1st pass effect is decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

do oral meds go through biotransformation?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

if a drug goes through biotransformation, does there need to be a higher or lower dose of the drug for it to work?

A

higher dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the 1st pass effect?

A

determines how much of the drug is lost during absorption b4 the drug reaches systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

if a drug has an 80% 1st pass effect, what % of the drug reaches systemic circulation?

A

20%

69
Q

t/f: oral administration is simple but has less predictable absorption

A

true

70
Q

what is a common side effect of oral meds?

A

GI discomfort

71
Q

is enteral or parenteral administration less convenient but has more predictable absorption?

A

parenteral administration

72
Q

does parenteral administration have a 1st pass effect?

A

no

73
Q

what is bioavailability?

A

% of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation

74
Q

the 1st pass effect ___ bioavailability of a drug

A

decreases

75
Q

if 20 g of a drug is given and 10 g reaches the target, what is the bioavailability of the drug?

A

50%

76
Q

what factors does bioavailability rely on?

A

route of administration

lipid solubility

environment of the GI tract

drug concentration

77
Q

do lipid soluble drug cross the membranes easier?

A

yes

78
Q

do ulcer increase or decrease drug absorption and bioavailability?

A

decrease

79
Q

what is drug distribution?

A

drug delivery from the bloodstream to the tissues

80
Q

what factors are involved in tissue permeability?

A

lipid soluability

blood brain barrier

81
Q

are highly perfused organs receiving more or less of the drug?

A

more

82
Q

are low perfused organs receiving more or less of the drug?

A

less

83
Q

what things can increase perfusion?

A

heat and exercise

84
Q

what organs are highly perfused?

A

brain, liver, heart, lungs, kidneys

85
Q

t/f: ONLY unbound drugs can reach target tissue

A

true

86
Q

when drugs bind to subcellular components do the drugs have any effects on the body?

A

no bc the drug can’t be distributed

87
Q

where does a lot of drug storage occur?

A

in adipose tissues

88
Q

t/f: adipose tissue has low perfusion and low metabolism

A

true

89
Q

are drugs stored in the adipose tissues for a long or short time?

A

long time

90
Q

why is early mobilization key in patients?

A

bc it increases perfusion and therefore releases the stored drugs in adipose tissue and they can then be excreted faster

91
Q

what other areas (other than adipose tissue) store drugs?

A

bone, muscles, organs

92
Q

what drugs do bones store?

A

heavy metals (ie lead) and antibiotics (ie tetracyclines)

93
Q

what organs tend to store drugs even though they are highly perfused?

A

the liver and kidneys

94
Q

at drugs are especially stored in adipose tissues?

A

anesthetics

95
Q

what are the adverse effects of drug storage?

A

local tissue damage

redistribution of drugs from storage

96
Q

what structures are damaged by lead poisoning?

A

CNS, bone, and GI tract

97
Q

what is an organ frequently damaged by meds?

A

the liver

98
Q

what is the result of redistribution of drugs from storage?

A

prolonged effects of a drug or extended adverse effects

99
Q

what is the downside of lipid soluble drugs?

A

they are easily stored in adipose tissues

100
Q

what is the role of drug elimination?

A

termination of their effects and prevention of excessive accumulation

101
Q

elimination of drugs occurs primarily in what organ?

A

the kidneys

102
Q

what is the most common route of drug elimination?

A

urine

103
Q

besides urine, what are other routes of excretion?

A

feces, sweat, saliva, lungs (exhaling)

104
Q

if the kidneys are damaged, what happens to drug excretion?

A

drug excretion is reduced and drug retention and circulation is increased

105
Q

what is drug clearance?

A

efficiency of drug removal from the body

the theoretical volume of blood that is cleared of the drug per unit of time

106
Q

can drug clearance be measured?

A

no

107
Q

do we use clearance or half life more often in the clinic?

A

half life

108
Q

what is the half-life of a drug?

A

the time required for 50% of the drug remaining in the body to be eliminated

109
Q

if a drug has a 1/2 life of 2 hours, in a 2 hour period, how much of the drug remains in the body?

A

50%

110
Q

what is the importance of half life to PTs?

A

we need to educate our patients on the importance of keeping to their dosing schedule and compliance to their med regimine

111
Q

what are factors affecting pharmacokinetics?

A

age, gender, disease, genetics, body composition, diet, and physical factors

112
Q

t/f: babies have limited kidney and liver fxns that slows drug movement in the body

A

true

113
Q

t/f: the elderly have slowed metabolic processes that effect pharmacokinetics

A

true

114
Q

t/f: hormones and enzyme differences bw males and females has no effect on pharmacokinetics

A

false, they do

115
Q

vitamin K found in leafy greens interferes with what drugs?

A

blood thinners

116
Q

grapefruit prevents the liver from processing what drugs?

A

statins (antihyperlipidemic)

117
Q

what are physical factors that effect pharmacokinetics?

A

exercise, heat, and cold

118
Q

efficacy=_____ ______

A

therapeutic response

119
Q

t/f: drugs work by binding to target receptors

A

true

120
Q

what is an agonist?

