Intro to Clinical Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

Pathology:

Acute inflammation vs. Chronic inflammation

Cells involved?
Onset?
Duration?
Resolves?

A

Acute: Neutrophil inflammation

  • Sudden onset
  • Short duration
  • Usually resolves

Chronic: Leukocyte inflammation

  • Slow onset/follows acute
  • Long duration
  • May never resolve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pathology:

Inflammatory cells

Mobile inflammatory cells? (3)
Other cells involved in inflammation? (2)

A

Neutrophils - pus cells (suppuration)

  • short lived
  • first on scene
  • phagocytic, lysosomal granules, release cytokines/chemokines to attract inflammatory cells

Macrophages

  • long lived
  • phagocytic, antigen presenting cells

Lymphocytes

  • long lived
  • release cytokines/chemokines to attract inflammatory cells
  • IMMUNOLOGICAL MEMORY

Endothelial cells

  • become sticky (allow adhesion) in areas of inflammation
  • become porous (allow cell migration)
  • grow into areas of damage to form new vessels
  • capillaries open (normally shut) in inflammation = redness
  • oedema = oncotic pressure in tissues due to migration of plasma proteins

Fibroblasts

  • Long lived
  • Form collagen (scarring) in areas of chronic inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pathology:

Example of Acute and Chronic inflammation

A

Acute = Acute appendicitis

  • Generalised pain around epigastric region then progresses to…
  • Right lower quadrant/McBurney’s point sharp pain = inflammation reaches abdominal wall

Chronic = Tuberculosis

  • Granulomas - mycobacteria
  • No initial inflammation
  • Fibrosis occurs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pathology:

Treatment for Inflammation

A

NSAIDs: Ibuprofen, Aspirin (COX inhibitors)
Corticosteroids: Immune modulators
MOABs - targeted immune therapies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pathology:

Resolution vs. Repair

A

Resolution:

  • Initiating factor removed
  • Tissue undamaged
  • Regeneration

Repair:

  • Initiating factor still present
  • Tissue damage
  • No regeneration
  • Replacement by collagen (fibroblasts)
    e. g.
  • Heart after MI
  • Brain after cerebral infarction
  • Spinal cord after trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pathology:

Cells that regenerate?
Cells that cannot regenerate?

A

Cells that regenerate:

  • Hepatocytes
  • Pneumocytes
  • All blood cells
  • Gut epithelium
  • Skin epithelium
  • Osteocytes

Cells that cannot regenerate?

  • Myocardial cells
  • Neurones (CNS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pathology:

Define:
Thrombus
Thrombosis

Embolus
Embolism

A

Thrombus = blood clot within a vessel
Thrombosis:
Formation of a solid mass from blood constituents in an intact vessel in a living person
Causes laminar flow to be turbulent if larger enough can occlude
(Verkov’s Triangle)

Embolus = anything that causes embolism
Embolism:
Process of a solid mass (e.g. thrombus/air/fat) in the blood being carried in the circulation to a place it becomes stuck and occludes the vessel

e.g. a deep venous thrombosis of the leg veins which breaks off and embolises through the large veins and right side of the heart to the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pathology:

Define:
Ischemia
Infarction
Reperfusion injury

A

Ischemia = reduction in blood flow

Infarction = death of cells due to reduction in blood flow

Reperfusion injury = injury by superoxide radicals due to cellular response to elevated O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pathology:

Myocardial infarction is an example of…?

Which organs have dual blood/collateral supply?

Areas more susceptible to infarction?

A

End artery ischemia

Liver, Lungs, Brain - so infarctions are less likely to be fatal due to redundancy

Watershed ares - area boundary of adjacent arterial territories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pathology:

Define..
Metaplasia
Hyperplasia
Dysplasia
Neoplasia
Atrophy
Hypertrophy 

Example for each?

A

Metaplasia – Transition from one cell type to another
e.g. metaplasia in bronchi of a smoker

Hyperplasia – increase in the number of cells within a tissue
e.g. Prostate gland – benign prostate hyperplasia

Dysplasia – Abnormal cell population
Neoplasia – Malignant new cells

Atrophy - Decrease in size of a tissue due to loss of number of cells
Hypertrophy - Increase in the size of a tissue caused by increase in size of constituent cells
e.g. Muscle atrophy/hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
Gastritis 
Common cause? 
Cell population? 
Cell type shift? 
Cancer risk?
A

Inflammation of the stomach
Helicobacter infection (Urea breath test, stain cells to diagnose)
Chronic or acute infection
Giant cells = lots of macrophages
Chronic gastritis increases risk of lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Atherosclerosis

Define
Where?
What’s in plaque?
Endothelial damage theory?

A

Build up of sclerotic plaque within arteries
Never within low pressure Common in high pressure
Early stage (reversible) - fatty streaks
Plaque = fibrous tissue, lipids, lymphocytes
Endothelial damage theory
- Free radicals, nicotine, carbon monoxide all damage (smoking) (vaping = fewer ROS but same nicotine)
- Hypertension = shearing forces on endothelial cells
- Poorly controlled diabetes = superoxide anions damage
- Hyperlipidaemia = direct damage to endothelial cells
- Pathogenesis
Recurrant endothelial cell injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pathology:

Define Apoptosis
Apoptotic detector protein?

Define Necrosis
Types of necrosis?

A

Apoptosis – programmed cell (singular) death due to apoptotic switch
e.g. DNA damage

P53 - gatekeeper of genome

Necrosis - traumatic cell death (multiple cells)
e.g. Frostbite, avascular necrosis

Types
Coagulative necrosis – thick and gooey
Liquefactive necrosis – (cerebral infarction)
Caseous necrosis – (Tuberculosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pathology:

Define and give an example for:
genetic disease
congenital disease
acquired disease

A

Genetic disease - occurs primarily from a genetic abnormality
e.g. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a point mutation in the β-globin chain of haemoglobin

Congenital disease - disease present at birth; can be genetic disease but also acquired
e.g. Rhesus haemolytic disease of the newborn

Acquired disease– disease occurs after birth; genetic and nongenetic environmental factors
e.g.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pathology:

Give examples of pathology of ageing - Diagram!

Progeria = increased aging disease

A
  • Cross-linking or mutations of DNA
  • Telomere shortening: Hayflick limit
  • Time-dependent activation of ageing/death genes
  • Free radical accumulation
  • Cross linking of proteins
  • Loss of DNA repair mechanism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pathology:

Common sites of carcinoma metastasis

Define adjuvant therapy

A
  • Lymph nodes (drainage route)
  • Bone, brain, liver (through the blood)

Adjuvant therapy = extra treatment given following surgical excision
e.g. radiotherapy to breast after lumpectomy
minimise the risk of micro metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Patholgy:

Define:

  • Carcinogenesis
  • Oncogenesis
  • Benign/Malignant tumour
A

Carcinogenesis - The transformation of normal cells to neoplastic cells (cancer) through permanent genetic alterations or mutations - MULTISTEP

Oncogenesis – Formation of benign and malignant tumours (tumour = cancer in solid tissue)

Benign tumour – a growth that is not cancer and does not invade or destroy nearby tissue
Malignant tumour – a growth which is cancer and can invade and metastasise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pathology:

Carcinogenesis is…?
Period exposure/cancer?
Classes of carcinogenesis

A
Multistep process
Typically a latent interval between exposure and cancer
Classes: 
- Chemical
- Radiation (non and ionising)
- Biologic (hormones, parasites, mycotoxins
- Viral
- Host
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pathology:

Define;
Carcinoma
Sarcoma
Neoplasm

A

Carcinoma – cancer of the epithelium
Sarcoma – malignancy of connective tissue
Neoplasm – lesion resulting from the autonomous or relatively autonomous abnormal growth of cells which persist after the initiating stimulus has been removed – new growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pathology:

Structure of a neoplasm?
Maximum size before it must recruit vasculature to grow?

A
  • Neoplastic cells
    o derived from nucleated cells – need DNA
    o Synthetic activity is related to the parent cell (Thyroid cell still produces thyroxine)
    o Growth pattern related to parent cell
    o Monoclonal

Within Stroma
o Connective tissue framework (fibrin, collagen)
o Vasculature
o Neoplasm drives the formation of its stroma to nurture itself

2mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pathology:

Neoplasm behavioural classification

Histogenesis classification
Papilloma?
Adenoma?
Carcinoma?
Adenocarcinoma?
A

1) Benign - localised/non-invasive, slow growth, close resemblence to normal tissue
2) Borderline - defy binary like ovarian lesions
3) Malignant - invasive, metastasise, rapid growth, irregular border

The cell specific cell origin of a tumour
Neoplasm = …oma
Prefix depend on cell type

Papilloma
Benign neoplasm of squamous epithelium

Adenoma
Benign tumour of glandular or secretory epithelium

Carcinoma = Malignant tumour of epithelial cells
Prefix it with name of epithelial cell e.g. transitional cell carcinoma

Adenocarcinoma = carcinoma of glandular epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pathology:

In-situ neoplasia

What is invasion dependent on?

Define metastasis

A

In-situ neoplasia = epithelial neoplasms - no invasive carcinoma = no spread
Invasion = metastatic capaility

Invasion dependent on:

  • decreased cellular adhesion
  • increased cellular motility
  • production of lytic enzymes degrade surrounding tissue

Metastasis is the process by which a malignant tumour spreads from its primary site to produce secondary tumours at distant sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pathology:

Routes of metastasis, via:
Blood vessels?
Lymphatics?
Due to surgery?

A

Blood vessels = Haematogenous

Lymphatics = Trans-coelomic

Surgery implantation = iatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pathology:

Metastatic cascade (Diagram test)
Haematogenous
A

Haematogenous metastasis:

1) Intravasation
2) Evasion of host immunity
3) Extravasion
4) Growth at metastatic site
5) Angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pathology:

Routes of metastasis

  • Vein invasion
  • From colon

Appearance of bone mets on X-ray?

A

Vein:
Vena cava - right side of the heart - Lung mets
Can reinvade (PV -> LA/LV -> Aorta) and spread all around the body

Colon:
Portal vein to liver = hepatic mets

“moth eaten bone”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Immunology:

Describe:
Innate immunity
Adaptive immunity

A

II – Instictive, non-specific, present from birth, barrier to antigen, Slow response, No memory
AI – Specific, acquired immunity, lymphocyte/antibody dependent, quick response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Immunology:

Describe separated blood:
Plasma
Buffy coat
Red layer

A

Plasma = straw coloured (90% water, electrolytes, proteins, lipids and sugars)

Buffy coat is Leukocytes (WBCs)

Haemtocrit: Erythrocytes (RBC) volume
Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Immunology:

3 Polymorphonuclear leukocytes?
3 Mononuclear leukocytes?

A

Poly: Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils
Mono: Monocytes (mature to macrophage in tissue), B-cells (mature to plasma cell), T-cells (CD4+, CD8+, Th17, T-regs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Immunology:

Humoral factors
Actions of complement (3) ?
Which complement carries out each function?

A

Direct lysis (MAC – membrane attack complex)
Chemotaxis - Attract leukocytes (C3a + C5a)
Opsonisation (C3b)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Immunology:

Describe:
Innate immunity
Adaptive immunity

A

II – Instictive, non-specific, present from birth, barrier to antigen, Slow response, No memory
AI – Specific, acquired immunity, lymphocyte/antibody dependent, quick response

Both = cells + humoral (Soluble) factors

31
Q

Immunology:

Describe separated blood:
Plasma
Buffy coat
Red layer

A

Plasma = straw coloured (90% water, electrolytes, proteins, lipids and sugars)

Buffy coat is Leukocytes (WBCs)

Haematocrit: Erythrocytes (RBC) volume
Platelets

32
Q

Immunology:

3 Polymorphonuclear leukocytes?
3 Mononuclear leukocytes?

A

Poly: Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils
Mono: Monocytes (mature to macrophage in tissue), B-cells (mature to plasma cell), T-cells (CD4+, CD8+, Th17, T-regs

33
Q

Immunology:

Humoral factors
Actions of complement (3) ?

A

Direct lysis (MAC – membrane attack complex)
Chemotaxis - Attract leukocytes (C3a + C5a)
Opsonisation (C3b)

34
Q

Immunology:

Immunoglobulin characteristics:
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM
A

IgA – Dimer, Secretory IgA dimer
IgD – Surface of mature B cells
IgE – Hypersensitivity, mast cell surface crosslinking = degranulation + histamine
IgG – Most predominant 75%
IgM – Pentamer, found in blood; also find monomeric IgM on B-cells

35
Q

Immunology:

Cytokine function

  • Interferon
  • Interleukins
  • Colony stimulating factors
  • Tumour necrosis factor
A
  • Interferon
    Viral infections
  • Interleukins
    IL-1 = pro-inflammatory
    IL-10 = anti-inflammatory
  • Colony stimulating factors
    Division/differentiation e.g. EPO
  • Tumour necrosis factor
    Inflammation and cytotoxicity, TNF-alpha causes increased adhesion (macrophage release)
36
Q

Immunology:

Examples of chemokines - Chemotaxic
Receptors for chemokines?

A
CXCL "Chemokine ligand-1 CXC motif"
CCL "Chemokine ligand 1" 
CX3CL
XCL
Chemokine ligands have specific receptors
37
Q

Immunology:

Physical and chemical barriers (diagram)

A

Skin: commensals, fatty acids, barrier

Bronchi: mucus, cilia (sterile*)

Gut: Stomach acid low pH, commensals in intestines

Nose: turbulent air flow (turbinates) traps particles

Tears: lysosymes

Vagina: Low pH

Urinary tract = flushing

38
Q

Immunology:

Define inflammation
What happens? 2 key things?

A

“a series of reactions that bring cells and molecules of the immune system to sites of infection or damage”

  • Increased blood supply
  • Increased vascular permeability = increased ‘extravasation’ – immune cell transendothelial migration
39
Q

Immunology:

Steps of phagocytosis (5)

A
  • Binding
  • Engulfment
  • Phagosome formation
  • Phagolysosome
  • MHC class II dependent antigen presentation
40
Q

Immunology:

Mechanisms of microbial killing? (in terms of oxygen)

A
  • O2 dependent: ROS; superoxides, Nitric oxide

- O2 independent: Enzymes, proteins, pH denaturing

41
Q

Immunology:

What is foetal thymus T-cell selection?

A

Any T-cells that recognise self-antigens are removed

42
Q

Immunology:

Primary lymphoid?
Secondary lymphoid?
diagram?

A

Primary = Thymus or Bone marrow

Secondary = Spleen, Lymph nodes, MALT?

43
Q

Immunology:

Which antigen corresponds to which MHC class, which T-cell and TCR?

Extrinsic or intrinsic antigen?

  • IMPORTANT*
  • DIAGRAMS*
A
MHC class I = Tc (CD8+) = Intrinsic antigens
CD “hate”/8 = cytotoxic

MHC class II = T helper (CD4+) = Extrinsic antigens
CD “four the people” = helper
Help B-cell maturation Ab production to that antigen

44
Q

Immunology:

What needs to happen for TCR recognition and activation?
Activation causes?

A

Co-stimulation:
1. MHC + TCR
2. CD80/86 + CD28
Activation = T-cell division, effector functions, memory

45
Q

Immunology:

Tc (CD8+) activated functions (3)

A
  1. Cell lysis: release of perforin + granulysin
  2. IFN gamma- macrophage activation
  3. Chemokines – inflammatory cell recruitment
46
Q

Immunology:

How many epitopes can a B-cell be specific to?
What happens to B-cells that recognise self-antigens (usually)?

A

B-cells are specific to one epitope (antigen)

Undergo apoptosis in the bone marrow = B-cell selection

47
Q

Immunology:

T-helper cell activation (diagram) steps

A
APC presents extrinsic antigen (MHC class II) to TCR (CD4+) on niave T-cell
= Stimulation of IL-12 release from APC = activation to CD4 Th1 cell
48
Q

Immunology:

T-cytotoxic cell activation (diagram) steps

A

CD8+ TCR combines with intrinsic antigen presented on MHC Class I on ANY cell = activation of naive CD8 to cT-cell

49
Q

Immunology:

Which immunoglobulins are expressed on B-cells?

A

Monomeric IgD

Monomeric IgM

(mIgD or mIgM)

50
Q

Immunology:

What are the functions of Immunoglobulins (antibodies) (4)

A
  • Neutralisation of toxins
  • Opsonisation for phagocytosis
  • Link adaptive and innate immunity
  • Activate complement via complement cascade
51
Q

Immunology:

Th1 vs Th2 cells

A

Th1 = Macrophage activation (APC = IL-12 maturation)

Th2 = B-cell activation (APC = IL-4 maturation)

52
Q

Immunology:

T-B cell cooperation
What happens?
What are the two resultant effector cells?

A
Th2 cells (primed to antigen) bind B-cells and secrete cytokines 
IL-4,5,10,13
= 
CLONAL EXPANSION 
Plasma cells = antibodies 
\+ 
Memory B-cells
53
Q

Immunology:

What are the functions of Immunoglobulins (antibodies)

A
  • Neutralisation of toxins
  • Opsonisation for phagocytosis
  • Link adaptive and innate immunity
  • Activate complement via complement cascade
54
Q

Immunology:

B-cell activation steps?
Activation through to long term

A

Specific antigen binds = activation

Activated B-cell travels to lymph nodes and proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells CLONAL EXPANSION

Plasma cells secrete antibody as IgM which then turn into IgG CLASS SWITCHING

Memory B-cells generated as well as plasma cells – these stick around for years

Re-stimulation of Memory B-cells leads to rapid secondary response

55
Q

Immunology:

Example of a vaccination?

What is a toxoid?

A

Tetanus vaccine – Clostridium tetani

Toxoid is an inactivated form of exotoxin

56
Q

Immunology:

Principal of vaccination

A

Memory B-cells formed against inactivated version of virus/exotoxin etc to prime the immune system elicit primary antibody response
Subsequent exposure to that specific virus/toxin will be met with a secondary antibody response = aquired immunity

57
Q

Immunology:

Innate immunity relies on what to recognise fungi/bacteria/viruses?

A

Pattern recognition receptors – recognise conserved elements of pathogens so that we are able to deal with infections

58
Q

Immunology:

What do PRRs respond to? (3)
2 classes of PRRs?

A

Gram +ve/-ve (Bacteria)
dsRNA (Virus)
CpG motifs (DNA)

Secreted/circulating PRRs
Cell associated PRRs

59
Q

Immunology:

Example of circulating/secreted PRRs?
What do they do?

A

Defensins, lectins

Antimicrobial peptides which have direct killing effects and immune modulation

60
Q

Immunology:

Cell associated PRRs?

A

Toll-like receptor family (TLRs)

61
Q

Immunology:

Which TLRs are associate with viral patterns?
Where are they found?

A

TLR3,7,8,9

Often found within endosomes within cells – As viruses are intracellular pathogens

62
Q

Immunology:

Which TLRs are associated with bacterial patterns?

A

TLR1,2,4,5,6

TLR4 (also senses viral proteins)

63
Q

Immunology:

What do Nod-like receptors detect?

What do Rig like helicases detect?

A

NLRs - Intracellular microbial pathogens e.g. peptidoglycan

RLHs - Intracellular viral dsRNA and DNA

64
Q

Immunology:

Roles of PRRs? (3)

A
  • Balance of commensal organisms
  • Regulation of neutrophils
  • Maturation of immune system
65
Q

Immunology:

Damage recognition –
3 Extracellular damage molecules?
3 Intracellular damage molecules?

A
Extracellular: 
-	Fibrinogen
-	Hyaluronic acid
-	Tenascin C
Intracellular: 
-	Heat shock proteins
-	Uric acid 
-	mRNA
66
Q

Immunology:

What is passive immunity?

What can it protect against?

Long term memory?
Antisera?

A

Transfer of preformed antibodies e.g. maternal antibodies across the placenta or via breast milk

Tetanus
Diptheria
Mumps 
Rubella
Poliovirus

No long term memory
Can’t react to antisera

67
Q

Immunology:

Why do vaccines not work in children under 2yoa?

A

Do not have mature enough B-cells which illicit immunological memory

68
Q

Immunology:

Artificial vs Natural passive immunity????

A
Natural = breast milk 
Artificial = injection of antisera (serum of preformed antibodies)
69
Q

Immunology:

What is Inoculation?

A

Introduction of viable organism into the subject

70
Q

Immunology:

Primary goal of immunisation?

A

Generate a primary antibody response (formation of memory B-cells) from an initial exposure without the risks associated with the actual infection

71
Q

Immunology:

Characteristics of Initial/primary response
Ig? predominant?
Affinity?
Innate or adaptive?

A

IgM
Low affinity

Innate immune system

72
Q

Immunology:

Characteristics of secondary response? 
Speed?
Ig? predominant? 
Affinity? 
Innate or adaptive?
A

High affinity IgG
Rapid and large response
T-cell help
Doesn’t rely on innate immune system - adaptive

73
Q

Immunology:

Vaccine adjuvant? E.g.?

A

Something that potentiates the immune response

e.g. TLR4 agonist

74
Q

Immunology:

BCG vaccine for Tuberculosis is an example of what type of antigen?

Diptheria/tetanus?

Types of antigen for vaccine? (5)

A

BCG = Whole organism – live attenuated or inactive pathogen

Diptheria/tetanus = Subunit (toxoid – inactivated exotoxin)

Types: 
Whole organism
Subunit 
Peptide
DNA vaccine
Engineered virus