Intro Flashcards

0
Q

Who must understand, become client, and work together to ensure their own personal safety?

A

All fire and rescue department personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Who is the first person to contact for exposure incident?

A

The duty safety officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This is a specific eye, mouth, other mucous membrane, non- intact skin or partial contact with blood or other potentially infectious material that occurred in the provision of service?

A

Exposure incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This is a reasonable anticipated contact by way of injection, ingestion, or absorption through skin, eye, mucous membrane, non-intact skin, orparental contact with blood or other potentially infectious material or inhalation of airborne pathogens that may result from the performance of an employees duties?

A

Occupational exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This is piercing of the mucous membranes or the skin barrier due to such events as needlesticks, human bites, animal bites, cuts and abrasions

A

Pat enteral exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

These are actions that reduce the likelihood of exposure by altering the manner in which a task is performed?

A

Work practice controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If personnel arrived on scene and are advised by the patient or family that the patient is under health department medical management then all providers must do what?

A

Use N95 respiratory protection until the status of that patient’s medical condition is definitively determined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What shell all personnel wear during the response to incidents that require patient care?

A

Exam gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should be worn on incidents that are grossly contaminated?

A

Disposable protective sleeves and a second pair of gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What should be worn to be protected from airborne droplets and particle pathogens?

A

Eyewear and N95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where can you get a loaner PIC KIT?

A

EMS supervisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is strongly recommended to be worn for all patient contact encounters?

A

Eye protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How should any uniform that is contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious material be washed?

A

By it’s self, with no other non-contaminated uniforms included in the same wash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where can gross decontamination of uniforms be done?

A

At the station but must be done in a controlled and contained environment with personnel wearing appropriate PPE which includes exam gloves and safety glasses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This type of contamination is considered to be nonpenetrating soil of the outer surface layer of the fabric?

A

Light contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This type of contamination is considered wet soiling that soaks through the fabric?

A

Heavy contamination

16
Q

What should be done with any suppression structural PPE that sustains blood or body fluids contamination?

A

Be sent to the gear center for cleaning

17
Q

What needs to be done to any gear or clothing that has sustained significant soiling before sending it to the gear center?

A

Undergone gross decontamination prior to being doubled red bag for transportation

18
Q

What is the only way to reduce exposures to personnel?

A

That compliance of regulations are being followed and the correct PPE is Worn

19
Q

What are the two categories that standard precautions fall under

A

Work practice controls and personal protective equipment

20
Q

This includes good hand hygiene in the practice of a fact of handwashing after every patient encounter, cleaning and disinfecting regimens, management of biohazard waste, and shard injury prevention that focuses on recognition of sharps hazards taskand development through training of proper methods for handling sharps to eliminate the potential for sharps injuries?

A

Work practice controls

21
Q

What is the most significant barrier to transmission of infectious disease?

A

Good hand hygiene

22
Q

Blood and body fluids from another person introduced through exposure by any skin puncturing injury or event that compromises the integrity of the skin will be considered what type of exposure?

A

Risk exposure

23
Q

If they risk exposure occurs in the source patient refuses both offer of transport and blood draw who should be contacted

A

Safety officer or ICPO

24
Q

What type of sharp shuttle container be single use, taped shut, and dispose of to a sharps container at the patients destination hospital?

A

P2

25
Q

When should 8 quart containers be disposed of?

A

When 2/3 full

26
Q

Who is responsible for making sure no infectious waste of any kind is left at the incident scene?

A

The officer in charge of the last remaining fire and rescue department unit

27
Q

This is a blood-borne pathogen exposure event that is defined as blood or body fluids contact with Intech skin for less than 30 minutes, to the work uniform, or personal protective equipment

A

Non-risk

28
Q

This type of exposure to blood borne pathogen’s as a specific event in which there is contact with the eye, mouth, other mucous membranes, non-Intech skin, intact skin for a Pieriert longer than 30 minutes, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious material of another person that results from the performance of the employees duties?

A

Risk exposure

29
Q

What immediate reaction to any potentially infectious exposure event shall take place?

A

What ever measures could reasonably maximize removal of the foreign substance and any effort to minimize the exposure from progressing.

30
Q

After removing the foreign substance what notification shall be made?

A

Notify the providers duty safety officer

31
Q

What form needs to be filled out and faxed to the safety officer as soon as possible

A

FRD-314

32
Q

For personnel who sustained a exposure and are not assigned to a transport unit that unit shall be placed out of service until when

A

Until the safety officer can make contact with the expose provider, make a determination of exposure status, determine what actions need to be taken, and if the unit can return to service with or without the expose provider as minimum staff

33
Q

When can providers remain part of minimum staffing when they have been exposed to a potential risk exposure

A

Never

34
Q

Who needs to be contacted on it exposure event that the source patient refuses transport to a hospital?

A

Notify the duty safety officer and call for an EMS supervisor

35
Q

How should you document an occupational exposure on the EPCR?

A

“An occupational exposure events occurred to personnel of unit 401 while providing care”

36
Q

Who should be contacted for an off-duty exposure?

A

Duty shift safety officer

37
Q

What should be obtained for off-duty exposure to help facilitate the investigation of the exposure?

A

Source patients name, date of birth, medical record number at receiving hospital.

Destination hospital, charge nurse, contact phone number

Name of transporting service, unit number

Name of the officer in charge of the transport unit, contact phone number