A

a drug that initiates a change in the fxn of a cell

121
Q

what is an antagonist?

A

“-blockers” that stop/inhibit change

122
Q

what is affinity?

A

attraction of drug and receptors

123
Q

do agonists or antagonists have affinity for receptors?

A

both!

124
Q

what is efficacy?

A

effectiveness of a med in activating the receptor

125
Q

do agonists or antagonists have efficacy?

A

only agonists

126
Q

what is a selective drug?

A

a drug that activates only some receptors

127
Q

what is a non-selective drug?

A

a drug that activates all receptors

128
Q

t/f: drug activation of receptors is an all or nothing event

A

false

129
Q

t/f: you can have full or partial agonists and antagonists that activate/inhibit partial % of the action or all of the action

A

true

130
Q

t/f: long term drug use can change receptors and therefore habituate/develop a tolerance

A

true

131
Q

what is dosage?

A

the min amount of a drug that produces the best therapeutic response and min unwanted/toxic effects

132
Q

dosage varies depending on what 3 factors?

A

1) disease/symptoms to be treated
2) presence of other diseases
3) polypharmacy

133
Q

t/f: dif conditions can be treated with dif doses of the same drug

A

true

134
Q

what is polypharmacy?

A

taking 3 or more meds for a condition

people taking multiple meds

135
Q

what is the dose-response relationship?

A

physiologic response to a drug that is dependent upon the # of receptors bound by the drug

136
Q

in the dose-response relationship curve, should the toxic response curve be to the right or the left of the effective dose curve?

A

to the right bc the therapeutic effect should occur first

137
Q

what is the max effect of a drug?

A

the plateau where there are no more receptors for the drug to bind to

138
Q

if the toxic response curve is to the left of the effective dose curve, what does this mean?

A

bad news!!!!!

the drug has toxic effects before it can have any therapeutic effects

139
Q

the further to the right the toxic response curve is compared to the effective dose curve, the ___ the drug

A

safer

140
Q

what is the therapeutic index (TI)?

A

the ratio of mean toxic dose to mean effective dose (TI=TD50/ED50)

141
Q

the therapeutic index should be greater than what number?

A

1

142
Q

the larger the space bw TD50 and ED50 (TI), the ___ the drug

A

safer

143
Q

when the TI is small, what should be done frequently?

A

blood withdrawal to make sure that the drug levels don’t go beyond the therapeutic range

144
Q

t/f: TI is an indicator of safety

A

true

145
Q

is a drug with a TI of 40:1 or 2:1 safer?

A

40:1

146
Q

what is the therapeutic window?

A

the range of a drug dose that can treat a disease effectively w/o having toxic effects

147
Q

the larger the therapeutic window, the __the drug

A

safer

148
Q

the onset of action (how quickly the therapeutic level is achieved) depends on what ?

A

the rate of absorption and distribution of the drug

149
Q

is rate of absorption and distribution a characteristic of pharmacokinetics or pharmacodynamics?

A

pharmacokinetics

150
Q

what is MECadverse?

A

the min effective concentration for adverse effects

151
Q

what is MECdesired?

A

the min effective concentration for desired effects

152
Q

if a drug is rapidly released, does it reach the therapeutic effects faster or slower?

A

faster

153
Q

t/f: dif routes of administration reach the therapeutic range at dif rates

A

true

154
Q

what is potency?

A

the amount of a drug required to produce the desired response

155
Q

if drug A at 25 mg produces the same response as drug B at 50 mg, is drug A or B more potent?

A

drug A

156
Q

t/f: the least amount of a drug need to achieve a % response is the most potent drug

A

true

157
Q

will full agonists/antagonists be more or less potent?

A

more potent

158
Q

what is the maximal efficacy of a drug?

A

the extent to which a drug can produce a response when all available receptors or binding sites are occupied

159
Q

what is the effectiveness of a drug?

A

how well a drug works in real-world use

160
Q

are drugs that are efficacious in clinical trials usually more or less effective in real world use?

A

less bc there is less control of outside factors like adherence and nutrition

161
Q

what is a drug interaction?

A

a rxn bw 2 or more drugs/bw a drug and a food/supplement

162
Q

when tums is taken with NSAIDs what happens?

A

the tums decreases the effectiveness of the NSAID

can be good bc it protects the gut

163
Q

should PTs tell pts to hold out of taking meds until after PT bc it interferes with exercise?

A

no! schedule their PT around their med regimine

164
Q

what are the s/s of an allergic response?

A

hives (contact dermatitis), skin rash with or w/o itching, edema, runny nose, red eyes with tearing

165
Q

what are the immunological responses to a drug?

A

allergic reaction

anaphylaxis

166
Q

what is anaphylaxis?

A

a severe systemic allergic reaction involving multiple systems

167
Q

what is anaphylactic shock?

A

a life-threatening decrease in BP that results from an allergic reaction

168
Q

what are the s/s of anaphylaxis?

A

acute dyspnea, sudden hypotension, tachycardia, SOB, rapid swelling of the throat, hives, unconsciousness

DPT 530 (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions