Intro to pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Pharmacokinetics explains what 4 processes?

A

-Absorption
-Distribution
-Metabolism
-Excretion

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2
Q

Pharmacogenomics is ____ to the individual and can be determined by genetic testing (this can impact pharmacokinetics)

A

Specific

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3
Q

Theoretically, drugs can bind to almost any 3-D target to produce one of what three outcomes?

A

-Turn on a protein (agonist)
-Turn off a protein (antagonist)
-Regulate the function of a protein by how the drug binds

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4
Q

Desired effects (as well as adverse effects) occur when drugs bind to selected target molecules, or ____

A

Receptors

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5
Q

The binding of a drug to a receptor causes ____ and ____ changes within the body

A

Biological or physiological

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6
Q

Receptors are macromolecules that mediate the biochemical or physiological changes that occur when the ____ binds

A

Drug

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7
Q

A drug cannot make a protein do something it does not ____ do (it just regulates the function)- think about a dimmer switch on a light bulb

A

Normally

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8
Q

Receptors are generally what type of molecule?

A

Protein

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9
Q

What are the four major levels of the structure of a protein?

A

-Primary (polypeptide chain)
-Secondary (alpha and beta pleated sheets)
-Tertiary (3D structure)
-Quaternary (multiple proteins bound together)

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10
Q

Different parts of the protein have different affinities for ____, meaning they will be either hydrophobic or hydrophillic

A

Water

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11
Q

The ____ ____ on a receptor is where the drug actually binds

A

Binding site

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12
Q

Binding is affected by what types of interaction?

A

-van der Waals forces
-Hydrogen bonding
-Ionic interactions (most common)
-Covalent bonding (rare->usually irreversible and creates an inactivated complex)

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13
Q

An example of a drug that binds with covalent bonding is a…

A

Proton pump inhibitor

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14
Q

Proton pump inhibitors should only be taken for ___ weeks because of their irreversible mechanism of action

A

8

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15
Q

The ____ has the highest absorption of drugs because there is a higher pH, so it is able to ionize drugs

A

Duodenum

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16
Q

Proton pump inhibitors raise the pH of the ____, which may cause too much of the drug to become ionized by the time it reaches the duodenum

A

Stomach

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17
Q

We should stagger giving other drugs ___ hours before or after giving proton pump inhibitors to prevent increased ionization of drugs

A

2

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18
Q

_____ can also inhibit drug absorption, which is why dairy is often contraindicated for many drugs (I.e Tetracycline)

A

Calcium

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19
Q

____ can also inhibit drug absorption, which explains why women who take birth control have different drug metabolism when they are taking their placebo pills

A

Iron

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20
Q

The combination of all the interactions are what gives the drug it’s ____

A

Specificity

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21
Q

The favorability of the drug-receptor interaction is the ____ of the drug for the receptor

A

Affinity

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22
Q

Binding is rarely caused by just one ____

A

Interaction

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23
Q

_____ drug-receptor complexes usually have multiple interactions

A

Stable

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24
Q

Drugs commonly are bound to _____, and the unbound drug is what can then go bind to the actual target and become active/effective

A

Albumin

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25
Q

Hypoalbuminemia can cause drug ____ since too much of the drug would then become active

A

Toxicities

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26
Q

Affinity is very important in the drug-receptor model because it determines how long a drug will be bound to a ___

A

Receptor

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27
Q

The _____ structure of a drug is what gives the drug its physical and chemical properties that determine how it will bind to a receptor

A

Molecular

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28
Q

What are three important factors in the drug-receptor interaction?

A

-Hydrophobicity
-Ionization state (pKa)
-Conformation and stereochemistry

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29
Q

The ____ enantiomer is 4x more potent than the ____ enantiomer due to its ability to bind to the receptor

A

S; R

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30
Q

____ fats are the “bad” fats in butter because they can pack and build up, clogging arteries

A

Trans

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31
Q

Sometimes, drugs will have both ____, and depending on which receptor shape a patient has, one will fit better in one place than another

A

Stereoisomers

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32
Q

Explain the difference between Lexapro and citalopram:

A

-40 mg dose of citalopram is = to 10 mg dose of Lexapro
-You need less Lexapro because there is nothing there to interfere with the binding

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33
Q

Explain the difference between Albuterol and Xopenex:

A

-Albuterol is more expensive, but only because it contains other inactive ingredients (you would need 90 mg since 45 mg are inactive)
-Xopenex only contains the active drug (you would only need 45 mg to produce the same exact effect as albuterol)->important to remember that Xopanex has to be stored in foil since it is sensitive to light

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34
Q

_____ explains the amount of drug at which the drug produces a therapeutic effect

A

Potency

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35
Q

Warfarin is ___% protein bound, which means that it is bound to albumin in the blood but other proteins can be binding as well

A

99%

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36
Q

Women have a thyroid-binding protein that changes in concentration during ____; this may impact dosage of Levothyroxine if someone is already on it before pregnancy (this is important because if the mother’s thyroid isn’t working, the fetus is at risk)

A

Pregnancy

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37
Q

Albumin is made in the ____, so any issues with it can cause decreased albumin production

A

Liver

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38
Q

People awaiting liver transplants will not have good albumin stores, which causes drug concentration to ____, which could lead to bleeding if on Warfarin

A

Increase

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39
Q

When you give multiple drugs at the same time, it is important to know which has the higher ____, so you know what dose to give (if one has a higher affinity to albumin than the other, the other one will have higher levels in the blood and may cause toxic effects)

A

Affinity

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40
Q

If you give Levothyroxine (used to treat hypothyroidism) and Warfarin at the same time, what symptoms could you look for in order to determine which one has the higher affinity?

