intro Flashcards

lab math, qc, lab safety, blood collection and spx considerations, instrumentation

1
Q

error where there is continual difference between test & comparative methods values

A

constant error

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2
Q

error where difference between test & comparative method values are proportional to analyte concentration

A

proportional error

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3
Q

deterioration of reagents is a problem encountered in what phase of clinical analysis

A

analytical phase

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4
Q

ratio of warning to mandatory Westgard rules

A

3:3

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5
Q

QC chart that demonstrates the Westgard multirules

A

Levey-Jennings

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6
Q

most widely used QC chart in the clinical laboratory

A

Levey-Jennings

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7
Q

QC chart that is used to compare results of different laboratories

A

Youden twin plot

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8
Q

plot that gives the earliest indication of a trend

A

CuSum graph

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9
Q

closeness of measured values to the true value

A

accuracy

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10
Q

an ability to give repeated results on the same sample that agree with one another

A

precision

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11
Q

Scientists made same experiment with same method & specimen; all had consistent results. This is?

A

reproducibility (precision)

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12
Q

these are measures of the diagnostic accuracy of a test

A

sensitivity and specificity

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13
Q

it relates to the lowest concentration of a substance that can be detected in a test system

A

analytical sensitivity

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14
Q

the ability to detect only the chemical desired with no interference from other chemicals

A

analytical specificity

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15
Q

ability to detect the presence of disease

A

diagnostic sensitivity

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16
Q

indicate the ability of the test to generate more true (+) & few false (-) results

A

diagnostic sensitivity

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17
Q

reflects the ability of the method to detect true (-) with very few false (+)

A

diagnostic specificity

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18
Q

ability to relate results to a known reference standard through unbroken chain of comparisons

A

traceability

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19
Q

indicates the number of patients with an abnormal test result who have the disease

A

positive predictive value (PPV)

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20
Q

what is the formula for PPV?

A

TP / (TP + FP) * 100

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21
Q

indicates the number of patients with a normal test result who do not have the disease

A

negative predictive value (NPV)

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22
Q

what is the formula for NPV?

A

TN / (TN + FN) * 100

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23
Q

part(s) of descriptive statistics

A

central tendency, dispersion

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24
Q

measures of dispersion

A

variance, SD, CV, range

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25
Q

it is a percentile expression of the mean

A

coefficient of variation (CV)

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26
Q

the lower the CV, the _ the precision

A

higher

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27
Q

the average of a given set of values

A

mean

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28
Q

middle or midpoint of a distribution

A

median

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29
Q

most frequent observation in a set of data

A

mode

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30
Q

these are important criteria in evaluating instruments

A

sensitivity and specificity

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31
Q

what is a good standard curve?

A
  1. line is straight
  2. line connects all points
  3. line goes through the origin of x & y axes
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32
Q

there is perfect correlation of values in linear regression if value falls on _

A

1

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33
Q

it refers to any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s bedside

A

point-of-care-testing (POCT)

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34
Q

test performed usually by nonlaboratorian personnel (nurses, RTs, etc.)

A

POCT

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35
Q

nonlaboratory personnel are responsible for _% errors with regard to lab results

A

29%

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36
Q

what to do when POCT-QA issues arise?

A

train non-laboratory personnel

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37
Q

specimen used for point-of-care testing (POCT)

A

capillary blood

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38
Q

QC of POCT instruments should be done _

A

once each day of use

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39
Q

usual cause of random error in the clinical laboratory

A

clerical error

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40
Q

vapor & osmotic pressure, boiling & freezing points are examples of _

A

colligative properties

41
Q

used to measure osmolality (2)

A

freezing point depression
vapor pressure depression

42
Q

specimen(s) used for osmolality determination

A

serum or urine

43
Q

how would 15.57 be rounded off to one less decimal place?

44
Q

it is the relative concentration of a solution

45
Q

how much diluent needs to be added to 0.2 mL of serum to make a 1:20 dilution?

