INTRAVENOUS ANESTHETICS Flashcards

1
Q

Discuss the pharmacokinetics of propofol?

How does it induce anesthesia?

A

Most frequently used for the induction of anesthesia
Increase GABA mediated INHIBITORY tone in the CNS. Propofol decreases the rate of dissociation of the GABA from the receptor, thereby increasing the duration of the GABA-activated opening of the chloride channel with resulting hyperpolarization of cell membranes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What are its effects in the different organ systems?

CNS: ECG, CMRO2, CBF, and ICP

A

CNS: causes a dose-dependent decrease in cerebral function, culminating in unconsciousness
Propofol produces ECGchanges characteristic of general anesthesia with a decrease in global cerebral function and is accompanied by decreased cerebral metabolism, cerebral blood flow, and intracranial pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Propofol benefits

A

Rapid onset and offset
Low cost
minimal side effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Activation of GABA does what?

A

activation of the ligand-gated GABAA receptors increases chloride ion permeability and inhibits further action potential generation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

IV propofol dose and onset of action

A

Injected intravenously as a bolus dose of 2 mg/kg, propofol induces unconsciousness in less than 1 min, a rate that is comparable to that of thiopental, etomidate, and methohexital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

IV propofol dose and onset of action

A

Injected intravenously as a bolus dose of 2 mg/kg, propofol induces unconsciousness in less than 1 min, a rate that is comparable to that of thiopental, etomidate, and methohexital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IV propofol duration of action

A

3-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

IV propofol duration of action

A

4-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Propofol on CV: BP, SVR,
At higher doses does what?
How to attenuate hypotension produced by Propofol

A

Propofol reliably causes a dose-dependent decrease in blood pressure.
Decrease in BP is mediated by decreased SVR though myocardial contractility decreases at higher doses, resulting in a fall in cardiac output. Propofol-induced hypotension can be attenuated by slow titration of bolus doses and/or the concomitant use of vasoactive medications such as phenylephrine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Propofol and the respiratory system?

Respiratory drive, apnea, Bronchodilation and HPV?

A

Propofol produces a dose-dependent depression of central respiratory drive that ultimately results in apnea.
Propofol can produce bronchodilation and has minimal effects on hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Propofol effect on the respiratory response to CO2 and hypoxia? What can make the decrease response worse? How can you preserve spontaneous respiration ?

A

The ventilatory response to carbon dioxide and hypoxia is decreased, and the effect is compounded with the addition of other respiratory depressants (e.g., opioids, benzodiazepines).Carefully titrated boluses (or low-dose infusion) for sedation can preserve spontaneous respiration; however, the individual patient response is variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mostly propofol causes a

A

decrease effect on most organ systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Starting dose of propofol for conscious sedation is

A

50mcg per kg /min

COntinuous of 100-200mcg/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

rapid of offset of propofol is because of

A

The rapid offset time of propofol following an intravenously administered bolus dose is caused by redistribution, Half life 2-8 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Propofol excretion

A

Propofol is excreted as glucuronide and sulfate conjugates, primarily in the urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Gold standard of IV anesthetics for protection of the brain is

A

Barbiturates are the historic “gold standard” for neuroprotection when they are administered before a focal ischemic event.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Barbiturates on EEG

A

resulting in electroencephalographic isoelectricity. burst suppression are equally cerebroprotective, suggesting that additional protective mechanisms are in effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Unwanted effects of Barbiturates

A

Unwanted effects of high-dose barbiturates, such as cardiovascular instability and delays in awakening and neurologic assessment, must be considered when using this class of drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The most significant aspect of the metabolism of barbiturates (e.g., phenobarbital, thiopental, methohexital) is their effect on the

A

hepatic microsomal enzyme system (cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes). Chronic use of barbiturates will cause upregulation, or induction, of the microsomal enzymes (CYPs 1A2, 2C9, 2C19, and 3A4), increasing the metabolism of drugs metabolized by these enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Barbiturates and contraindications

A

contraindicated in patients with acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) or variegate porphyria because they may precipitate an attack,

21
Q

Barbiturates metabolized by ______excreted by

A

Liver; Kidneys

22
Q

Barbiturates MOA

A

Binds to GABA, at a different site than benzodiazepines

23
Q

Barbiturates and CV

A

Direct myocardial depression, (2) peripheral venous pooling with decreased left ventricular diastolic filling and stroke volume, and (3) decreased sympathetic nervous system outflow from the central nervous system.1

24
Q

What are the effects of benzodiazepines on the respiratory system and the central nervous system?

A

Respiratory depression

25
Q
  1. What are the clinical uses of benzodiazepine?
A

Use for amnesia, anticonvulsants, sedatives

26
Q

Benzodiazepines, mediated through the promotion of

A

binding of γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA) to the GABAA receptor, with subsequent enhancement of the inhibitory effect of GABA on neuronal excitability.

27
Q

WHy did Benzos replace barbiturates?

A

All benzodiazepines possess sedative-hypnotic properties and have displaced barbiturates for this purpose, primarily because of their remarkably low capacity to produce fatal CNS depression.

28
Q

Midazolam on BP and HR

A

Peripheral vasodilation , decrease BP and increase in HR

29
Q

CBF; CMRO2, The administration of midazolam results in dose-related

A

decreases in cerebral blood flow and cerebral O2 consumption.

30
Q

Midazolam properties

A

sedative, anxiolytic, amnesic, and anticonvulsant properties.

31
Q

Water solubility of midazolam

A

Midazolam is water soluble, making the addition of propylene glycol unnecessary.

32
Q

What class of drugs does ketamine belong to?

A

Chemically related to PCP. It is a dissociative anesthetics,
Patient appears dissociated from the environment, WHILE OTHER REFLEXES remain intact, including corneal, papillary, and gag reflexes, laryngeal tone, and muscle tension. EEG showing that the thalamus is no longer synchronized with, or is “dissociated” from, the limbic system.

33
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ketamine?

A

Ketamine pharmacology is complex because it is not a particularly selective drug, with multiple sites of action, including those in the central and peripheral nervous systems.

34
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ketamine?

A

Ketamine pharmacology is complex because it is not a particularly selective drug, with multiple sites of action, including those in the central and peripheral nervous systems.
——–noncompetitive antagonism at N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) receptors for glutamate.

35
Q

Ketamine and opioid receptor action?

A

Examples include agonistic activity at µ, δ, and κ opioid receptors, providing analgesia.

36
Q

Reversal of ketamine’s central anticholinergic effects?

A

Physostigmine, an anticholinesterase, can reverse the central anticholinergic and hypnotic effects of ketamine.

37
Q

Effect of Ketamine on CV

what about heart transplant pt

A

increase in HR
MIMICS SYMPATHETIC NS
Inhibits reuptake of NE
doses (20 mg/kg) or in the denervated or transplanted heart, there is a direct negative inotropic action effect by ketamine.

38
Q

Effect on ketamine on RESP

A

Airway reflexes well maintained with ketamine
BRONCHODILATIONS
INCREASE salivary and tracheobronchial secretions however; consider scopolamine or glycopyrrolate

39
Q

Effects of Ketamine on CNS: Vasodilation vs vasoconstriction ? CBF , ICP and CMRO2

A

Ketamine, a cerebral vasodilator, causes an increase in cerebral blood flow, cerebral oxygen consumption, and intracranial pressure in patients with space-occupying intracranial lesions. Elevation of intracranial pressure is minimal if ventilation is controlled.

40
Q

What are the effects of etomidate on the cardiovascular system?
CAUTION:

A

Known for its mild CV effects
Used for patient with hemodynamics instability , decrease EF, CAD or valvular disease.
May decrease coronary blood flow and the myocardial o2 requirements will also be decrease. Be cautious with patient with O2 supply/demand instability.

41
Q

What class of drugs does dexmedetomidine belong to?

A

Dexmedetomidine is an intravenously administered α2-agonist with sedative, analgesic, sympatholytic, and anxiolytic properties.preserve respiratory drive and airway reflexes.

42
Q

How does dexmedetomidine ( Precedex )exert its effects?

A

8 times affinity for the ALPHA 2 receptor

Alpha 2 to alpha 1 ratio is 1620: 1

43
Q

How does dexmedetomidine produces its effect Presynaptically?

A

Presynaptic α2-adrenoceptor activation, primarily in the spinal cord, inhibits release of norepinephrine, terminating the propagation of pain signals.

44
Q

How does dexmedetomidine produces its effect Postsynaptically?

A

Postsynaptic α2-adrenoceptor activation in the central nervous system, primarily the locus coeruleus, both inhibits sympathetic activity and modulates vigilance

45
Q

Dexmedetomidine: What are the effects on the cardiovascular and respiratory system?

A

No direct cardiac effects
A biphasic CV response can be seen
Initially (response last 5-10 mins) : A transient increase in blood pressure, with a decrease in baroreceptor-mediated reflex in heart rate, occurs initially; is explained by peripheral α2-adrenoceptor vasoconstriction and can be attenuated by infusing the bolus over 10 min or more.
FINAL Response is : The final result is that both the blood pressure and heart rate fall 10% to 20% below baseline values. These effects are caused by inhibition of central sympathetic outflow and activation of the presynaptic α2-adrenoceptor, leading to decreased release of norepinephrine and epinephrine.

46
Q

Dexmedetomidine: Avoided in those patients

A

Hypotension, bradycardia, and varying degrees of heart block may occur; therefore dexmedetomidine should be avoided in patients with hypovolemia, hypotension, bradycardia, fixed stroke volume, or advanced heart block.

47
Q

Clinical use of Dexmedetomidine:

A

As an adjunct To local, regional, and general anesthesia
In labor analgesia and cesarean delivery

  • To facilitate awake fiberoptic intubation in patients with difficult airways
  • In combination with propofol, to provide anesthesia for infants undergoing microlaryngeal surgery

To alleviate preoperative anxiety and emergence delirium in children*

To blunt the cardiovascular effects of cocaine intoxication

To treat drug and alcohol withdrawal syndromes

48
Q

In the following clinical scenarios, what IV anesthetics would you like to use and why?
• 70 y/o male with well controlled hypertension and CAD, presenting for elective colonectomy
• 25 y/o male, mentally challenged, agitated, no IV access for dental rehab
• 42 y/o previously healthy male in burn unit for lower extremity dressing change
• 30 y/o multigravid female for emergency C-section 2° to bleeding placenta previa, BP 80/40
• 27 y/o intoxicated male in ER, s/p MVA, combative, unable to obtain vital signs because of agitation

A

Reasone