A

-Hyperthyroid symptoms (insensitivity to heat, bulging eyes, irritation, jitters, increased color)
-Bleeding

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41
Q

In some cases, drugs bind to sites that have _____ activity

A

Enzymatic

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42
Q

The ____ ____ is where enzymatic transformation is catalyzed

A

Active site

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43
Q

If a drug inhibits the binding of the normal substrate of the active site, it inhibits the ____ action

A

Enzymes

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44
Q

In some cases, the drug does not bind to the active site; in these cases, the drug may change the ___ of the receptor to increase or decrease substrate binding

A

Shape

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45
Q

Drugs can also bind and change the conformation of the receptor, referred to as ____ ____

A

Induced fit

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46
Q

Omega 3s are “bad” substrates when it comes to lowering cholesterol, so the function of the enzyme is blocked; you need ____ mg of EHA and HDA to affect cholesterol levels

A

1000

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47
Q

What are three things that could result from an induced fit binding?

A

-Closes the active site
-Opens the active site
-Desensitizes the active site (inactivated)

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48
Q

An example of a drug that desensitizes is ____; once on a certain dose for some time, more pain receptors will be made and less of those receptors will be blocked by the drug, leading to a need to increase the dose

A

Opioids

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49
Q

_____ is when the drug (or receptor?) gets pulled into the cell instead of remaining active on the surface; eventually, lysosomes will clear the drug from the inside of the cell

A

Downregulation

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50
Q

_____ would be when more receptors are made to make for of the drug active

A

Upregulation

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51
Q

A drug like ____ stabilizes the inactive receptors so that if more histamine comes, it can’t become active, therefore preventing upcoming symptoms (this is why you should take the drug before you have any allergy symptoms)

A

Allegra

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52
Q

The structure of a drug can affect its ability to get to the membrane because of the ____ ____

A

Plasma membrane

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53
Q

Highly ____-____ drugs are generally less able to pass through the plasma membrane or they need membrane channels or transporters

A

Water-soluble

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54
Q

Highly _____ drugs cross the membrane easily and have good access to intracellular targets

A

Lipophilic

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55
Q

Rational drug design allows us to gain knowledge of the _____ of the receptor

A

Structure

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56
Q

Rational drug design lets us understand the factors affecting the receptor in order to determine the _____ between the drug and the receptor

A

Specificity

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57
Q

Rational drug design also allows us to increase ____ and decrease ____ by binding more selectively to the receptor

A

Efficacy; toxicity

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58
Q

What are two determinants of drug selectivity?

A

-Cell-type specificity of receptor subtypes
-Cell-type specificity of receptor-effector coupling

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59
Q

In general, the more restricted the cell-type distribution, the more ____ the drug will be

A

Selective

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60
Q

In general, the more receptor-effector coupling mechanisms that differ among the cells types targeted, the ____ selective the drug will be

A

More

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61
Q

Beta-blockers have an adrenergic effect by blocking _____ in the sympathetic nervous system; these drugs are selective because they only affect beta 1

A

Norepinephrine

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62
Q

Beta 1 is mainly in the ___ and Beta 2 is mainly in the ____

A

Heart, lungs

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63
Q

If someone is taking too much _____ for hypertension, it becomes less selective and instead of only working on beta 1 in the heart, it becomes less selective and affects beta 2 in the lungs, possibly inducing an asthma attack

A

Metoprolol

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64
Q

Almost every cell in the body has a ____ receptor, so making a selective thyroid drug is very difficult

A

Thyroid

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65
Q

____ can be used to treat central nervous system conditions which cause overactivity; if this gets into the CNS, it reduces activity of norepinephrine which in excess, can cause depressive symptoms

A

Propranolol

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66
Q

What are some examples of drug receptors?

A

-Transmembrane ion channel (common)
-Transmembrane linked to intracellular G protein (common)
-Transmembrane with enzymatic cytosolic domain
-Extracellular enzyme
-Adhesion

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67
Q

Drugs can bind to ion channels spanning the plasma membrane, causing an alteration in the channel’s ____

A

Conductance

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68
Q

Heptahelical receptors spanning the plasma membrane are functionally coupled to intracellular ___ proteins; drugs can influence the actions of these receptors by binding to the extracellular domain of a transmembrane region of the receptor

A

G

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69
Q

Drugs can bind to the extracellular domain of a transmembrane receptor and cause a change in signaling within the cell by activating or inhibiting an enzymatic ____ ____ of the same receptor molecule

A

Intracellular domain

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70
Q

Drugs can diffuse through the plasma membrane and bind to cytoplasmic or nuclear receptors; this is often the pathway used by ____ drugs that bind to steroid hormone receptors

A

Lipophilic

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71
Q

Drugs can also inhibit enzymes in the extracellular space without the need to cross the ____ ___

A

Plasma membrane

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72
Q

For a drug to work intracellularly, it must be very _____ since it needs to get through the phospholipid bilayer

A

Lipophilic

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73
Q

Xeljanz is a ____ inhibitor that works to inhibit messages internally (think about ringing a doorbell but nobody comes to answer the door); this means that the autoimmune system creates inflammatory cells but they don’t have any harmful effects on the joints

A

Jak

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74
Q

What are three types of transmembrane ion channels?

A

-Ligand-gated
-Voltage-gated
-Second messenger regulated

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75
Q

The plasma membrane acetylcholine receptor is composed of ____ subunits

A

5

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76
Q

In the absence of acetylcholine, the receptor gate is _____, and cations (most importantly, sodium), are unable to traverse the channel

A

Closed

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77
Q

When acetylcholine is bound to both alpha subunits, the channel opens and ____ can pass down its concentration gradient into the cell

A

Sodium

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78
Q

Beta-blockers slow heart rate by blocking ____ channels (they work during phase 2 and phase 4 of the action potential)

A

Calcium

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79
Q

Beta-blockers and calcium blockers together are contraindicated because it reduces _____

A

Contractility

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80
Q

Class I antiarrhythmic blockers extend the whole interval of the contraction and may cause ____ prolongation

A

QT

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81
Q

Antiarrhythmic agents can worse existing arrhythmias by increasing their ____ or ____ or altering the rate of arrhythmias causing new ones

A

Duration or frequency

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82
Q

Transmembrane G protein-coupled receptors are the most ____ class of receptors in humans

A

Abundant

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83
Q

Transmembrane G protein-couple receptors are exposed at the ___ of the cell membrane and traverse through the membrane

A

Surface

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84
Q

Transmembrane G protein-coupled receptors have intracellular regions that activate signaling molecules called ____ ____

A

G proteins

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85
Q

G proteins bind ____ and ____

A

GTP and GDP

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86
Q

A major role for G proteins is to activate the production of ____ ____

A

Second messengers

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87
Q

Unless they bind covalently, the binding of the agonist is not ____

A

Permanent

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88
Q

In the resting state, the alpha and beta subunits of a G protein are associated with one another, and ____ is bound to the alpha subunit

A

GDP

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89
Q

Binding of an extracellular ligand (agonist) to a G protein-coupled receptor causes the exchange of ___ for ___ on the alpha subunit

A

GTP for GDP

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90
Q

The beta subunit dissociates from the alpha subunit, which diffuses to interact with ____ proteins

A

Effector

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91
Q

Interaction of the GTP-associated alpha subunit with an effector ____ the effector

A

Activates

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92
Q

In some cases, the ___ subunit can also activate effectors proteins

A

Beta

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93
Q

Depending on the receptor subtype and the specific G-alpha isoform, G-alpha can also ____ the activity of an effector molecule

A

Inhibit

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94
Q

The alpha subunit possesses intrinsic ____ activity, which leads to the hydrolysis of GTP to GDP, leading to the reassociation of the alpha subunit with the beta subunit and the cycle can begin again

A

GTPase

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95
Q

What are the 5 types of transmembrane receptors with enzymatic systolic domains?

A

-Tyrosine kinase (largest group)
-Tyrosine phosphatases
-Tyrosine kinase-associated receptors
-Receptor serine/theronine kinases
-Receptor Guanylyl cyclases

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96
Q

Transmembrane receptors have roles in cell…

A

-Metabolism
-Growth
-Differentiation

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97
Q

Intracellular targets can be ____ and have the ability to alter signaling or metabolic molecules

A

Enzymes

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98
Q

Lipophilic drugs can target ____ receptors that affect transcription regulator factors (like steroid hormones)

A

Cytosolic

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99
Q

Lipophilic can also act on cytosolic ____ proteins (antimicrobial and antineoplastic chemotherapy)

A

Structural

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100
Q

Small lipophilic molecules can diffuse through the plasma membrane and bind to intracellular ___ ___

A

Transcription factors

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101
Q

Ligand binding triggers a conformational change in the ____ that leads to transport of the ligand-receptor complex into the nucleus

A

Receptor

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102
Q

In the nucleus, the ligand-receptor complex typically ____

A

Dimerizes

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103
Q

The dimerized ligand-receptor complex binds to ____ and then may recruit coactivators or corepressors; these complexes alter the rate of gene transcription, leading to a change (either up or down) in cellular protein expression

A

DNA

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104
Q

The target of extracellular enzymes is outside of the ___ ___

A

Plasma membrane

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105
Q

Extracellular enzymes can target enzymes that convert or modify molecules that can influence _____ processes

A

Physiological

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106
Q

One example of a class of drugs that effects extracellular enzymes is…

A

ACE inhibitors

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107
Q

____ gets converted to Angiotensin I and then II

A

Renin

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108
Q

Renin is released in response to ____ blood pressure

A

Low

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109
Q

ACE metabolizes ____, so when ACE is blocked, it accumulates; this causes irritation in the lung tissue that causes a dry, unproductive cough which can decrease the quality of sleep and induce insomnia

A

Bradykinin

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110
Q

____ is when 2 cells have an area of contact between them

A

Adhesion

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111
Q

Adhesion is required for some functions to occur and is mediated by ____

A

Receptors

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112
Q

What are two examples where adhesion is important?

A

-Formation of tissue
-Migration of immune cells to a site of imflammation

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113
Q

____ or ____ of receptors can lead to cell damage or adverse effects to the body as a whole

A

Overstimulation or inhibition

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114
Q

Over time, the receptors may become ____ to the drug (decreased ability to respond to stimuli)

A

Desensitized

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115
Q

With _____ desensitization, only one type of receptor is diminished but with ____, two or more are diminished

A

Homologous; heterologous

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116
Q

Receptors can also become ____, in which the receptor becomes completely turned off

A

Inactivated

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117
Q

Receptors may also have altered ____ ____, which affects the time before receptors can be stimulated again (Ex: voltage-gated ion channels)

A

Refractory times

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118
Q

Repeated or persistent _____ interaction causes removal of receptors or sites available for interaction

A

Downregulation

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119
Q

With downregulation, ____ sequesters the receptors

A

Endocytosis

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120
Q

Cells can also alter the level of synthesis of receptors, which also regulates the number of receptors available for ____

A

Binding

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121
Q

Not all drugs interact with receptors; what are two examples of drug classes that do not?

