Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Anaesthetics > Intro to anaesthetics > Flashcards

Intro to anaesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

what is general anaesthesia

A

total loss of sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is regional anaesthesia?

A

loss of sensation to a region or part of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what os local anaesthesia

A

topical or infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what 3 components are needed for GA

A

Amnesia
Analgesia
Akinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what do induction agents do?

A

induce los of consciousness in one arm-brain circulation time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are inhalation/volatile agents usually used for

A

maintenance of amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the 4 main induction agents

A

Propofol
Thiopentone
Ketamine
Etomidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the dose of propofol

A

1.5-2.5 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

benefits of propofol

A

excellent supression of airway reflexes

decreases incidence of PONV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

unwanted effects of propofol

A

marked drop in HR and BP
Pain on injection
Involuntary movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what type of drug is propofol

A

lipid based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what type of drug is thiopentone

A

barbiturate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the dose of thiopentone

A

4-5mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the benefits if thiopentone

A

faster than propofol

anti-epileptic properties and protects the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is thiopentone usually used for

A

rapid sequence induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

unwanted effects of thiopentone

A

drops BP and Increases HR
rash/bronchospasm
can cause thrombosis and gangrene if injected in to an artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is thiopentone contraindicated in?

A

porphyria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what effects does ketamine have

A

dissociative anaesthesia so it has amnesia and profound analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

dose of ketamine

A

1-1.5 MG/KG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long is the onset of ketamine

A

90 sec (slow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

benefits of ketamine

A

rise in HR and BP, bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

unwanted effects of ketamine

A

nausea and vomiting

emergences phemomenon: vivid dreams and hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the dose of etomidate

A

0.3mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

benefits of etomidate

A

haemodynamic stability

lowest incidence of hypersensitivity reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

unwanted effects of etomidate

A

pain on injection
spontaneous movements
adreno-cortical suppression
high incidence of PONV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when should you never use etomidate

A

patients with septic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which patients is etomidate used?

A

cardiac failure, serial MI (patients with poor cardiac function)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the 4 inhalation agents

A

Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Enflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

when is sevoflurane used

A

sweet smelling so to relax anxious children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

benefits of desfluane

A

low lipid solubility
rapid onset and offset
good for long operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

benefits of isoflurane

A

least effect on organ blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what use is isoflurane good for

A

transplant cases as want to minimise blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is MAC

A

minimum alveolar concentration

concentration of the vapour that prevents the reaction to a standard surgical stimulus in 50% of subjects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the MAC of Nitrous oxide

A

104%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

MAC of sevoflurane

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

MAC of isoflurane

A

1.15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

MAC of desflurane

A

6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MAC enflurane

A

1.6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

3 short acting opioids

A

Fentanyl
Remifentanil
Alfentanil

40
Q

what are short acting opioid good for

A

intra-op analgesia

suppress response to laryngoscopy and surgical pain

41
Q

what sort of onset and potency do short acting opioids have

A

rapid onset

high potency

42
Q

what are 2 long acting opioids

A

morphine and oxycodone

43
Q

what are long acting opioids good for

A

intra-op and post-op analgesia

44
Q

3 NSAIDS

A

Diclofenac
Parecoxib
Ketorolac

45
Q

2 weaker opioids

A

Tramadol

Dihydrocodeine

46
Q

which NSAIDs can be given IV

A

Ketorolac

Parecoxib

47
Q

how quickly does fentanyl act

48
Q

how long does fentanyl last

49
Q

how quickly does remifentanil work

50
Q

how long does alfentanil last

51
Q

what happens in muscle contraction

A

action potential arrives at muromuscular junction, ACh is released which causes depolarisation of nicotinic receptors leading to muscle contraction.

52
Q

what are the 2 groups of muscle relaxants

A

depolarising

non-depolarising

53
Q

how do depolarising receptors work?

A

act similarly to ACh on nicotinic receptors but are very slowly hydrolysed by acetlycholinesterase. so cause muscle contraction, the muscle then fatigues and relaxes (competitive)

54
Q

how do non-depolarising receptors work

A

block nicotinic receptors therefore the muscle relaxes (non-competitive)

55
Q

what is the depolarising muscle relaxant

A

suxamethonium

56
Q

when is suxamethonium used

A

rapid sequence induction

57
Q

benefits of suxamethonium

A

rapid onset and off set

58
Q

adverse effects of suxamethonium

A 
muscle pains
fasciculations 
hyperkalemia
malignant hyperthermia
rise in ICP, IOP and gastric pressure
59
Q

benefits of non-depolarising muscle relaxants

A

slow onset and variable duration. less side effects

60
Q

how do non-depolarising muscle relaxants work

A

compete with ACh for nicotinic recpetors

61
Q

what are the short acting non-depolarising muscle relaxants

A

atracurium, mivacurium

62
Q

what are the intermediate acting non-depolarising muscle relaxants

A

vecuronium, rocuronium

63
Q

long acting non-depolarising muscle relaxants

A

pancuronium

64
Q

what agents are used to reverse non-depolarising muscle relaxants

A

neostigmine and glycopyrrolate

65
Q

what drug class is neostigmine

A

anti-cholinesterase

66
Q

how does neostigmine work

A

prevents breakdown of ACH

67
Q

muscarinic effects of ACh

A

bradycardia

68
Q

what agent is neostigmine combined with and why

A

glycopyrrolate - to prevent ACh being blocked at the heart

69
Q

side effects of neostigmine

A

nausea and vomiting

70
Q

5HT2 blocker antiemetic

A

ondansetron

71
Q

anti-histamine anti-emetic

72
Q

steroid anti-emetic

A

dexamethasone

73
Q

phenothiazine anti-emetic

A

prochlorperazine (Stemetil)

74
Q

Anti-dopaminergic anti-emetic

A

Metoclopramide

75
Q

what are vaso-active agents used for

A

to treat hypotension

76
Q

commonly used vaso-active drugs

A

ephedrine
phenylephrine
Metaraminol

77
Q

vasoactive drugs used in severe hypotension/ICU

A

Noradrenaline
adrenaline
dobutamine

78
Q

effects of ephedrine

A

rise in HR and contractility causing rise in BP

79
Q

what receptors does ephedrine work on

A

alpha and beta (direct and indirect)

80
Q

effects of phenylepherine

A

rise in BP by vasocontriction drop in HR

81
Q

what receptors does phenylepherine act on

A

alpha receptors (direct action)

82
Q

effects of metaraminol

A

rise in BP by vasocontriction

83
Q

what receptors does metaraminol act on

A

direct and indirect but predominantly alpha

84
Q

pt requiring a burn dressing change, best induction agent

85
Q

best induction agent for pt undergoing arm op GA with LMA

86
Q

best induction agent for pt with hx of HR and required GA

87
Q

best induction agent for pt with intestinal obstruction who requires emergency laparotomy

A

thiopentone

88
Q

best induction agent for pt with porphyria who is having an inguinal repair

A

propofol (not thiopentone)

89
Q

best inhalational agent for long, 8hr finger re-implantation

A

desflurane

90
Q

best inhalational agent for paediatric pt with no IV access

A

sevoflurane

91
Q

best inhalation agent for organ retrieval from a donor

A

isoflurane

92
Q

most commonly used analgesia

A

paracetamol

93
Q

most commonly used oral opioid in adults

94
Q

IV NSAIDs

A

ketoralac and Parecoxib

95
Q

best vasoactive agent for low BP and low HR

96
Q

best vasoactive agent for low BP and high HR

A

phenylephrine, metaraminol

97
Q

best vasoactive agent for intensive care, severe sepsis

A

noradrenaline, adrenaline

Anaesthetics (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions