Intraoperative Procedures - Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

_____ marks the surgery site. What is the mark they leave? What is verified with the patient over and over and over?

A

the SURGEON

must sign it! X is NOT acceptable

patient name, DOB and procedure

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2
Q

What is the general flow of anesthesia induction?

A

Amnesia, Analgesia, Muscle relaxation, and Sedation

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3
Q

What is the procedure for sedating a child who currently does NOT have IV access?

A

If child with no IV - will “breath down” with gas then start IV

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4
Q

______ and _____ are used in anesthesia as induction agents

A

propofol and ketamine

depending on facility preference

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5
Q

What is the onset of action for propofol? What is the SE?

A

less than 1 minute, aka VERY RAPID

SE: pain at injection site

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6
Q

What is the SE of ketamine?

A

hallucinations

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7
Q

________ is used as a Muscle Relaxant/Neuromuscular blocker - “Paralysis” Agents in anesthesia. What is the CI? What is the SE?

A

Succinylcholine - M/C

Succinylcholine contraindicated with h/o Malignant Hyperthermia

Can cause p/o myalgia

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8
Q

______ is an inhalation anesthetics that is used more commonly for children for induction

A

(isoflurane)

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9
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia caused by?

A

A pharmacogenetic disorder of skeletal muscle that presents as a hypermetabolic response to potent volatile anesthetic gases

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10
Q

tachycardia, tachypnea, increased oxygen consumption, cyanosis, cardiac dysrhythmias, metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, muscle rigidity

What am I?
What can these pts NOT get?

A

Malignant Hyperthermia?

**NO INHALED ANESTHESIA GASES
**NO DEPOLARIZING MUSCLE RELAXANTS

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11
Q

What is the tx for malignant hyperthermia?

A
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12
Q

Who is the OR is most likely to recognize malignant hyperthermia first? What are some signs they might find?

A

anesthesia provider

Unexplained tachycardia
Increased end-tidal CO2
Increase of body temperature above 38.8 C
Masseter rigidity

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13
Q

If a person has a personal/family hx of malignant hyperthermia, what needs to happen before the pt can have surgery?

A

If personal or family hx of this must Notify anesthesia

Requires flushing of anesthesia machine prior to case

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14
Q

_____ typically starts 5 minutes before intubation. _____ happens 30 seconds after induction. _____ happens 45 seconds after induction. _______ happens after 60 seconds of intubation

A

preoxygenation

protection of airway : 30 seconds

placement of ET tube: 45 seconds

post-intubation management: 60 seconds after

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15
Q

What are your 3 options for anesthesia induction?

A

Application of cricoid pressure
Fiberoptic laryngoscope
GlideScope

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16
Q

What is the 4 step process that you need to do once the ET is inserted?

A

Inflate bulb on tube to secure airway

Connect to O2

Confirm placement of tube by auscultation of lungs/condensation in the tube, End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) detector

Tape in place

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17
Q

What are some complications of ET intubation?

A

Damage to teeth, soft tissue of mouth/pharynx, lips

Tachycardia, BP irregularities

Laryngospasm on extubating

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18
Q

What are the 3 different types of anesthesia?

A

conscious sedation/ monitored anesthesia care (MAC)

regional (spinal or epidural)

general

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19
Q

_____ is monitored WITHOUT intubation. What 3 medications are commonly used? What setting is this commonly used in?

A

Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC) or Conscious Sedation

Propofol, Fentanyl, Versed

Common with Endoscopies

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20
Q

_______ are common with invasive surgeries of the extremities, or below the waist pelvic surgery. What are 2 common medications?

A

Spinal/epidural

Lidocaine, Bupivacaine

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21
Q

What level is spinal anesthesia administered? injected into the ______

A

Lumbar Level (L3-L4)

Enter subarachnoid space, inject anesthetic into CSF

22
Q

What level are epidurals injected into? What space?

A

any point in vertebral column

inject anesthetic into epidural space

23
Q

What is this?

A

Laryngeal Mask Airway

24
Q

for the following symptoms are they more common with spinal or epidural?
hypotension
urinary retention
HA

A

hypotension: common with spinal

urinary retention: common with spinal

HA: 1-5% in spinal and NEVER in epidural unless dural puncture

25
Q

What is the 2 pt positioning options for spinal/epidural anesthesia?