A

-Osmotic diuretics
-Antacids

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122
Q

Osmotic diuretics act on ____ ___ to change the osmolarity of nephrons directly

A

Ion channels

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123
Q

Antacids absorb or chemically ____ acid

A

Neutralize

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124
Q

____ explains the effects of a drug on the body

A

Pharmacodynamics

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125
Q

Medications can be used at different ____ for different conditions (Ex: Metoprolol can be used to control blood pressure or heart rate)

A

Doses

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126
Q

____ is an alpha 2 agonist that is used when someone is agitated after being under anesthesia; it reduces norepinephrine availability which can induce sleep

A

Precedex

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127
Q

There is a lot of difference in response to psychiatric drugs because of manipulation of _____

A

Neurotransmitters

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128
Q

_____ is tightly controlled; a drug has to get a new steady state to be established

A

Desensitization

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129
Q

_____ is the ability of a drug to produce its effect

A

Efficacy

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130
Q

It is difficult to determine efficacy with ____

A

Antagonists

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131
Q

____ mimic activity that your body normally does

A

Agonists

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132
Q

Antagonists do not really have ____, they just block the activity of an agonist

A

Efficacy

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133
Q

The ____-____ relationship is the relationship between dose (drug concentration) and the patients

A

Dose-response

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134
Q

In general, the response to a drug is proportional to the ____ of receptors that are occupied by the drug

A

Concentration

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135
Q

A ____ Kd indicates a tighter drug-receptor interaction, meaning there is a higher affinity

A

Lower

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136
Q

Kd corresponds to the ligand concentration at which ___% of the receptors are bound by ligand

A

50%

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137
Q

What are the 2 major types of dose-response relationship?

A

-Graded
-Quantal

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138
Q

The graded dose-response relationship explains the effect that various doses have on an ____ and symptoms like heart rate and BP

A

Individual

139
Q

The quantal dose-response relationship explains the effect of various doses on a ____ (looks at the response to the dose) and looks at things like sleep or no sleep or lives at 6 months or dead at 6 months

A

Population

140
Q

EC50 is the _____ of a drug, or the concentration at which the drug elicits 50% of its maximal effect

A

Potency

141
Q

The potency and efficacy of a drug are ____ related

A

Not

142
Q

We can compare the potency of 2 drugs by comparing the ____ of the 2 drugs

A

EC50

143
Q

_____ is the maximal response produced by the drug

A

Emax

144
Q

With quantal dose-response relationships, the responses are defined as ____ or ___ ____ (as opposed to a grades response such as heart rate)

A

Present or not present

145
Q

What are three important parameters for quantal responses?

A

-Therapuetic effect (medican effective dose; ED50)
-Adverse effect (toxic effect; TD50)
-Lethal effect (medial lethal dose; LD50)

146
Q

Drug + receptor<_______>Drug-receptor complex

A

Affinity (k1/k2)

147
Q

Drug-receptor complex <_______> Effect

A

Efficacy (K3)

148
Q

K1 is the ____ constant, and explains how fast the drug-receptor complex is formed

A

Association

149
Q

K2 is the _____ constant, and explains how fast the complex comes off of each other

A

Dissociation

150
Q

The ratio is K1/K2 is the ____

A

Affinity

151
Q

K3 is where we get our ____ from

A

Efficacy

152
Q

An ____ is a molecule that binds to a receptor and stabilizes it in a particular conformation (usually the active conformation)

A

Agonist

153
Q

An ____ is a molecule that inhibits the action of an agonist, but has no effect in the absence of the agonist

A

Antagonist

154
Q

Antagonists can bind to the active site or the ____ site

A

Allosteric

155
Q

The binding of an antagonist can be ____ or ____

A

Reversible or irreversible

156
Q

Antagonists ____ the agonists

A

Oppose

157
Q

_____ antagonists bind reversibly to the active site of the receptor

A

Competitive

158
Q

Competitive antagonists maintain receptors in the _____ conformation and block the agonist from binding, but can be pushed off the receptor

A

Inactive

159
Q

Competitive antagonists reduce _____

A

Potency

160
Q

Noncompetitive antagonists bind to either the ____ or ____ site

A

Active or allosteric

161
Q

If noncompetitive antagonists bind to the active site, they bind ____ and can not be competed for by the agonist

A

Irreversibly

162
Q

What is one example of a non-competitive antagonist?

A

Aspirin

163
Q

Aspirin irreversibly inhibits ______

A

Cyclooxygenase

164
Q

If a noncompetitive antagonist binds to the allosteric site, it prevents the receptor from being activated even if the agonist binds, therefore reducing ____

A

Efficacy

165
Q

Competitive antagonists are two drugs fighting for the ____ spot

A

Same

166
Q

Drug ___ can raise the concentration to make the combative one have an advantage

A

Sitting

167
Q

_____ can bind at the allosteric site and can increase or decreases activity because it changes shape

A

Benzodiazepines

168
Q

Chemical nonreceptor antagonists modify or sequester the ____ so that it can not bind to the receptor

A

Agonist

169
Q

Physiological nonreceptor antagonists activate or block a receptor that mediates a physiological response ____ of the agonists

A

Opposite

170
Q

An example of a nonreceptive physiological antagonist is _____, which blocks sympathetic stimulation

A

Hyperthyroid

171
Q

When _____ agonists bind to the active site, they only produce a partial response even if all of the receptors are occupied

A

Partial

172
Q

The dose-response curves of partial agonists plateau at values ____ than those of full agonists

A

Less

173
Q

A receptor antagonist that binds reversibly is a ____ ____

A

Competitive antagonist

174
Q

A receptor antagonist that binds irreversibly to the active site is a _____ ____ ____ ____

A

Noncompetitive active site antagonist

175
Q

Receptor antagonists that bind to the allosteric site, either reversibly or irreversibly, are ____ ____ ___

A

Noncompetitive allosteric antagonists

176
Q

An agonist alone can increase in ____ and still get up to max effect

A

Concentration

177
Q

A competitive antagonist reduces the ____ of an agonist without affecting agonist efficacy

