Intrapartum Care: Labour Flashcards

1
Q

Define labour

A

The onset of regular and painful contractions associated with cervical dilation and descent of the presenting part.

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2
Q

When does labour and delivery normally occur?

A

Between 37 and 42 weeks gestation.

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3
Q

What are the 3 stages of labour?

A

1) 1st stage: from the onset of labour (true contractions) until 10cm cervical dilatation

2) 2nd stage: from 10cm cervical dilatation until delivery of the baby

3) 3rd stage: from delivery of the baby until delivery of the placenta

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4
Q

describe stage 1 of labour

A

from the onset of true labour to when the cervix is fully dilated (10cm)

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5
Q

describe stage 2 of labour

A

from full dilation (10cm) to delivery of the fetus

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6
Q

Describe stage 3 of labour

A

from delivery of fetus to when the placenta and membranes have been completely delivered

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7
Q

Describe monitoring steps in labour

A

1) FHR monitored every 15min (or continuously via CTG)

2) Contractions assessed every 30min

3) Maternal pulse rate assessed every 60min

4) Maternal BP and temp should be checked every 4 hours

5) VE should be offered every 4 hours to check progression of labour

6) Maternal urine should be checked for ketones and protein every 4 hours

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8
Q

How often should foetal heart rate be monitored in labour?

A

every 15min (or continuously via CTG)

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9
Q

How often should contractions be assessed in labour?

A

Every 30 mins

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10
Q

How often should maternal HR be assessed in labour?

A

Every 60 mins

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11
Q

How often should maternal BP & temp be assessed in labour?

A

every 4 hours

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12
Q

How often should vaginal exam be offered in labour to check progression?

A

Every 4 hours

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13
Q

How often should maternal urine be checked in labour?

A

Every 4 hours: for ketones and protein

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14
Q

How long does stage 1 of labour typically last in a primigravida?

A

10-16 hours

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15
Q

What happens in 1st stage of labour?

A

1) cervical dilation (opening up)

2) cervical effacement (getting thinner)

3) mucus plug in cervix ( which prevents bacteria from entering the uterus during pregnancy) falls out and creates space for baby to pass through

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16
Q

What are the 3 phases of stage 1 of labour?

A

1) Latent phase

2) Active phase

3) Transition phase

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17
Q

Describe the latent phase of stage 1 of labour

A

1) From 0 to 3cm dilation of cervix (progresses at around 0.5cm per hour)

2) Irregular contractions

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18
Q

Describe rate of progression of dilation of cervix in latent phase of stage 1 of labour

A

0.5cm per hour

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19
Q

Describe the active phase of stage 1 of labour

A

1) 3cm to 7cm dilation of the cervix (progresses at around 1cm per hour)

2) Regular contractions

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20
Q

Describe rate of progression of dilation of cervix in active phase of stage 1 of labour

A

1cm per hour

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21
Q

Describe the transition phase of stage 1 of labour

A

1) From 7cm to 10cm dilation of cervix (1cm per hour)

2) Strong & regular contractions

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22
Q

How does baby’s head typically a) enter pelvis and b) deliver?

A

a) occipito-lateral position
b) occipito-anterior position

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23
Q

What is a vertex presentation in delivery?

A

The ideal position for a fetus to be in for a vaginal delivery.

It means the fetus is head down, headfirst and facing your spine with its chin tucked to its chest.

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24
Q

What % of babies are vertex at delivery?

A

90%

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25
Q

What are braxton hicks contractions?

A

1) Occasional irregular contractions of the uterus.

2) Women can experience temporary and irregular tightening or mild cramping in the abdomen.

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26
Q

When do braxton hicks contractions usually occur?

A

2nd and 3rd trimester

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27
Q

Do Braxton-Hicks contractions indicate the onset of labour?

A

NO - these are not true contractions.

They do not progress or become regular.

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28
Q

What can help reduce braxton-hicks contractions?

A

Staying hydrated and relaxing

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29
Q

What are the 4 signs of labour?

A

1) Show (mucus plus from cervix)

2) Rupture of membrane (not always)

3) Regular, painful contractions

4) Dilating cervix on examination

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30
Q

Latent 1st stage vs established 1st stage of labour?

A

Latent: when there is both
1) Painful contractions
2) Changes to the cervix, with effacement and dilation up to 4cm

Established: when there is both
1) Regular, painful contractions
2) Dilatation of the cervix from 4cm onwards

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31
Q

Define rupture of membranes (ROM)

A

The amniotic sac has ruptured.

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32
Q

Define spontaneous rupture of membranes (SROM)

A

The amniotic sac has ruptured spontaneously.

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33
Q

Define prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM)

A

The amniotic sac has ruptured before the onset of labour.

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34
Q

Define preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (P‑PROM)

A

The amniotic sac has ruptured before the onset of labour AND before 37 weeks gestation (preterm).

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35
Q

Define prolonged rupture of membranes (also PROM)

A

The amniotic sac ruptures more than 18 hours before delivery.

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36
Q

Define prematurity

A

Birth <37 weeks gestation

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37
Q

Before what date are premature babies considred non-viable?

A

<23 weeks gestation

Generally, from 23 to 24 weeks, resuscitation is not considered in babies that do not show signs of life.

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38
Q

Survival chance of babies born at 23 weeks?

A

10%

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39
Q

At how many weeks gestation is there an increased chance of survival and full resuscitation is offered in premature babies?

A

24 weeks onwards

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40
Q

Prematurity can be classified into a) extreme preterm, b) very preterm, c) moderate to late preterm

What are the dates for each?

A

a) Under 28 weeks: extreme preterm

b) 28 – 32 weeks: very preterm

c) 32 – 37 weeks: moderate to late preterm

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41
Q

Via what 2 mechanisms can be used for prophylaxis of preterm labour?

A

1) vaginal progesterone

2) cervical cerclage

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42
Q

How can vaginal progesterone be given in the prophylaxis of preterm labour?

A

Via gel or pessart

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43
Q

Role of progesterone in prophylaxis of preterm labour?

A

Progesterone has a role in maintaining pregnancy and preventing labour by decreasing activity of the myometrium and preventing the cervix remodelling in preparation for delivery.

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44
Q

Who is vaginal progesterone offered to for the prophylaxis of preterm labour?

A

Women with a cervical length less than 25mm on vaginal US who are <24 weeks gestation.

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45
Q

What is cervical cerclage?

A

Involves putting a stitch in the cervix to add support and keep it closed.

This involves a spinal or general anaesthetic.

The stitch is removed when the woman goes into labour or reaches term.

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46
Q

Who is cervical cerclage offered to for the prophylaxis of preterm labour?

A

Women with cervical length of <25mm on vaginal US between 16 and 24 weeks gestation who have had previous premature birth or cervical trauma (e.g. colposcopy and cone biopsy).

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47
Q

Investigation for assessing cervical length in pregnancy?

A

Vaginal US

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48
Q

What length is a ‘short cervix’?

A

<25mm

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49
Q

Potential complications of a short cervix?

A

increases the risk of preterm labor and premature birth.

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50
Q

What is a “rescue” cervical cerclage? When is it offered?

A

May be offered between 16 and 27+6 weeks gestation where there is cervical dilatation without rupture of membranes, to prevent progression and premature delivery.

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51
Q

What are the 2 main classifications of premature membrane rupture?

A

1) Prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM)

2) Pre-term prelabour rupture of membranes (P-PROM)

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52
Q

Define prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM)

A

The rupture of fetal membranes at least 1 hour prior to the onset of labour, at >/=37 weeks gestation.

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53
Q

Define pre-term prelabour rupture of membranes (P-PROM)

A

the rupture of fetal membranes occurring at <37 weeks gestation.

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54
Q

What do the fetal membranes consist of?

A

The chorion & amnion.

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55
Q

What are the foetal membranes strengthened by?

A

Collagen - under normal circumstances, membranes become weaker at term in preparation for labour.

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56
Q

What 3 factors can contribute to the early weakening and rupture of fetal membranes?

A

1) Early activation of normal physiological processes: higher than normal levels of apoptotic markers and MMPs in the amniotic fluid (ie. breakdown of collage by enzymes)

2) Infection: inflammatory markers e.g. cytokines contribute to the weakening of fetal membranes.

3) Genetic predisposition

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57
Q

Risk factors associated with PROM and P-PROM?

A

1) Smoking: especially <28 weeks gestation

2) Previous PROM/pre-term deliverty

3) Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy

4) Lower genital tract infection

5) Invasive procedures e.g. amniocentesis.

6) Polyhydramnios

7) Multiple pregnancy

8) Cervical insufficiency

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58
Q

Typical history of in prelabour rupture of membranes?

A

1) ‘Broken water’: painless popping sensation, followed by a gush of watery fluid leaking from the vagina.

2) Symptoms can be non-specific:
a) gradual leakage of watery fluid from the vagina and damp underwear/pad
b) a change in the colour or consistency of vaginal discharge.

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59
Q

How can a rupture of membranes be diagnosed?

A

By sterile speculum examination.

1) Look for pooling of amniotic fluid in posterior vaginal fornix (after draining from cervix).

2) Asking the woman to cough during the examination can cause amniotic fluid to be expelled.

3) A lack of normal vaginal discharge (‘washed clean’) can be suggestive of rupture of membranes

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60
Q

Why is digital exam contraindication in PROM/PPROM (until the woman is in active labour)?

