Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Periodontics I > Intro to Periodontics I > Flashcards

Intro to Periodontics I Flashcards

1
Q

what are the macroscopic clinical features of the gingiva

A
  • marginal gingiva
  • gingiva sulcus
  • attached gingiva
  • interdental gingiva
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the microscopic clinical features of the gingiva

A
  • oral epithelium
  • sulcular epithelium
  • junctional epithelium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe the marginal/free gingiva

A
  • unattached (free)
  • about 1mm deep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

in 50% of cases what is the marginal gingiva demarcated from the attached gingiva by

A

a free gingival groove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where is the sulcus epithelium

A

adjacent to tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what depth in considered normal in marginal gingiva

A

2-3mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

describe the attached gingiva

A
  • bound to underlying periosteum of alveolar bone
  • firm, resilient
  • bordered apically by the MGJ
  • varies in width in maxillary and mandibular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

describe the gingival sulcus

A
  • not attached to enamel or cementum
  • bounded apically by the free gingival groove on the oral epithelium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the gingival sulcus called if attachment loss occurs

A

a periodontal pocket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describe the interdental gingiva

A
  • occupies the embrasure
  • pyramidal or col shaped
  • the interproximal space beneath the area of tooth contact- col
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe the oral epithelium

A

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
- turnover of 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe the sulcular epithelium

A
  • 1mm
  • unattached to enamel
  • non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe the junctional epithelium

A
  • attached by hemidesmosomes
  • non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
  • high rate of turnover ( 7-10 days) with average of 10.4 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the layers of the oral epithelium

A
  • stratum corneum
  • stratum granulosum
  • stratum spinosum
  • stratum basale
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the cells of the oral epithelium

A
  • keratinocytes
  • non- keratinocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what do the keratinocytes in the oral epithelium do

A

produce keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the majority of cells in the oral epithelium

A

keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the non-keratinocytes in the oral epithelium and what do they do

A
  • melanocytes- produce melanin
  • langerhans cells- capture, uptake and process antigens
  • merkel cells- sense of touch and found in stratum basale
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what layers does the sulcular epithelium lack

A

stratum corneum and granulosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the importance of sulcular epithlium

A

it is a semi- permeable membrane against bacterial products into underlying tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how many layers are in the junctional epithelium

A

3-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how is the junctional epithelium attached to the tooth surface

A

via hemidesmosomes and non-collagenous proteins- proteoglycans and glycosaminoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does clinical probing depth/sulcus depend on

A

where the probe stops depending on tissue inflammation, probe diameter, probing pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the gingival fibers and where are they located

A
  • gingivodental (dentogingival) group: cementum to gingiva
  • circular group: around the tooth in the gingiva
  • transseptal group: cementum to cementum of adjacent tooth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the gingival fibers

A

fibers that are in close proximity to the alveolar crest contribute to the connective tissue attachment component of the supracrestal attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the clinical features of healthy gingiva? color, contour, consistency, and texture

A
  • color: coral pink
  • contour: depending on location, scalloped
  • consistency: firm and resilient
  • texture: stippling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is stippling

A

a form of adaptive specialization or reinforcement for function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what percentage of the population has stippling

A

40%

29
Q

what does the PDL Do

A
  • attaches the tooth to alveolar bone
  • absorbs occlusal forces
  • transmits occlusal forces to bone
30
Q

what does the PDL contain

A
  • blood vessels
  • collagen I, III, and IV
  • proprioceptive nerve endings: transmits pressure and pain via trigeminal nerve
31
Q

what are the cells in the PDL

A
  • undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
  • fibroblasts
  • cementoblasts/cementoclasts
  • osteoblasts/osteoclasts
    -inflammatory cells
  • epithelial rests of malassez: remnants of hertwig’s root sheath
32
Q

what are the PDL fibers

A
  • alveolar crest
  • horizontal
  • oblique
  • apical
  • interradicular
33
Q

where are alveolar crest fibers located and what do they do

A
  • cementum-> crest alveolar bone
  • prevents. extrusion and lateral movements
34
Q

where are horizontal fibers located and what do they do

A
  • cementum-> alveolar bone at 90 degrees
  • opposes lateral forces
35
Q

where are the oblique fibers located and what do they do

A
  • cementum -> alveolar bone coronal
  • largest group
  • resists vertical masticatory forces
36
Q

where are the apical fibers located and what do they do

A
  • cementum -> apical alveolar bone
  • resists tipping
37
Q

where are the interradicular fibers located and what do they do

A

-cementum -> furcation bone
- resist luxation and tipping

38
Q

describe cementum

A
  • calcified mesenchymal tissue
  • contains 45-50% HA
  • non- vascularized
  • no nerves
  • no lymphatics
  • grows by apposition
  • attached to the fibers of the PDL (sharpeys fibers
39
Q