A

Potency

178
Q

A non-competitive antagonist reduces the ____ of an agonist

A

Efficacy

179
Q

_____ agonists act to nullify the intrinsic activity of unoccupied receptors

A

Inverse

180
Q

Both inverse agonists and competitive antagonists reduce ___ ___ and full agonist ____

A

Receptor activity; potency

181
Q

Inverse agonists and competitive antagonists differ in that competitive antagonists have no effect without the presence of an ____, whereas inverse agonists deactivate receptors that are normally active in the absence of an agonist

A

Agonist

182
Q

An example of an inverse agonist is an _____

A

Antihistamine

183
Q

____ _____ are present in a situation where max effect is seen before all receptors are occupied

A

Spare receptors

184
Q

Spare receptors change the dose-response curve to a _____ ____

A

Noncompetitive antagonist

185
Q

With spare receptors, the max effect may still be achieved in response to ____ concentrations of an antagonist

A

Low

186
Q

With ____ ____, the drug may only need to block some of the receptors in order to reduce blood pressure

A

Beta blockers

187
Q

In a system without spare receptors, a noncompetitive antagonist causes ____ to decrease at all concentrations of the antagonist

A

Efficacy

188
Q

In a system with spare receptors, ____ is decreased but efficacy is unaffected at low concentrations of the antagonist, because a sufficient number of unoccupied receptors is available to generate a maximal response

A

Potency

189
Q

As increasing concentrations of antagonist bind noncompetitively to more and more receptors, the antagonist eventually occupies all of the ____ receptors, and efficacy is also reduced

A

Spare

190
Q

The ____ ____ is a range of drug concentrations that deliver a therapeutic response without toxicity, or the drug concentration between the toxic dose and the effective dose

A

Therapeutic window

191
Q

The ___ ___ is the ratio of TD50/ED50

A

Therapeutic index

192
Q

A large therapeutic index represents a ____ therapeutic window

A

Large

193
Q

A small therapeutic index represents a narrow therapeutic window, and these drugs require careful ____ and ____

A

Dosing and monitoring

194
Q

_____ (ADME) explains what the body does to the drug

A

Pharmacokinetics

195
Q

What does ADME stand for?

A

-Absorption
-Distribution
-Metabolism
-Excretion

195
Q

What does ADME stand for?

A

-Absorption
-Distribution
-Metabolism
-Excretion

196
Q

If drugs are not ____, they will not have any therapeutic effect

A

Absorbed

197
Q

_____ has an administration requirement of increasing fluid intake by 1.5 liters to prevent bladder crystals, which will not help pain upon urination and other UTI symptoms (many people will stop taking the drug altogether)

A

Bactrim

198
Q

At all times, free drug in the systemic circulation is in ____ with tissue reservoirs, plasma proteins, and the target site (which usually consists of receptors); only the fraction of the drug that successfully binds to specific receptors will have a pharmacologic effect

A

Equilibrium

199
Q

What are three barriers that drugs must overcome to reach the target site?

A

-Physical (route to enter the body)
-Chemical (acidic environment)
-Biological (blood-brain barrier, placental barrier, cell membrane)

200
Q

A biological membrane is the ___ ___, which has a hydrophilic surface with a hydrophobic core

A

Lipid bilayer

201
Q

_____ is a drug used for rheumatoid arthritis; it has a problem with accumulating and can become toxic because it is designed to inhibit the metabolism

A

Methotrexate

202
Q

____ ____ is not active until in the body and cannot be used when taking methotrexate

A

Folic acid

203
Q

An obese person may need a higher dose to have any therapeutic effect, but may have ____ effects later on

A

Toxic

204
Q

A ___-___ is the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be removed from blood

A

Half-life

205
Q

Half-life does not stay constant; it has a direct effect on the availability of the drug to cause _____ effect

A

Therapeutic

206
Q

If you increase the time between doses, there is more to for ____

A

Clearance

207
Q

____ is a drug that has reduced clearance; it induced an arrhythmia and extended QT interval; all statins will increase QT

A

Amantadine

208
Q

The hydrophobic core of biological membranes presents the major barrier to drug ____

A

Transport

209
Q

What type of drugs can cross the membrane via passive diffusion?

A

-Nonpolar
-Lipophilic
-Unionized

210
Q

Other larger polar drugs need help via ____ ____ or ____ ____

A

Facilitated diffusion or active transport

211
Q

The _____ enzyme system is responsible for the metabolism of drugs and there is variability between people in how they absorb drugs

A

CYP450

212
Q

______ can have toxic effects at large doses due to specific metabolites; within 8-10 hours, it can destroy the liver and cause the need for a transplant

A

Acetaminophen

213
Q

The rate of diffusion depends on the ____ ____, which is explained by Fick’s Law

A

Concentration gradient

214
Q

Fick’s law applies when there are no _____, meaning that the drug is small, unionized, and lipophilic

A

Complications

215
Q

The drug will diffuse along the concentration gradient until _____ is reached (molecules moving in = those moving out)

A

Equilibrium

216
Q

____ ____ can occur when an unionized drug crosses the membrane, but due to the conditions of the environment on the other side, the molecule becomes trapped

A

pH (ion) trapping

217
Q

The amount of trapped drug is determined by the ____ (dissociation constant) of the drug and the pH of the environment

A

pKa

218
Q

What is an example of a type of drug that participates in ion trapping?