A

risk of infection - this can reduce the time between rupture of membranes and onset of labour (latency)

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61
Q

Position of women for speculum exam in PROM/PPROM?

A

The woman should be laid on an examination couch for at least 30 minutes –> will allow pooling of any leaking amniotic fluid in the top of the vagina.

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62
Q

When is a speculum not required in PROM/PPROM?

A

if amniotic fluid is seen draining from the vagina.

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63
Q

Differentials for PROM/PPROM?

A

1) urinary incontinence

2) normal vaginal secretions of pregnancy

3) increased sweat/moisture around perineum

4) increased cervical discharge (e.g. with infection)

5) vesicovaginal fistula

6) loss of mucus plug

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64
Q

Where there is doubt about the diagnosis of rupture of membranes, what 2 tests can be performed?

A

Test fluid for:

1) Insulin-like growth factor-binding protein-1 (IGFBP-1): Actim-PROM (Medix Biochemica)

2) Placental alpha-microglobin-1 (PAMG-1): Amnisure (QiaGen)

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65
Q

What is insulin-like growth factor-binding protein-1 (IGFBP-1)?

A

A protein present in high concentrations in amniotic fluid (100 – 1000 times the concentration of maternal serum).

This can be tested on vaginal fluid if there is doubt about rupture of membranes.

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66
Q

What is Placental alpha microglobulin-1 (PAMG-1)?

A

Present in the blood, amniotic fluid (in large conc) and cervico-vaginal discharge of pregnant women (in low concentrations with membranes intact).

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67
Q

Describe levels of IGFBP-1 and PAMG-1 in fluid tested in rupture of membranes?

A

High in fluid tested

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68
Q

US is not routinely used to aid diagnosis of rupture of membranes but may facilitate diagnosis in cases where it remains unclear.

What US result would indicate membrane rupture?

A

Reduced levels of amniotic fluid within the uterus

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69
Q

In all cases of premature membrane rupture, what test should be done?

A

High vaginal swab

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70
Q

Purpose of high vaginal swab in cases of premature membrane rupture?

A

1) Look for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) which would indicate antibiotics in labour

2) Give information as to a potential cause for PPROM (bacterial vaginosis is commonly implicated).

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71
Q

Impact of rupture of fetal membranes?

A

Rupture of the fetal membranes releases amniotic fluid - acts to stimulate uterus.

The vast majority of women with rupture of membranes will fall in to labour within 24-48 hour - very little that can be done to halt this.

If labour doesn’t start, it is important to consider the risks and benefits of expectant management versus induction of labour (IOL) when formulating an appropriate management plan for women with PROM:

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72
Q

What should always be given in PROM/PPROOM if <36 weeks gestation?

A

Prophylactic Abx to prevent the development of chorioamnionitis –> erhythromycin 250mg 4x daily for 10 days OR until labour is established if within 10 days

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73
Q

Abx of choice in PROM/PPROM for preventing the development of chorioamnionitis?

A

Erythromycin

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74
Q

Following PPROM, after how many weeks gestation is induction of labour considered?

A

> 34 weeks

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75
Q

In PRROM >36 weeks gestation, if labour does not start, how soon should induction of labour be considered?

A

24-48 hours: the risk of infection outweighs any benefit of the fetus remaining in utero.

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76
Q

Why is induction of labour considered >34 weeks gestation?

A

because the risk of infection outweighs any benefit of the fetus remaining in utero.

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77
Q

Management of PROM/PPROM >36 weeks gestation?

A

1) Monitor for signs of clinical chorioamnionitis.

2) Clindamycin/penicillin during labour if GBS isolated.

3) Watch and wait for 24 hours (60% of women go into labour naturally), or consider induction of labour.

4) IOL and delivery recommended if greater than 24 hours (but women can wait up to 96 hours – beyond this is their choice after counselling)

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78
Q

Management of PROM/PPROM 34-36 weeks gestation?

A

1) Prophylactic erythromycin 250 mg QDS for 10 days.

2) Monitor for signs of clinical chorioamnionitis, and advise patient to avoid sexual intercourse (can increase risk of ascending infection).

3) Clindamycin/penicillin during labour if GBS isolated.

4) Corticosteroids if between 34 and 34+6 weeks gestation.

5) IOL and delivery recommended.

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79
Q

Management of PROM/PPROM 24-33 weeks gestation?

A

1) Prophylactic Erythromycin 250 mg QDS for 10 days.

2) Monitor for signs of clinical chorioamnionitis, and advise patient to avoid sexual intercourse.

3) Corticosteroids (as less than 34+6).

4) Aim expectant management until 34 weeks.

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80
Q

What should parents be advised to avoid in PROM/PPROM?

