Intro Flashcards

1
Q

Branch of pharmacology used to treat

A

Pharmacotherapeutics

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2
Q

Branch of pharmacology that studies how the drug affects the body (mechanism of action and biochemical and physical affects)

A

Pharmacodynamics

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3
Q

Branch of pharmacology that studies hoe the body acts on the drug ie absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion

A

Pharmacokinetics

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4
Q

Branch of pharmacology that studies natural sources of the drugs or where it comes from

A

Pharmacognosy

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5
Q

Branch of pharmacology that studies toxicity and adverse reactions related to medication

A

Toxicology

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6
Q

Drug evaluation phase where they use human trials with healthy volunteers

A

Phase 1

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7
Q

Drug evaluation phase where they test on people with the disease or health condition the drug is made for

A

Phase 2

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8
Q

Name of medication derived from chemical name in lower case letters

A

Generic or official name

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9
Q

Name of medication based on chemical composition and molecular structure (Not usually seen*)

A

Chemical name

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10
Q

Drug legislation that ordered food and drugs to require labelling; came about because of “moonshine”

A

Pure food and drug act of 1906

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11
Q

Drug legislation that mandated testing for toxicity and established recalls

A

FDA (Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act of 1938)

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12
Q

Drug legislation that specified ways for drugs to be labelled and prescribed

A

Durham-Humphreys Amendment of 1951

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13
Q

Drug legislation that mandated drugs made safer and tightened control

A

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

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14
Q

Drug legislation that mandated that high use drugs be given a schedule and also classified drugs for risk of abuse

A

Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act (Controlled Substances Act)

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15
Q

Drug legislation that says when an uncommon disease becomes to expensive the government may give incentives to continue treatment

A

Orphan Drug Act of 1983

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16
Q

Category of Controlled drug:

High abuse potential: no medical use (ex heroin or other illegal drugs)

A

Schedule I

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17
Q

Category of Controlled drug:

High abuse potential: accepted medical use (ex morphine or Ritalin)

A

Schedule II

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18
Q

Category of Controlled drug:

Low to moderate dependence; low amounts of opioid (ex Codeine or Vicodin)

A

Schedule III

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19
Q

Category of Controlled drug:

Low abuse potential; prescription needed (ex Valium, Phenobarbital, Ambien, Xanax)

A

Schedule IV

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20
Q

Category of Controlled drug:

Low abuse potential; may have small amounts of controlled substances (ex Lomotil or cough medicine)

A

Schedule V

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21
Q

Where would you expect to find scheduled or controlled substances in the hospital?

A

Pixus

22
Q

What must be done when throwing away a controlled medication?

A

Nurse must prove with a witness that a drug has been “wasted”

23
Q

What type of drugs can hide or mask important symptoms?

A

OTC drugs like tylenol

24
Q

What is a major disadvantage of using over-the-counter (OTC) medications?

A

People may choose an OTC that interacts with another medication.

25
Q

Which would the nurse identify as a factor in the distribution of a drug?

A

solubility
protein binding
blood flow

26
Q

Which phase of drug development is associated with continual evaluation of the drug?

A

Phase IV

27
Q

Why should the physician order the medications using the generic name instead of a brand name?

A

Numerous brand names may exist for the same drug, so the generic drug should be ordered

28
Q

Which agency evaluates drugs that have completed phase III?

A

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

29
Q

What term is used to describe drugs identified by their chemical or official name in order to be independent of any manufacturer’s assigned name?

A

generic

30
Q

Why should the nurse write the generic name on the order sent to the pharmacy?

A

There is less chance of the wrong drug being given, because trade names can be similar.

31
Q

One of the phases of drug development is the post-marketing surveillance phase. Which activity is carried out during this phase?

A

Health care providers report adverse effects to FDA.

32
Q

Why would the nurse document the generic, rather than proprietary or trade, names of the resident’s current drugs?

A

There is a potential for confusion and miscommunication if proprietary names are used.

33
Q

The nurse is preparing a medication that is new to the market and cannot be found in the nurse’s drug guide. How should the nurse obtain the most reliable information about this medication?

A

Read the package insert.

34
Q

A nurse is administering a large number of medications to a diverse group of clients. What types of drugs will be excluded from these medications?

A

schedule I

35
Q

A nurse is teaching the client about the use of over-the-counter (OTC) drugs. Which statement best informs the client about their safe use?

A

“OTC drugs need to be taken with caution; they can mask the signs and symptoms of an underlying disease and interfere with prescription drug therapy.”

36
Q

Which is an example of a black box warning by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?

A

Difficulty breathing and maintaining an airway

37
Q

What is included in FDA approval of a drug for OTC availability?

A

evaluation of evidence that the consumer can use the drug safely, using information on the product label

38
Q

Genetic engineering allows scientists to produce human insulin by altering which type of bacteria?

A

Escherichia coli

39
Q

During a phase II study, a drug may be removed from testing because of:

A

unacceptable adverse effects.

40
Q

Lock and Key Theory; Place where drug binds to receptor

A

Receptor site

41
Q

Drug mechanism where the drug selectively kills bacteria without killing the host

A

Selective toxicity

42
Q

OTC drug that vasodilates and relieves pain

A

Tylenol

43
Q

Drugs that initiate physiological response

A

Agonist

44
Q

Drugs that block response

A

Antagonist

45
Q

Drug mechanism that binds to enzyme; inhibits or activates enzyme

A

Drug-Enzyme

46
Q

When a drug has to go through several systems before it is absorbed or targets, causing lower effects

A

First pass effect

47
Q

A large dose of drugs pushed first prior to a normal dose to increase effects

A

Loading dose

48
Q

Range where a drug will be effective

A

Therapeutic index

49
Q

Amount of drug needed for desired effect

A

Drug potency or critical concentration

50
Q

Amount of time drug takes to be absorbed by body when taken by mouth

A

60 minutes

51
Q

Problems with kidneys can lead to….

A

drug toxicity

52
Q

Types of drug that passes the blood brain barrier

A

lipid soluble