A

NSAIDs

219
Q

When taken for extended periods of time, NSAIDs can cause ___ ___ due to ion trapping (the pH of the lining of the stomach is less acidic which causes the drug to become ionized and get stuck in the lining of the stomach

A

Peptic ulcers

220
Q

NSAIDs block _____ which blocks prostaglandin secretion; the charged drug erodes away at the mucosal barrier and causes peptic ulcers (we can give proton pump inhibitors, but then we lose the benefits of having an acidic environment in the stomach

A

Cyclooxygenase

221
Q

____ ____ might prevent absorption of drugs into the stomach lining, but a downside is that the rest of the drug might not be absorbed as well

A

Enteric coating

222
Q

The blood-brain barrier has ___ ____ that do not allow most drugs to pass by passive diffusion

A

Tight junctions

223
Q

Drugs need to be small and lipophilic or use existing ____ ____ in the blood-brain barrier to pass through

A

Transport proteins

224
Q

Hydrophilic drugs can pass if they target facilitated or active ____ ___ of the blood-brain barrier

A

Transport proteins

225
Q

We can also infuse drugs directly into the ____ ____ to avoid the blood-brain barrier

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

226
Q

_____ is the amount of drug available to the target organ

A

Bioavailability

227
Q

We can also explain bioavailability as the quantity of a drug reaching the systemic ____ divided by the quantity of drug administered (only applied to drugs that reach their target site by systemic circulation

A

Circulation

228
Q

The ___ ___ ____ is the concentration in the blood the drug needs to be at in order to be effective

A

Minimal effective concentration

229
Q

The therapeutic window is between the ____ and ____

A

MTC (minimal toxic concentration) and MEC (minimal effective concentration)

230
Q

When figuring out dosing and timing of doses, we need to see how long it takes for drugs to reach maximal _____; we want to give a second dose at the point when the concentration reaches the minimal effective concentration

A

Concentration

231
Q

An IV drug is ____ available in the circulation and then distributed to other body compartments and eliminated by first-order kinetics

A

Immediately

232
Q

Any other route of administration (oral, subcutaneous, IM) demonstrate ____ entry of the drug into the blood and must also take into account the bioavailability of the drug

A

Slower

233
Q

If a drug has 100% bioavailability, the total amount of drug reaching the systemic circulation will be the same for all routes of drug administration, but non-IV routes will require a longer period od time to reach a maximal _____ of drug in the plasma

A

Concentration

234
Q

If the bioavailability of an oral, subcutaneous, or IM dosage form is less than 100%, then the dose of the drug would have to be ____ in order for the total amount of drug reaching the systemic circulation to be the same as that of an intravenous dose

A

Increased

235
Q

____ is the simplest of drug routes, but exposes the drug to harsh acidic and basic environments that can limit absorption

A

Enteral

236
Q

After absorption, enteral drugs go to the liver where they experience the ____ ____ ____ where the liver enzymes metabolize a fraction of the drug, reducing the drug concentration systemically available

A

First pass effect

237
Q

With _____ administration of drugs, the drug is delivered directly into the systemic circulation or tissue space

A

Parenteral

238
Q

Examples of parenteral drug administration routes:

A

-Subcutaneous
-Intermuscular
-Intervenous
-Intrathecal (into the CNS)

239
Q

Drugs can also be administered into mucus membranes like…

A

-Sublingual
-Ocular
-Pulmonary
-Nasal
-Rectal

240
Q

Advantages of administrating drugs into mucous membranes:

A

-Rapid absorption
-Convenience
-Avoid harsh GI 1st pass effect

241
Q

Transdermal drugs are absorbed through the skin; these drugs must be highly ____

A

Lipophilic

242
Q

Transdermal drugs are good for drugs that need to be ____ and ____ administered

A

Slowly and continuously

243
Q

The duration of action and peak plasma concentration of a drug can be affected markedly by the drug’s ____ ____

A

Absorption rate

244
Q

What are three factors that affect absorption of drugs?

A

-Blood flow (greatest effect)
-Surface area
-High/rapid dose

245
Q

If someone has a damaged intestinal tract and poor blood flow, this would cause erratic and non-predictable ____ rates

A

Absorption

246
Q

The volume of distribution is equal to…

A

Dose/ (drug concentration in plasma)

247
Q

The volume of distribution can be manipulated to find the ____ ____

A

Loading dose

248
Q

The loading dose is equal to the (volume of distribution X concentration steady state)/_____

A

Bioavailability

249
Q

What are factors that affect the volume of distribution?

A

-Tissue distributed to (muscle, adipose, hepatic)
-Volume or mass of the tissue
-Number of binding sites in tissues
-Protein binding-proteins can bind (inactive) to a large percentage of a drug and only a small percentage of a drug and only a small percentage remains free (active)

250
Q

A drug that has a higher volume of distribution than another equally potent drug will take a ____ initial dose to reach a therapeutic concentration

A

Higher

251
Q

Coadministration of other drugs can affect the percentage of _____ drug

A

Bound

252
Q

_____ is one of the most netgatively charged ions, so it can not get across the placenta, making it safe during pregnancy

A

Heparin

253
Q

A drug that is bound to albumin or other plasma proteins cannot diffuse from the ____ ____ into the surrounding tissues

A

Vascular space

254
Q

Drugs that do not bind to plasma proteins appreciably diffuse ___ into tissues

A

Readily

255
Q

Drugs that do not bind to plasma proteins have a ____ level of binding to the site of action and a high rate of elimination

A

High

256
Q

Drugs that exhibit high levels of binding to plasma proteins require a ____ total plasma drug concentration of free, unbound drug in the circulation (otherwise, only a small fraction of the drug can diffuse into the extravascular space and only a small percentage of the receptors are occupied

A

High

257
Q

Most drugs are distributed ____ from the systemic circulation to other compartments in the body; this accounts for the sharp decrease in plasma drug concentration after an IV bolus, this decline continues, but not nearly as fast because drug from tissues can diffuse back into blood as drug is eliminated

A

Rapidly

258
Q

Immediately after intravenous administration of a drug, the plasma concentration rapidly ____ as the drug distributes from the vascular compartment to other body compartments

A

Declines

259
Q

The ____ plays the biggest role in drug metabolism, but the GI system, lungs, skin, and kidneys also play important roles

A

Liver

260
Q

Hepatic enzymes can chemically modify a variety of substituents on drug molecules in a process called ____ which can make the drugs inactive or facilitate its elimination

A

Biotransformation

261
Q

What are the two types of biotransformation?