A

Sexual intercourse - can increase risk of chorioamnionitis due to ascending infection

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81
Q

What does the outcome of PROM generally correlate with?

A

Gestational age of fetus.

The majority of women at term will enter spontaneous labour within 24 hours after membrane rupture, but there is a greater latency period the younger the gestational age.

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82
Q

Complications associated with an increased latency period?

A

1) Chorioamnionitis

2) Oligohydramnios: particularly significant if the gestational age is less than 24 weeks, as it greatly increases the risk of lung hypoplasia.

3) Neonatal death

4) Placental abruption

5) Umbilical cord prolapse

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83
Q

What is chorioamnionitis?

A

Inflammation of the fetal membranes, due to infection.

The risk increases the longer the membranes remain ruptured and baby undelivered.

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84
Q

What does oligohydramnios increase the risk of if gestational age is <24 weeks?

A

lung hypoplasia.

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85
Q

What is oligohydramnios?

A

Oligohydramnios is when you have low amniotic fluid during pregnancy.

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86
Q

What is preterm labour with intact membranes?

A

Involves regular painful contraction and cervical dilatation, without rupture of the amniotic sac.

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87
Q

How is a diagnosis of preterm labour with intact membranes diagnosed?

A

Clinical assessment with a speculum exam to look for cervical dilatation:

1) If <30 weeks gestation: clinical assessment alone is enough to offer management of preterm labour

2) If >30 weeks gestation: transvaginal US can be used to assess cervical length

88
Q

How does the number of weeks gestation impact diagnosis of preterm labour with intact membranes?

A

<30 weeks gestation –> clinical assessment alone is enough to offer management of preterm labour.

> 30 weeks gestation –> a transvaginal US can be used to assess cervical length

89
Q

How does the cervical length impact management of preterm labour with intact membranes?

A

If cervical length on US <15mm –> management of preterm labour can be offered.

If cervical length on US >15mm –> indicates preterm labour is unlikely.

90
Q

What cervical length on US indicates preterm labour is unlikely?

A

> 15mm

91
Q

What is an alternative test to US for preterm labour?

A

Fetal fibronectin

92
Q

What is fetal fibronectin?

A

The “glue” between the chorion and the uterus, and is found in the vagina during labour.

93
Q

What fetal fibronectin indicates that preterm labour is unlikely?

A

<50 ng/ml is considered negative, and indicates that preterm labour is unlikely.

94
Q

Management options for improving the outcomes in preterm labour?

A

1) Fetal monitoring (CTG or intermittent auscultation)

2) Tocolysis with nifedipine

3) Maternal corticosteroids: can be offered before 35 weeks gestation to reduce neonatal morbidity and mortality

4) IV magnesium sulphate: can be given before 34 weeks gestation and helps protect the baby’s brain

5) Delayed cord clamping or cord milking: can increase the circulating blood volume and haemoglobin in the baby at birth

95
Q

What is used for tocolysis in preterm labour?

A

nifedipine

96
Q

What class of drug is nifedipine?

A

calcium channel block: suppresses labour

97
Q

When can IV magnesium sulphate be offered in preterm labour? Purpose?

A

<34 weeks gestation

Helps protect baby’s brain

98
Q

Purpose of delayed cord clamping or cord milking in preterm labour?

A

can increase the circulating blood volume and haemoglobin in the baby at birth

99
Q

What is tocolysis?

A

Using medications to stop uterine contractions.

100
Q

Medication of choice for tocolysis?

A

Nifedipine

101
Q

What can be used as an alterantive in tocolysis when nifedipine is contraindicated?

A

Atosiban: an oxytocin receptor antagonist

102
Q

What class of drug is atosiban?

A

An oxytocin receptor antagonist

103
Q

Purpose of tocolysis?

A

Tocolysis can be used between 24 and 33 + 6 weeks gestation in preterm labour to delay delivery and buy time for further fetal development, administration of maternal steroids or transfer to a more specialist unit (e.g. with a neonatal ICU).

It is only used as a short term measure (i.e. less than 48 hours).

104
Q

Purpose of giving mother corticosteroids in preterm labour?

A

helps to develop the fetal lungs and reduce respiratory distress syndrome after delivery

105
Q

When are corticosteroids given in pregnancy?

A

They are used in women with suspected preterm labour of babies less than 36 weeks gestation.

106
Q

Purpose of giving IV magnesium sulphate in preterm labour?

A

1) helps protect the fetal brain during premature delivery
2) reduces risk of cerebral palsy

107
Q

When is IV magnesium sulphate given in preterm pregnancy?

A

Magnesium sulphate is given within 24 hours of delivery of preterm babies of less than 34 weeks gestation.

108
Q

How is IV magnesium sulphate given in preterm labour?