46
Q

it is the amount of 1 substance relative to the amount of other substance in the solution

A

concentration

47
Q

instrument that uses diffraction gratings (as commonly used monochromators)

A

spectrophotometer

48
Q

Beer’s law mathematically establishes relationship between concentration and _

A

absorbance

49
Q

a solution that has a transmittance of 1.0% T would have an absorbance of _

A

2.0 (formula: absorbance = 2 - log(%T))

50
Q

formula for concentration of the unknown sample (using spectrophotometer)

A

(Au / As) * Cs

51
Q

visible region

52
Q

UV region

A

<400nm
very short wavelength

53
Q

IR region

54
Q

light source in the visible region

A

tungsten lamp

55
Q

light sources in the UV region

A

Mercury arc
Deuterium
Hydrogen lamp
Xenon lamp

56
Q

light sources in the IR region (2)

A

Merst glower
Glober (silicone carbide)

57
Q

what does LASER stands for

A

Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation

58
Q

part of spectrophotometer that selects specific wavelength of light

A

monochromator

59
Q

monochromator specification to measure true absorbance of compound with absorbance bandwidth of 30nm

A

5-nm bandpass

60
Q

zeroing the spectrophotometer before testing is done usually using _

A

reagent blank

61
Q

it is used to correct for absorbance caused by the color of reagents

A

reagent blank

62
Q

most commonly used photodetector, and the most sensitive to low levels of light

A

photomultiplier tube

63
Q

gold standard for drug testing

64
Q

non-destructive technique for detecting structure of organic compound (lipoprotein particle)

A

Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (NMRS)

65
Q

effect of quenching on fluorescence

66
Q

support media for zone electrophoresis include

A

agarose
cellulose acetate
polyacrylamide

67
Q

most commonly used stain for serum protein electrophoresis

68
Q

a type of chemistry analyzer that uses reagents from different manufacturers / suppliers

A

open system analyzer

69
Q

most basic or simplest pipette

A

Pasteur pipette (glass/plastic)

70
Q

parts of positive displacement pipette (3)

A

piston
piston seal
capillary

71
Q

glassware resistant to heat, corrosion & thermal shock

A

borosilicate

72
Q

water that has passed through resin with charged particles is known as _

A

deionized water

73
Q

purpose of desiccators/desiccant

A

absorbs moisture

74
Q

in general, oxidizers should never be placed with chemicals that are _

A

reducing agents

75
Q

laboratory hazard prevention strategies include (4)

A

work practice controls
engineering controls
PPE
emergency equipment

76
Q

hierarchy of hazard controls (most to least effective)

A

elimination
substitution
engineering controls
administrative controls
PPE

77
Q

equipment used to contain & expel noxious & hazardous fumes from chemical reagents

78
Q

first step in pre-analytical phase

A

test order

79
Q

instructing the patient to undergo fasting is part of _

A

patient preparation

80
Q

disinfectant for ethanol analysis blood collection

A

benzalkonium chloride

81
Q

preferred site for venipuncture

A

antecubital veins (median > cephalic > basilic)

82
Q

light source used by vein finders

83
Q

most commonly used area for adult skin puncture

A

(2nd), 3rd & 4th finger

84
Q

type of blood specimen for newborns

A

blood spot

85
Q

ideal site of capillary blood collection in infants

A

medial or lateral plantar surface of the heel

86
Q

shelf-life (expiration date) of an evacuated tube is defined by

A

vacuum retention & stability of the additive

87
Q

draw volume of an evacuated tube when stored in low temperature

A

increased, due to decreased gas pressure inside the evacuated tube

88
Q

draw volume of an evacuated tube when stored in high temperature

A

decreased, due to increased gas pressure inside the evacuated tube

89
Q

draw volume of an evacuated tube when blood is drawn at high altitude (>5000ft)

90
Q

EDTA anticoagulant elevates what electrolytes

A

sodium & potassium

91
Q

EDTA anticoagulant decreases what

A

calcium & iron

92
Q

preferred anticoagulant for electrolyte testing

93
Q

anticoagulant for lipoprotein assay and preservation

94
Q

CTAD anticoagulant is used for?

A

coagulation testing

95
Q

temperature for lyophilization

A

-40°C or less

96
Q

blood specimens on serum separator gel tubes must be processed within _

A

30 minutes

97
Q

how long must a blood sample stand before being centrifuged?

A

30 minutes

98
Q

normal color of serum

A

straw / pale yellow