A

-Phase I (oxidation/reduction reactions)
-Phase II (conjugation/hydrolysis reactions)

262
Q

Oxidative/reduction reactions are facilitated mostly through the ____; some prodrugs take advantage of this metabolism

A

CYP450

263
Q

Conjugation/hydrolysis reactions hydrolyze or conjugate a drug to a large polar molecule to inactivate or to enhance _____

A

Solubility

264
Q

What are the most common substances to add to cause conjugation/hydrolysis reactions?

A

-Gluconate
-Sulfate
-Glutathione
-Acetate

265
Q

Most drugs are excreted through ____ (most common) or ____ (less common) excretion

A

Renal; biliary

266
Q

Other than renal and biliary, other drugs can be eliminated in…

A

-Feces
-Respiratory
-Dermal

267
Q

Renal blood flow makes up ____% of systemic blood flow

A

25

268
Q

The rate of elimination through the kidneys depends on…

A

-Filtration
-Secretion
-Reabsorption

269
Q

____ can link onto a metabolite or drug to escort it out of the body

A

Conjugates

270
Q

Drugs can be filtered at the renal ____

A

Glomerulus

271
Q

Drugs will then be secreted into the ____ ____ of the kidney

A

Proximal tubule

272
Q

Drugs can then be reabsorbed from the tubular lumen and transported back into the blood as the ____ ____ develops or excreted in the urine

A

Concentration gradient

273
Q

The relative balance of filtration, secretion, and reabsorption rates determines the kinetics of drug ____ by the kidney

A

Elimination

274
Q

What three things can cause a drug to be excreted more rapidly?

A

-Enhancing blood flow
-Increasing GFR
-Decreasing plasma protein binding

275
Q

Although reabsorption can decrease the elimination rate of a drug, many drugs exhibit ____ ____ in the distal tubule and are therefore efficiently excreted in the urine

A

pH trapping

276
Q

For drugs that are dependent on the kidney for elimination, compromised renal function can result in ____ plasma drug concentrations, and the dose and frequency of the drug administration must be altered accordingly

A

Higher

277
Q

Drugs can be reabsorbed because the bile duct enters the GI tract in the ____, and drugs must pass through the small and large intestines before being eliminated

A

Duodenum

278
Q

With ____ ___, drugs get reabsorbed in the GI and retained in the portal and then system circulation

A

Enterohepatic circulation

279
Q

Digoxin is renal cleared, but if someone can’t get the drug excreted, the concentration would be too high and this could ____ heart rate

A

Decrease

280
Q

Digitoxin has the same effect as digoxin but it is ____ eliminated instead of renaly eliminated

A

Hepatically

281
Q

Drug _____ is the parameter that limits the time a drug has at its molecular, cellular, and organ targets

A

Clearance

282
Q

The rate of elimination of the drug from the body is relative to the ____ of drug in the plasma

A

Concentration

283
Q

Metabolism and excretion can be thought of as _____ mechanisms

A

Clearance

284
Q

Most drugs demonstrate ___-____ kinetics; this means that the amount of drug that is eliminated in a given amount of time is directly proportional to the concentration at that time (constant half-life)

A

First-order

285
Q

Some drugs demonstrate ____-___ kinetics, or saturation; this means that once saturated, the amount of drug eliminated stays constant regardless of the drug concentration in circulation (this can result in toxic or lethal effects)

A

Zero-order

286
Q

What are two drugs that demonstrate zero-order kinetics?

A

-Phenytoin
-Ethanol

287
Q

With zero-order kinetics, there is not nearly enough enzymes to ____ half of the drug in a given period of time

A

Metabolize

288
Q

The half-life of a drug is the amount of time over which the drug concentration in the plasma decreases to ___ of its original value

A

1/2

289
Q

If the volume of distribution goes up, the half life goes ____

A

Up

290
Q

If the volume of distribution stays the same and the clearance goes down, the half life will go ____

A

Up

291
Q

If the volume of distribution goes down and the clearance stays the same, the half life will go ____

A

Down

292
Q

The half-life of Chloroquine is…

A

1 week

293
Q

The half-life of amiodarone is…

A

1 month

294
Q

What are three things that affect volume of distribution?

A

-Aging: decreased muscle mass and distribution
-Obesity: increased adipose and distribution
-Pathological fluid: increased distribution

295
Q

What are 6 things that can affect the clearance of a drug?

A

-P450 induction: increased metabolism
-P450 inhibition: decreased metabolism
-Cardiac failure: decreased clearance
-Hepatic failure: decreased clearance
-Renal failure: decreased clearance

296
Q

_____ explains when you get more work capability in a specific CYP family of enzymes (upregulation, on the other hand, is when you get increased production of enzymes)

A

Induction

297
Q

_____ is when a drug induces its own metabolism

A

Autoinduction

298
Q

The therapeutic dosing goal is to maintain peak plasma concentrations below the ____ concentration and above the ____ effective concentration

A

Toxic; minimum

299
Q

____ ____ is reached after 4-5 half-lives for most drugs

A

Steady state

300
Q

____ is an anticoagulant that may have less risk of bleeding at the correct dose, but at toxic doses, there is a much higher risk of deadly bleeding than with Warfarin

A

Zaralto

301
Q

Can you just double the dose and increase the time between doses for the same effect?

