Intro to ID Flashcards

1
Q

What are systemic signs of infection used in diagnosing SIRS?

A

1) Temp >38°C or <36°C, 2) HR >90 BPM, 3) RR >20 RPM, 4) WBC >12,000 or <4,000 or >10% bands. At least two are needed for SIRS.

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2
Q

What does a ‘left shift’ in WBC differential indicate?

A

An increase in immature neutrophils (bands), typically seen during bacterial infections.

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3
Q

What is the normal range of procalcitonin and its significance?

A

Normal PCT <0.05 mcg/L. A level >0.5 mcg/L suggests bacterial infection and supports antibiotic use.

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4
Q

What are key radiographic tests used to confirm infection?

A

X-ray, CT, MRI, bone scans, and echocardiography (TTE/TEE).

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5
Q

Differentiate between colonization and infection.

A

Colonization: pathogen present without causing symptoms or immune response. Infection: pathogen causes tissue damage and symptoms.

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6
Q

What gram stain and morphology results identify Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Gram-positive cocci in clusters; catalase-positive, coagulase-positive.

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7
Q

What are the four main mechanisms of bacterial resistance?

A

1) Enzymatic inactivation, 2) Altered target sites, 3) Efflux pumps, 4) Reduced permeability (porin loss).

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8
Q

Which beta-lactamase class includes ESBLs, and what is the treatment of choice?

A

Ambler Class A; treatment: Carbapenems (e.g., meropenem).

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9
Q

Define bactericidal vs. bacteriostatic activity.

A

Bactericidal: kills bacteria (preferred in severe infections). Bacteriostatic: inhibits bacterial growth without killing.

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10
Q

What is the key PK/PD parameter for beta-lactams?

A

Time above MIC (fT>MIC); aim for ≥40-70% of dosing interval.

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11
Q

What are the key steps to establish the presence of an infection?

A

1) Clinical signs and symptoms, 2) Lab findings (WBC, ESR, CRP, PCT), 3) Radiologic evidence, 4) Microbial culture and diagnostics.

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12
Q

What are the five main types of laboratory white blood cells and their roles?

A

Neutrophils: bacterial defense; Lymphocytes: viral/fungal/TB; Monocytes: macrophages; Eosinophils: parasites/allergy; Basophils: hypersensitivity.

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13
Q

What are the categories of Gram-positive cocci and their key species?

A

Clusters (Staph aureus, CoNS); Pairs/chains (Strep pneumoniae, viridans strep, Group A/B strep, Enterococcus).

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14
Q

What are Gram-positive bacilli examples and their oxygen requirements?

A

Aerobic: Bacillus, Corynebacterium, Listeria. Anaerobic: Clostridium, Cutibacterium, Actinomyces.

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15
Q

Differentiate aerobic Gram-negative lactose fermenters vs. non-fermenters.

A

Lactose fermenters: E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter. Non-fermenters: Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Proteus, Morganella.

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16
Q

Which organisms are identified as atypical bacteria?

A

Chlamydia spp., Legionella, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Spirochetes (Treponema, Borrelia).

17
Q

What are the main mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance?

A

1) Enzymatic inactivation (e.g., beta-lactamases), 2) Altered target sites (e.g., PBPs), 3) Efflux pumps, 4) Decreased permeability (porin loss).

18
Q

What resistance genes are associated with MRSA and VRE?

A

MRSA: mecA gene (PBP2a); VRE: vanA or vanB gene (D-Ala-D-Lac/Ser change).

19
Q

What are the four Ambler classes of beta-lactamases?

A

Class A: ESBLs, KPC; Class B: MBLs (NDM, VIM, IMP); Class C: AmpC; Class D: OXA-type.

20
Q

What treatment is preferred for ESBL-producing organisms?

A

Carbapenems are first-line. Piperacillin/tazobactam may be used only for urinary sources.

21
Q

What is the significance of AmpC beta-lactamases?

A

Inducible resistance that may lead to derepression with certain antibiotics. Treat with cefepime, carbapenems, or non-β-lactams.