what are the features of exposed cementum

A
  • rough surface
  • porosities
  • smear layer
40
Q

what does the rough surface of cementum allow for

A

plaque adherence

41
Q

what do porosities in cementum do

A
  • facilitate attachment of calculus
  • facilitate absorption of bacterial enzymes
42
Q

what does the smear layer of cementum do

A

inhibits attachment of CT

43
Q

describe the alveolar process

A
  • supports the tooth
  • vascularized
  • nerves in the periosteum NOT bone
  • lymphatics
  • attachment of PDL fibers
44
Q

what are the components of the alveolar process

A
  • external plate
  • inner socket wall: alveolar bone proper
  • cancellous trabeculae
45
Q

what is the bundle bone and where is it found in the alveolar process

A
  • attachment of PDL fibers into the bone
  • in inner socket wall
46
Q

what is the shape of the alveolar process in the anterior and posterior

A
  • anterior: scalloped
  • posterior: flattened
47
Q

what does the shape of the alveolar process depend on

A

interdental distance, tooth contours, root contours

48
Q

what is the distance of the alveolar process from the CEJ in health

A
  • 1-1.5mm
    -1.5-2mm in adult
49
Q

what is dehiscence

A

lack of bone on the facial or lingual of the tooth but with the interproximal bone

50
Q

what is fenestration

A

lack of bone on the facial or lingual of the tooth resembling a window

51
Q

the alveolar process is a _____ facial and lingual ______ overlying root surfaces

A

thin; cortical plates

52
Q

what happens to alveolar process in adults over the age of 40 years

A
  • increased fibrosis of and increased lipid cell content in marrow spaces and decrease in progenitor cel populations
53
Q

at least ____% of dentate US adults aged 30-90 have perio

A

48%

54
Q

what are the 5 F’s of peroi

A
  • failure to diagnose
  • failure to treat
  • failure to refer for tx
  • failure to establish and follow an appropriate maintenance schedule
  • failure to accept treatment
55
Q

what must general dentists do for patients with perio

A
  • diagnose perio disease
  • inform the patient of clinical findings
  • refer patient to periodontist or treat
  • treat to current standard of care
56
Q

describe stage 1 of perio disease

A
  • initial stage
  • 1-2mm of clinical attachment loss
  • less than 15% bone loss
  • no tooth loos due to perio disease
  • probing depth 4mm or less
  • mostly horizontal bone loss
57
Q

describe stage 2 perio disease

A
  • moderate stage
  • 3-4mm CAL
  • 15-33% bone loss
  • no tooth loss due to perio disease
  • PD 5mm or less
  • mostly horizontal bone loss
58
Q

describe stage 3 perio disease

A
  • severe with potential for additional tooth loss
  • 5mm or more CAL
  • radiographic bone loss beyond 33%
  • tooth loss of four teeth or less
  • PD 6mm or more
  • vertical bone loss of 3mm or more
  • class II-III furcations
  • moderate ridge defects
59
Q

what is stage 4 perio disease

A
  • severe with potential for loss of dentition
  • all stage 3 features
  • need for rehabilitation due to masticatory dysfunction, secondary occlusal trauma, severe ridge defects, bite collapse, pathologic migration of teeth
  • less than 20 remaining teeth or 10 opposing pairs
60
Q

what is the grading of risk of progression for perio disease

A

A: low risk of progression
B: moderate risk of progression
C: high risk of progression

61
Q

what should you initially assume the grade of perio disease is

A

grade B then find more evidence to shift to A or C

62
Q

what are the primary criteria for grading

A
  • direct evidence
  • indirect evidence
63
Q

what is the direct evidence for grading

A
  • historical radiographic bone loss or CAL
64
Q

what is the indirect evidence for grading

A
  • % bone loss/patient age
  • case phenotype
  • heavy plaque accumulation but minimal destruction vs. minimal plaque but major destruction
65
Q

what is the direct evidence for each grade

A
  • grade A: no loss over 5 years
  • grade B: less than 2mm loss over 5 years
  • grade C: greater than 2 mm over 5 years
66
Q

what is the indirect evidence for each grade and how is it calculated

A
  • calculate bone loss percentage / age
  • grade A: less than 0.25
  • grade B: 0.25-1.0
  • grade C: greater than or equal to 1
67
Q

what is the goal of the new system for staging and grading

A
  • easy to use
  • should promote better communication with patient, referring dentists and hygienists, and other healthcare professionals
  • identify response to tx
68
Q

what are the components of supracrestal attachment

A

junctional epithelium and connective tissue

69
Q

what is the length of supracrestal attachment

A

2mm made of 1mm JE and 1 mm of CT

Periodontics I (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions