Intro to Clinical Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

List the major disease-producing microorganisms

A
Major:
viruses
bacteria
fungi
protozoa
helminthes

Other:
prions
ectoparasites

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2
Q

List and describe the bacterial cellular morphology types—shapes and groupings

A
Shapes
o	Round (coccus): 0.5-1.25 μm diameter
o	Rod (bacillus): 0.5-1.0 μm diameter
o	Helical (spirochete): like rods but can be 10x longer 
Groupings
Cocci: 
•	Singular
•	Pairs (diplococcic)
•	Chains (streptococci)
•	Groups of four (Sarcinae, tetrads)
•	Clusters (staphylococci)
Bacilli:
•	Short coccobacilli
•	Long filamentous rods
•	Pointed ends (fusiform)
•	Curved (vibrio)
•	Pleomorphic (vary in size and shape)
Spirochetes: vary in length and number of helical turns
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3
Q

Explain how the Gram stain is used in clinical microbiology

A

• Determined by cell wall structure of organism

Steps:
o Crystal violet stain (stains all bacteria on slide)
o Fixed with iodine
o Washed with alcohol or alcohol/acetone (decolorizes Gram-negative cell walls)
o Add safranin (red counterstain; able to be taken up by Gram-negative bacteria)

Results:

  • Gram-positive = purple/blue (Thicker peptidoglycan (murein) cell wall blocks decolorization step)
  • Gram-negative = red/pink
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4
Q

Describe the 4 phases of the bacterial growth curve and the relationship of the log phase to antimicrobial therapy and susceptibility testing

A

1) Lag phase:
o Cells are adapting/replenishing/undergoing size increases
o Little or no cell division
o No increase in cell number

2) Exponential (log) phase:
o State of maximal growth and constant rate of division
o Generation time = time for 1 cell to become 2 cells
o Optimal time to perform metabolic testing, antibiotic susceptibility/resistance testing
o Optimal time for antibiotic effectiveness

3) Stationary phase:
o Nutrients are exhausted, waste products accumulate
o Leads to decreased growth rate
o Rate of new cells forming = rate of dying cells

4) Death phase (or period of decline)
o Does not always occur
o Number of nonviable cells outnumber viable ones

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5
Q

Discuss settings where bacteria do not conform to laboratory growth pattern

A

o This lab pattern = growth in broth under optimal conditions

Exceptions:
• Biofilms: different physiology, metabolism, gene expression, antibiotic resistance than free-living (planktonic) bacteria
• Latent infections: bacteria appear to be in persistent stationary phase

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6
Q

Describe the temperature requirements of bacteria; define and discuss the clinical relevance of the following terms: psychrophile, mesophile, and thermophile

A

• Temperature: both optimal temperature for growth and range of temperatures allowing survival
o Mesophiles: 20-45 °C
• Most human pathogens
• Typical lab culture condition is 35-37 °C
o Psychrophiles: < 20 °C
• problems in refrigerated food or blood products
o Thermophiles: 45-60 °C
• problems in food processing (canning)
o Stenothermophiles: > 60 °C

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7
Q

Define and discuss the clinical relevance of the following terms: aerobe, anaerobe, facultative anaerobe, microaerophile, and aerotolerant.

A

Aerobes
o Oxygen required for growth
o Possess enzymes
o Microaerophiles: require reduced levels of oxygen (2-10%) because have low levels of enzymes
o Capnophiles: growth enhanced by increased level of CO2 (5-10%)

Anaerobes
o	Oxygen inhibits growth 
o	Do not possess enzymes 
o	Common in GI tract and mouth
o	Aerotolerant: can tolerate short oxygen exposure

Facultative
o Grow with or without oxygen
o Common in GI tract
o Most human pathogens

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8
Q

Describe the oxygen-detoxifying enzymes

A

Superoxide dismutase
• Superoxide radical (O2-) → H2O2 + O2

Catalase
• H2O2 → H2O + O2

Peroxidase
• Breaks down H2O2

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9
Q

Describe the components of bacterial genetic material

A

Chromosome
• Circular, dsDNA
• Replication precedes cell division

Plasmid
• Extrachromosomal circular genetic element with replication origin
• Usually 5- 100 genes
• Can be passed during cell division or transferred between bacteria by conjugation or transformation
• Usually not essential but confers selective advantage
• Ex. Antibiotic resistance, virulence factors, etc.

Transposon
• Genetic element contained on chromosome or plasmid
• Usually 1-10 genes (often including antibiotic resistance gene)
• Does not replicate independently
• Can move/jump from one site on DNA to another site on same DNA or to a different DNA molecule

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10
Q

List the mechanisms for changing a bacterial genome

A

1) Mutation
2) Genetic transfer
- transformation
- transduction
- conjugation
3) Genetic recombination

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11
Q

Describe the process of bacterial transformation

A

Mediated by free (naked) DNA from lysed organisms
• Uptake of free DNA
• Recombination with donor DNA and recipient DNA

Limited number of bacteria naturally competent for transformation
o Streptococcus pneumonia
o Haemophilus influenzae
o Neisseria

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12
Q

Describe the process of bacterial transduction

A

Mediated by bacterial virus (bacteriophage)
• Injects DNA or RNA into host bacterium
• Bacteria cell fills with new phages
• Lysis → release of new phages

2 types:
1) Generalized transduction
•	Mediated by lytic phage
•	Any portion of degraded bacterial DNA may be “mistakenly” packaged into assembling phage = transferred to another bacterium
•	A random error in packaging

2) Specialized transduction
• Mediated by temperate or lysogenic phage
• During lysogeny: temperate phage DNA integrates into bacterial chromosome at specific sites as a prophage (a latent viral infection that enables replication of the phage along with the chromosome)
• Certain conditions may cause excision of the integrated lysogenic prophage and initiation of a lytic cycle
• Imprecise excision → carries bacterial DNA sequences adjacent to site of integration = transferred to another bacterium
• Lysogenic conversion: if bacterial genes enable a nonvirulent organism to pick up virulence factors

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13
Q

Describe the process of bacterial conjugation

A

Mediated by transfer apparatus (cell-to-cell contact)
• Gram-negative bacteria: a sex pilus encoded by a fertility (F) plasmid
• Gram-positive bacteria: donor and recipient cells clump together via adhesions
• Transient cytoplasmic bridge forms through which plasmid or chromosomal DNA may transfer (donor → recipient)
• Can occur between related and unrelated bacteria
• Clinical importance: allows for passage of plasmids carrying virulence factors (including genes called R factors that encode for antibiotic resistance)

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14
Q

Discuss the clinical implications of lysogenic conversion.

A

• Occurs when phage infection and lysogenic prophage integration changes the phenotype of the host bacterium

Ex. Prophage may carry a gene encoding a virulence factor:
o Diphtheria toxin: only expressed by corynebacterium diphtheria strains lysogenized by the β prophage carrying the DT gene
o Cholera toxin: only expressed by vibrio cholera strains lysogenized by the CTX prophage carrying the CT gene

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15
Q

List and discuss the points to consider when doing a history and physical exam for an infectious disease

A

History
o Timing and nature of fevers
o Contact with others who are ill
o Predisposing factors (diabetes, immunosuppression, COPD, etc.)
o History of recent or recurrent infection
o Travel history
o Animal contacts
o Recent or current antimicrobial therapy

Exam
o Temperature
o Search for localized or generalized lymphadenopathy
o Skin (trauma, ulcers, line sites, rashes)
o Exam of each organ system

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16
Q

Discuss the terms sensitivity and specificity as they relate to laboratory tests

A

Sensitivity:
o Probability of a positive test result given the presence of disease
o How good is the test at detecting infection in those who have the disease?
o A sensitive test will rarely miss someone who has the disease (few false negatives)
o Screening tests should be highly sensitive (ex. VDRL for syphilis or ELISA for HIV) because they pick up all the true positives, as well as some false positives

Specificity:
o Probability of a negative test result given the absence of disease
o How good is the test at calling uninfected people negative?
o A specific test will rarely misclassify someone without the disease as infected (few false positives)
o Confirmatory tests should be highly specific (FTA-ABS fro syphilis or Western Blot for HIV) because they rule out the false positives

17
Q

List 4 microscopic methods to diagnose infectious processes

A
  • Gram stain
  • Acid-fast stain (AKA Ziehl-Neelsen stain)
  • KOH preparations
  • Wet preparations
18
Q

Gram Stain

A

Uses:
• If bacteria present in normally sterile fluids (CSF, urine)
• Which morphologic group is present, so gives empiric antibiotic selection
• Can be diagnostic for certain clinical specimens (Gram-negative diplococci inside PMNs from urethral swab in symptomatic male = gonorrhea)

Less useful when samples are from sites with normal microbiota (can’t tell pathogens from normal organisms)
o So it is important to know which organisms to expect in a site (and which would be considered pathogenic)

19
Q

Acid-Fast Stain

A

(AKA Ziehl-Neelsen stain)
o To confirm a diagnosis of TB
o Identifies mycobacteria in sputum specimen
o Mycobacteria = have lipids and mycolic acids in cell walls that prevent decolorization
o Instead = retain initial red carbol-fuchsin stain (other bacteria are decolorized and pick up blue counterstain)

20
Q

KOH preparations

A

o To look for yeast and other fungal forms
o Ex. Skin infections from fungal dermatophyte

Process:
• Skin scraping
• Place specimen on glass slide and treat with 10% KOH
• Dissolves host cells and bacteria but fungal elements remain
• Examine under microscope for yeast cells or hyphal forms

21
Q

Wet preparations

A

o Rapid test for microorganisms
o Liquid sample (urine, vaginal secretions) placed on glass slide and examined
o Organism must be present in high numbers (>10^4 organisms/ml) to visualize

22
Q

Describe the use of culture in identifying the etiologic agents causing infectious diseases, including their advantages and limitations

A
Able to describe:
How many organisms
•	Few
•	Moderate
•	Heavy
•	Inoculate plates in standardized way to obtain individual colonies 
•	Can make semi-quantitative estimate of amounts based on which quadrant growth occurs 
Size of colonies
•	Colony = progeny of one organism; used for identification and antibiotic susceptibility testing 
Pigment (yellow vs white)
Concise vs swarming pattern
Hemolysis (change in RBCs)
Selective and differential media
Enzyme testing
Susceptibility testing
23
Q

Describe the use of antigen detection in identifying the etiologic agents causing infectious diseases, including their advantages and limitations

A

Antigen Response tests
Advantages:
• Faster diagnosis (hours)
• Greater sensitivity
• Antigens or nucleic acids can be detected even after treatment with antibiotic and negative culture results
• Can identify organisms difficult/impossible to grow in culture

Disadvantages:
• Inability to do further tests
• Need to perform separate tests for each suspected pathogen

Direct Fluorescent antibody (DFA) test
• Test specimen with monoclonal antibody tagged with fluorescein
• See fluorescence under UV microscope
Molecular methods

24
Q

Type of hemolysis

A

(change in RBCs)
• Alpha hemolysis: green color around colonies due to incomplete lysis of the sheep RBCs in media
• Beta hemolysis: clear area around colonies due to complete lysis of RBCs
• Gamma hemolysis: no change in media (no hemolysis)

25
Q

Selective vs differential media in cultures

A

Selective media = used to inhibit growth of normal microbiota; selects for growth of groups of organisms
• MacConkey agar: has bile salts, inhibits Gram-positive cocci but allows Gram-negative rods to grow
• PEA or CNA plates: inhibit Gram-negative rods but allow Gram-positive cocci to grow; useful when trying to recover staph- or streptococci from specimens with Gram-negative rods

Differential media = distinguish groups of organisms based on specific biochemical reactions
• MacConkey agar: differentiates Gram-negative rods based on organism’s ability to ferment lactose → changes pH of media → colony turns pink

26
Q

Enzyme testing in cultures

A

Catalase test: if has catalase, can break H2O2 → H2O + O2
• See bubbles on plate
• Quick/easy way to differentiate staph from strep
o All staph = catalase positive (bubbles)
o All strep = catalase negative (no bubbles)

Bacitracin Test: used to ID Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (streptococcus pyogenes)
• Paper disk with bacitracin placed on BAP inoculated with beta-strep
• If strep is inhibited by bacitracin (clear area around disk) = group A
• If no zone of inhibition = all other groups resistant to bacitracin

27
Q

Types of susceptibility testing in cultures

A

Broth dilution
• Antibiotic is serially diluted
• Organism is added to each tube and incubated overnight
• Examine tubes for visible growth or turbidity
• Minimal Inhibitory concentration = lowest concentration of drug that inhibits growth

Microtiter plate dilution
• 96-well microtiter plate with freeze-dried dilutions of several antibiotics
• Inoculate with organism and incubate overnight
• Well with lowest concentration of each drug that inhibits visible growth = MIC

Disk diffusion (Kirby-Bauer)
• Paper disks with different antibiotics are placed on agar plate inoculated with organism
• Incubation
• Measure diameters of zones of inhibition
• Zone sizes and MIC values have been correlated with each drug
• Results reported: susceptible (sensitive), intermediate, or resistant to antibiotic

Agar dilution (E strip susceptibility test)
• Plastic strips with drug in descending gradient placed on inoculated plate
• Incubated
• Point where growth intersects strip = MIC

Automated systems
• Uses plastic cards that can test up to 22 antimicrobials at multiple concentrations
• Re-hydrate wells with organism
• Place cards in reader controlled by computer
• Reads optical density every 15 minutes
• Generates antimicrobial profile when sufficient growth is detected
• Can produced SAME DAY results (not need overnight incubation)