A

It is given as a bolus, followed by an infusion for up to 24 hours or until birth.

109
Q

What monitoring is required following IV magnesium sulphate in preterm labour?

A

Mothers need close monitoring for magnesium toxicity at least four hourly.

110
Q

How is magnesium toxicity monitored for after giving IV magnesium sulphate?

A

1) close monitoring of observations
2) tendon reflexes (usually patella reflex)

111
Q

Key signs of magnesium toxicity?

A

1) Reduced RR
2) Reduced BP
3) Absent reflexes

112
Q

What is induction of labour?

A

A process where labour is started artificially. It happens in around 20% of pregnancies.

113
Q

When is induction of labour offered (IOL)?

A

Between 41 and 42 weeks gestation

114
Q

Give some indications for IOL

A

1) Prolonged pregnancy e.g. 1-2 weeks after estimated date of delivery

2) Prelabour rupture of membranes: when labour doesn’t start

3) Fetal growth restriction

4) Maternal medical problems e.g. pre-eclampsia, diabetic mother >38 weeks, obstretric cholestasis

5) Intrauterine fetal death

115
Q

What % of pregnancies will require IOL?

A

20%

116
Q

Purpose of IOL in prolonged gestation?

A

Avoid risks of fetal compromise and stillbirth associated with prolonged gestation (thought to be secondary to placental ageing).

117
Q

Role of IOL in PROM >37 weeks gestation?

A

1) Offer IOL

or

2) Offer expectant management for a maximum of 24 hours

118
Q

Role of IOL in PROM <34 weeks gestation?

A

Delay IOL unless obstetric factors indicate otherwise e.g. fetal distress.

119
Q

Role of IOL in PROM >34 weeks gestation?

A

the timing of IOL depends on risks vs benefits of delaying pregnancy further e.g. increased risk of infection (is a weigh up)

120
Q

Give some common examples of maternal health conditions that may require IOL?

A

HTN
Pre-eclampsia
Diabetes
Obstetric cholestasis

121
Q

Give some ABSOLUTE contraindications for IOL

A

1) Cephalopelvic disproportion

2) Major placenta praevia

3) Vasa praevi

4) Cord prolapse

5) Transvere lie

6) Active primary genital herpes

7) Previous classical Caesarean section: IOL can be offered safely after she has been seen and assessed by a consultant (who is happy for IOL to proceed)

122
Q

Give some RELATIVE contraindications for IOL

A

1) Breech presentation

2) Triplet or higher order pregnancy

3) Two or more previous low transverse caesarean sections

123
Q

Risk of IOL in women who have had a previous caesarean section?

A

Increased risk of emergency caesarian and uterine rupture.

124
Q

What is the Bishop score?

A

A scoring system used to determine whether to induce labour that assesses the ‘cervical ripeness’.

125
Q

When is the Bishop score used?

A

1) prior to induction
2) during induction to assess progress (6 hours post-table/gel, 24 hours post-pessary)

126
Q

What Bishop’s score suggests a high chance of a response to interventions made to induce labour (i.e. induction of labour is possible)?

A

> /= 8

127
Q

What Bishop’s score suggests that labour is unlikely to progress naturally and prostaglandin tablet/gel/pessary will be required?

A

<5

128
Q

What will failure of a cervix to ripen despite use of prostaglandins result in?

A

need for a caesarean section.

129
Q

What 5 things are assessed in the Bishop’s score?

A

1) Fetal station (0-3)

2) Cervical position (0-2)

3) Cervical dilatation (0-3)

4) Cervical effacement/length (0-3)

5) Cervical consistency (0-2)

130
Q

Cervical position scores in the Bishop’s scoring system:

A

Posterior - 0
Intermediate - 1
Anterior - 2

131
Q

Cervical dilation scores in the Bishop’s scoring system:

A

<1cm: 0
1-2cm: 1
3-4cm: 2
>5cm: 3

132
Q

Cervical consistency scores in the Bishop’s scoring system:

A

Firm: 0
Intermediate: 1
Soft: 2

133
Q

What are the 3 main methods of IOL?

A

1) vaginal prostaglandin (dinoprostone)

2) amniotomy (artificial rupture of membranes)

3) membrane sweep

4) maternal oxytocin infusion

5) oral prostaglandin E1 (misoprostol)

6) cervical ripening balloon

134
Q

Preferred 1ary method of IOL

A

Vaginal prostaglandins

135
Q

What prostaglandin is used for the IOL?

A

E2 (dinoprostone)

136
Q

How are vaginal prostaglandins used in IOL?

A

1) A gel, tablet (Prostin) or pessary (Propess) is inserted into the vagina.

2) The pessary is similar to a tampon, and slowly releases local prostaglandins over 24 hours.

3) This stimulates the cervix and uterus to cause the onset of labour.

This is usually done in the hospital setting so that the woman can be monitored before being allowed home to await the full onset of labour.

137
Q

Role of prostaglandins in IOL?

A

Prostaglandins act to prepare the cervix for labour by ripening it, and also have a role in the contraction of the smooth muscle of the uterus.

138
Q

What 3 ways can vaginal prostaglandins be given?

A

1) tablet
2) gel
3) controlled-release pessary

Tablet/gel regimen: 1 cycle = 1st dose, plus a 2nd dose if labour has not started 6 hours later.

Pessary regimen: 1 cycle = 1 dose over 24 hours.

139
Q

Vaginal prostaglandin pessary regimen?

A

1 cycle = 1 dose over 24 hours.

140
Q

What is a membrane sweep in IOL?

A

1) Inserting a gloved finger through cervix and rotating it against the fetal membranes, aiming to separate the chorionic membrane from the decidua.

2) The separation helps to release natural prostaglandins in an attempt to kick-start labour.

N.B. not considered a full method of inducing labour, and is more of an assistance before full induction of labour

141
Q

How long should a membrane sweep take to produce the onset of labour?

A

Within 48 hours

142
Q

When is a membrane sweep offered in:
a) nulliparous women
b) multiparous women

A

a) 40 and 41 weeks gestation
b) 41 weeks

143
Q

What is an amniotomy?

A

1) Artificial rupture of membranes using an amnihook to induce labour.

2) Often, an infusion of artificial oxytocin (Syntocinon) will be given alongside an amniotomy

144
Q

When would the artificial rupture of membranes be used in IOL?

A

ONLY performed when the cervix has been deemed as ‘ripe’.

1) Only used where there are reasons not to use vaginal prostaglandins

2) Can be used to progress the induction of labour after vaginal prostaglandins have been used.

145
Q

What is often given alongisde an amniotomy in IOL?

A

Oxytocin infusion

146
Q

How does an amniotomy induce labour?

A

As with a membrane sweep, this process releases prostaglandins in an attempt to expedite labour.

147
Q

What Bishop’s score is needed for an amniotomy?

A

> /= 8

148
Q

How is the dose of oxytocin given in IOL titrated?

A

The aim is to start low and titrate upwards until there are 4 contractions every 10 minutes.

149
Q

Give a contraindication to vaginal prostaglandins in IOL

A

high risk of uterine hyperstimulation.

150
Q

What is a cervical ripening balloon? How can it induce labour?

A

Silicone balloon that is passed through the endocervical canal and gently inflated to dilate the cervix.

151
Q

What is often used as an alternative where vaginal prostaglandins are not preferred?

A

Cervical ripening balloon (CRB)

152
Q

Give some scenarios where vaginal prostaglandins are not indicated

A
  • previous caesarean section
  • where vaginal prostaglandins have failed
  • multiparous women (para ≥ 3)
  • higher risk of uterine hyperstimulation
153
Q

What is used to induce labour where intrauterine fetal death has occurred?

A

Oral mifepristone (anti-progesterone) + misoprostol

154
Q

What are the 2 means for monitoring during the induction of labour?

A

1) Cardiotocography (CTG)

2) Bishop score: before and during induction of labour to monitor the progress

155
Q

If the Bishop score </= 6, what methods of IOL are recommended?

A

1) Vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol

2) Mechanical methods such as a balloon catheter can be considered if the woman is at higher risk of hyperstimulation or has had a previous caesarean

156
Q

If the Bishop score >6, what methods of IOL are recommended?

A

amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion

157
Q

How is CTG used in the monitoring of IOL?

A

To assess the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions BEFORE and DURING induction of labour.

  • Use continuous CTG until a normal rate is confirmed - subsequently assess using intermittent auscultation.
  • If an oxytocin infusion is started, monitor using continuous CTG throughout labour.
158
Q

When is continuous CTG monitoring required throughout IOL?

A

If an oxytocin infusion is started

159
Q

Most women will give birth within 24 hours of the start of induction of labour.

What are the options when there is slow or no progress?

A

1) Further vaginal prostaglandins

2) Artificial rupture of membranes and oxytocin infusion

3) Cervical ripening balloon (CRB)

4) Elective caesarean section

160
Q

What is the main complication of the IOL?

A

Uterine hyperstimulation

161
Q

What is uterine hyperstimulation?

A

Prolonged and frequent uterine contractions - sometimes called tachysystole

This can lead to fetal distress.

162
Q

What can uterine hyperstimulation be managed with?

A

1) Consider tocolytics (anti-contraction) e.g. terbutaline

2) Remove the vaginal prostaglandins if possible and stop the oxytocin infusion if one has been started

163
Q

Potential complications of uterine hyperstimulation?

A

1) intermittent interruption of blood flow to the intervillous space over time may result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia

2) uterine rupture (rare)

164
Q

Complications of IOL?

A

1) Failure of induction

2) Uterine hyperstimulation

3) Cord prolapse

4) Infection

5) Pain

6)

165
Q

What is cardiotocography (CTG)?

A

Used to measure the foetal heart rate and the contractions of the uterus.

Also known as electronic foetal monitoring.

166
Q

What is CTG used for?

A

1) Monitoring condition of fetus

2) Monitoring activity of labour

Can help guide decision making and delivery.

167
Q

How does a CTG work (where are the transducers placed)?

A

Two transducers are placed on the abdomen to get the CTG readout:

1) 1st above the fetal heart to monitor the fetal heartbeat

2) 2nd near the fundus of the uterus to monitor the uterine contractions

168
Q

How is the fetal heartbeat monitored in CTG?

A

The transducer above the fetal heart monitors the heartbeat using Doppler ultrasound.

169
Q

How are uterine contractions monitored in CTG?

A

The transducer above the fundus uses ultrasound to assess the tension in the uterine wall, indicating uterine contraction.

170
Q

Give some indications of continuous CTG monitoring in labour?

A

1) sepsis

2) maternal tachycardia (>120)

3) significant meconium

4) pre-eclampsia (particularly blood pressure > 160 / 110)

5) fresh antepartum haemorrhage

6) delay in labour

7) use of oxytocin

8) disproportionate maternal pain

171
Q

What is the normal fetal heart rate?

A

100-160 bpm

172
Q

What are the 5 key features to look for on a CTG?

A

1) Contractions: number of uterine contractions per 10 minutes

2) Baseline rate: the baseline fetal heart rate

3) Variability: how the fetal heart rate varies up and down around the baseline

4) Accelerations: periods where the fetal heart rate spikes

5) Decelerations: periods where the fetal heart rate drops

173
Q

How can contractions be used to gauge the activity of labour?

i.e. what would too few/too many contractions indicate?

A

Too few: indicate labour is not progressing

Too many: uterine hyperstimulation which can lead to fetal compromise

It is also important to interpret the fetal heart rate in the context of the uterine contractions.

174
Q

What do accelerations indicate on a CTG?

A

Accelerations are generally a good sign that the fetus is healthy, particularly when occurring alongside contractions of the uterus.

175
Q

Give bpm for following features on a CTG:

a) normal foetal HR

b) baseline bradycardia

c) baseline tachycardia

d) loss of baseline variability

A

a) 100-160/min

b) <100

c) <160

d) <5

176
Q

Give some causes of fetal baseline bradycardia on a CTG

A

1) Increased fetal vagal tone

2) maternal beta-blocker use

177
Q

Give some causes of fetal baseline tachycardia on a CTG

A

1) Maternal pyrexia
2) chorioamnionitis
3) hypoxia
4) prematurity

178
Q

Give some causes of a loss of baseline variability on a CTG

A

1) Prematurity
2) hypoxia

179
Q

What is a normal baseline variability on a CTG?

A

5 - 25

180
Q

What is baseline variability on a CTG?

A

Baseline variability is the minor fluctuation in baseline FHR.

181
Q

What are decelerations on a CTG?

A

More concerning findings –> the FHR drops in response to hypoxia.

182
Q

Cause of FHR dropping in response to hypoxia?

A

Allows to conserve oxygen for the vital organs.

183
Q

What are the 4 types of decelerations on a CTG?

A

1) Early
2) Late
3) Variable
4) Prolonged

184
Q

What are early decelerations?

A

Deceleration of the heart rate which commences with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal on completion of the contraction.

185
Q

What do early decelerations on a CTG correspond with?

A

Uterine contractions:

The lowest point of the declaration corresponds to the peak of the contraction.

186
Q

Are early decelerations pathological?

A

Early decelerations are normal and not considered pathological.

187
Q

Cause of early decelerations on a CTG?

A

They are caused by the uterus compressing the head the fetus, stimulating the vagus nerve of the fetus, slowing the heart rate.

188
Q

What are late decelerations?

A

Deceleration of the heart rate which lags the onset of a contraction and does not returns to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction.

I.e. there is a delay between the uterine contraction and the deceleration.

189
Q

When does the lowest point of deceleration occur in early vs late deceleration?

A

Early: lowest point of deceleration corresponds to the peak of the contraction

Late: lowest point occurs after the peak of the contraction.

190
Q

What are late decelerations on a CTG caused by?

A

Late decelerations are caused by hypoxia in the fetus e.g. asphyxia or placental insufficiency

This may be the result of:
1) Excessive uterine contractions
2) Maternal hypotension
3) Maternal hypoxia

191
Q

What are variable decelerations on a CTG?

A

Variable decelerations are abrupt decelerations that may be UNRELATED to uterine contractions.

There is a fall of more than 15 bpm from the baseline.

192
Q

When does the lowest point of variable decelerations occur?

A

The lowest point of the declaration occurs within 30 seconds, and the deceleration lasts less than 2 minutes in total.

193
Q

What do variable decelerations often indicate?

A

Intermittent compression of the umbilical cord, causing fetal hypoxia.

194
Q

What do brief accelerations before and after the variable deceleration indicate?

A

These are known as ‘shoulders’ - a reassuring sign that the fetus is coping.

195
Q

What is a prolonged deceleration on a CTG?

A

Lasts between 2 and 10 minutes with a drop of more than 15 bpm from baseline.

196
Q

what do prolonged decelerations often indicate?

A

Compression of the umbilical cord, causing fetal hypoxia.

These are abnormal and concerning.

197
Q

What are the features of a ‘reassuring’ CTG?

A

1) no decelerations
OR
2) early decelerations
OR
3) less than 90 minutes of variable decelerations with no concerning features.

198
Q

What are the 4 categories of CTG results?

A

1) normal

2) suspicious

3) pathological

4) need for urgent intervention

199
Q

Features of a ‘suspicious’ CTG?

A

a single non-reassuring feature

200
Q

Features of a ‘pathological’ CTG?

A

two non-reassuring features or a single abnormal feature

201
Q

Features of a CTG that indicates the ‘need for ugent intervention’?

A

acute bradycardia or prolonged deceleration of more than 3 minutes

201
Q

Potential management options depending on CTG results:

A

1) Escalating to a senior midwife and obstetrician

2) Further assessment for possible causes, such as uterine hyperstimulation, maternal hypotension and cord prolapse

3) Conservative interventions such as repositioning the mother or giving IV fluids for hypotension

4) Fetal scalp stimulation (an acceleration in response to stimulation is a reassuring sign)

5) Fetal scalp blood sampling to test for fetal acidosis

6) Delivery of the baby (e.g. instrumental delivery or emergency caesarean section)

202
Q

What is a reassuring sign on foetal scalp stimulation?

A

an acceleration in response to stimulation is a reassuring sign

203
Q

What is the ‘rule of 3s’ for prolonged fetal bradycardia?

A

3 minutes – call for help

6 minutes – move to theatre

9 minutes – prepare for delivery

12 minutes – deliver the baby (by 15 minutes)

204
Q

What is a sinusoidal CTG?

A

A rare pattern to be aware of, as it can indicate severe fetal compromise.

It gives a pattern similar to a sine wave, with smooth regular waves up and down that have an amplitude of 5 – 15 bpm.

205
Q

What does a sinusoidal CTG indicate?

A

It is usually associated with severe fetal anaemia e.g. caused by vasa praevia with fetal haemorrhage.

206
Q

What mneumonic can be used to assess features of a CTG?

A

DR C BRaVADO

DR - Define Risk (define the risk based on the individual woman and pregnancy before assessing the CTG)

C – Contractions

BRa - Baseline Rate

V - Variability

A - Accelerations

D - Decelerations

O - Overall impression (given an overall impression of the CTG and clinical picture) e.g. normal, suspicious, pathological, need for ugent intervention

207
Q

Describe changes to the myometrium during labour

A

Stretching increases muscle excitability & contractibility.

Gap junctions are formed under the influence of oestrogen enabling transmission of electrochemical signals from cell to cell and a synchronised contraction wave.

208
Q

Describe changes to the cervix during labour

A

Decrease in collagen and an increase in water content enabling the cervix to soften, efface and dilate (ripen).

209
Q

Describe hormonal changes during labour

A

Increased concentrations of oestrogen stimulate the production and release of prostaglandins.

Also promotes the formation of oxytocin receptors so that the myometrium is more sensitive to oxytocin.

Prostaglandins and oxytocin are strong myometrial stimulants and play a major role in cervical ripening.

210
Q

Give 2 causes of baseline bradycardia on a CTG

A

1) increased foetal vagal tone
2) maternal beta blocker use

211
Q

Give 4 causes of baseline tachycardia on a CTG

A

1) maternal pyrexia
2) chorioamnionitis
3) hypoxia
4) prematurity

212
Q

Give 2 causes of a loss of baseline variability on a CTG

A

1) prematurity
2) hypoxia

213
Q

What do late decelerations on a CTG indicate?

A

Indicate fetal distress e.g. asphyxia or placental insufficiency

214
Q

What may variable decelerations on a CTG indicate?

A

Cord compression

215
Q

Role of IV magnesium sulphate in eclampsia?

A

Prevent further seizures and provide neuroprotection to the foetus.

216
Q
A