A

No (due to half-life principles)

302
Q

The first several doses of a drug are typically _____ as the drug equilibrates to its stead-state concentration

A

Subtherapeutic

303
Q

If the initial (_____) dose is larger than the maintenance dose, the drug reaches therapeutic concentrations more rapidly

A

Loading

304
Q

The magnitude of the loading dose is determined by the ____ of the drug

A

Vd

305
Q

Excessive maintenance doses or dosing frequency results in drug _____ and toxicity

A

Accumulation

306
Q

Insufficient maintenance doses or dosing frequency results in subtherapeutic ___-___ drug concentrations

A

Steady-state

307
Q

_____ is the process by which the body alters drugs

A

Biotransformation

308
Q

Drugs can be changed in what 4 ways?

A

-Active drug to inactive drug
-Active drug to active or reactive (toxic metabolite)
-Inactive prodrug to active drug
-Unexcretable drug to excretable

309
Q

Metabolites of drugs can be either ____ or ____

A

Pharmacological or toxicological

310
Q

One example of a conjugation reaction is ____, which takes acetaminophen metabolites out of the body

A

Glutathione

311
Q

CYP450 reactions involve a set of ____/_____ steps in which an iron moiety in the P450 enzyme acts as an electron carrier to transfer electrons from NADPH to oxygen; the reduced oxygen is then transferred to the drug, resulting in an additional -OH group on the now-oxidized drug

A

Oxidation/reduction

312
Q

The addition of the -OH group results in increased drug hydrophilicity and an increased rate of drug _____

A

Excretion

313
Q

_____ ____, a sugar, is the most common group that is conjugated to drugs; the addition of these moieties makes the resulting drug metabolite more hydrophilic and often enhances drug excretion

A

Glucuronic acid

314
Q

After oral administration, drug is absorbed in the GI and gets transported through the portal vein to the liver; the liver metabolizes drugs and therefore drugs get metabolized before ever reaching the ____ circulation (known as the first pass effect)

A

Systemic

315
Q

The bioavailability of oral lidocaine is only ___%

A

3

316
Q

What are examples of key molecules that help facilitate the transport of drugs into the cells?

A

-P-glycoprotein (key in intestine)
-OATP
-OCT (important in 1st pass effect and statin metabolism)
-OAT (important for renal secretion of antibiotics and NSAIDs)

317
Q

____ of drug-metabolizing enzymes will decrease drug concentration

A

Induction

318
Q

_____ of drug-metabolizing enzymes will increase drug concentration

A

Inhibition

319
Q

Rates of biotransformation ___ greatly between patient to patient

A

Vary

320
Q

____ is the study of genetic variability of drug metabolism

A

Pharmacogenomics

321
Q

Certain populations have ____ or ____ in their metabolizing enzymes, which can greatly affect drug kinetics for those patients

A

Polymorphisms or mutations

322
Q

What types of things can cause variability in how people metabolize drugs?

A

-Slow metabolizers
-Fast metabolizers
-Race and ethnicity
-Age and gender
-Diet and environment

323
Q

___-___ interactions increase when 2 or more drugs are administered that require metabolism via the same enzymes

A

Drug-drug

324
Q

Two drugs may compete for the same enzyme and reduce the overall ____ of the drugs; this can also increase the concentration of one or both drugs and increase the risk of adverse effects

A

Metabolism

325
Q

Any disease of the ____ can have an impact of CYP450 enzymes (hepatitis, cirrhosis, cancer)

A

Liver

326
Q

Cardiac diseases can often _____ metabolism of drugs

A

Decrease

327
Q

____ disease can increase or decrease the metabolism of drugs

A

Thyroid

328
Q

Unintended effects of a drug are considered ____ effects or ____ effects

A

Side/adverse

329
Q

Mechanisms of drug toxicity:

A

-“On-target”: adverse effects, the drug is on the right receptor, but may be wrong concentration, incorrect tissue, or suboptimal kinetics
-“Off-target”: adverse effects, drug on the wrong receptor
-Production of toxic metabolites
-Production of a harmful immune response
-Idiosyncratic response

330
Q

Four types of harmful immune responses:

A

-Type I: reaction mediated by IgE antibodies
-Type II: cytotoxic reaction mediated by IgG or IgM antibodies
-Type III: reaction mediated by immune complexes
-Type IV: delayed reaction mediated by cellular response

331
Q

Drug toxicity occurs when the drug is recognized as foreign by the ____ ____

A

Immune system

332
Q

Most small molecules can’t trigger an immune response, but drugs covalently bind to proteins and then this molecule, known as a ____, can then trigger an immune response

A

Hapten

333
Q

With an _____ toxicity, there is no obvious mechanism known

A

Idiosyncratic

334
Q

Drug ____ can happen when the dose isn’t kept between the therapeutic efficacy and toxicity

A

Overdose

335
Q

Drug-drug interactions can be due to…

A

-Enzyme metabolism
-Activation by both drugs on the same pathway
-Herbs

336
Q

Drug-drug interactions can be either good; you may want to delay metabolism with drugs like ____ and ____

A

Penicillin and Probenecid

337
Q

Drug-drug interactions can also be bad because sometimes drugs can actively complement each other like how ___ and ____ can cause severe hypotension when taken together

A

Nitroglycerine and Viagra

338
Q

Pathology of drug toxicity:

A

-Can be parent drug (unmetabolized)
-Mostly metabolites that react with proteins, DNA, and oxidative defense molecules
-Can be acute or chronic
-May not be known before hand and only found out about after drug has been on the market for a while

339
Q

_____ is a complex process that causes normal cells to transform into a neoplastic cell that expands

A

Carcinogenesis

340
Q

Carcinogenesis causes ____ damage or mutations

A

DNA

341
Q

____ is the induction of birth defects in the fetus, usually caused by drugs called teratogens

A

Teratogenesis

342
Q

What classes of drugs are fine for pregnancy?

A

A, B, C

343
Q

Class ___ drugs are contraindicated during pregnancy, and an example is ACE inhibitors

A

X