A

lateral decubitus

sitting/bending forward

26
Q

What are 4 SE of spinal/epidural anesthesia? What is common in spinal? What is the most serious?

A

Hypotension, Sedation, Respiratory Depression, Infection (Abscess)

spinal:
HA
Most Serious - Cauda Equina Syndrome

27
Q

What are 2 CI to spinal/epidural anesthesia?

A

Back abnormalities and infections

28
Q

What is the difference in term of what the pt feels between spinal anesthesia and epidural anesthesia?

A

spinal: the pt cannot feel ANYTHING, no sensation will be present

epidural: the pt cannot feel PAIN, but CAN still feel pressure

29
Q

What are the local anesthesia medication options?

A

Lidocaine (with/without Epinephrine), Bupivacaine

30
Q

**_______ should be avoided on any distal end points

A

epinephrine

31
Q

Patients should be kept at a core temperature of at least _______ because anesthesia impairs ________

A

35.5°C (95.9 F)

thermoregulation

32
Q

What are 5 possible negative things that could happen to a pt if their temp drops below 35.5?

A

ϲοаgսlοpаthy,
infection,
prolonged drug action,
thermal discomfort / shiveriոg
myocardial ischemia

33
Q

________ is done to help manage the body temp in the OR

A

warming!!

can start before the pt even enters the OR

34
Q

Who is responsible for fluid management in the OR?

A

anesthesia

35
Q

Ηуроvоlеmiа results in reduced _______ and ______. Persistent hурοvοlemiа can lead to _____ and ______

A

cardiac output

tissue perfusion

shock

multiorgan failure

36
Q

Preoperative _____ may increase the risk of significant decreases in ______ during induction of anesthesia

A

hуроvοlеmiа

blood pressure

37
Q

What would cause hypervolemia in an OR setting?

A

anesthesia giving excessive fluid administration to treat hypotension during general

treatment of surgical bleeding

38
Q

What are some consequences seen after the fact from hypervolemia during surgery?

A

Impairs oxygen exchange and increases risk for postoperative respiratory failure and pneumonia.

GI edema, decreased GI motility and possible ileus

dehiscence of anatomosis

dilutes clotting factors

increased wound healing time

39
Q

What is the fluid management protocol for a minimal/moderately invasive surgery?

A

1 to 2 L of a balanced electrolyte solution to provide adequate intravascular hуdrаtiоn
Lactated Ringers

Use caution with known CHF or COPD

Typically administered during sսrgery over a period of 30 minutes to two hours.

40
Q

What is the fluid management protocol for an invasive surgery with expected blood loss of less than 500mL? At what rate?

A

restrictive strategy, zero balance strategy

only the fluid that is lost during ѕurgerу is replaced

rate of approximately 3 mL/kg per hour during the intraoperative period

41
Q

What is the fluid management protocol for an invasive surgery with expected blood loss of MORE than 500mL? At what rate?

A

goal directed therapy

continuous monitoring of hemodynamic parameters to guide fluid administration, aiming to optimize tissue perfusion by giving only the necessary amount of fluid to achieve specific physiological goals, like maintaining adequate blood pressure and cardiac output.

42
Q

How do you know how much blood has been lost? What level is considered concerning?

A

surgical sponges/tapes
Visualization of suction canister
Pt vitals can be clue
Hgb levels

over 500mL is considered concerning

43
Q

Where should the grounding pad be placed on the patient?

A

somewhere that is on clean exposed skin out of the operative field

aka NOT hairy and cannot be placed over anything metal inside the pt’s body

44
Q

Sterile items that are below the ______, or items held below _____ are considered to be non-sterile.

A

waist level

waist level,

45
Q

Sterile fields must always be kept ____ to be considered sterile. What should you NOT do?

A

in sight

NEVER turn your back on the sterile field

46
Q

Once a sterile field is set up, the border of _______ of the sterile drape is considered non-sterile

A

one inch at the edge

47
Q

What should you do if you have to cough/sneeze in the OR?

A

DO NOT TURN YOUR HEAD TO COUGH

need to sneeze/cough into your mask as to keep the germs contained

48
Q

If needed, when is a catheter placed?

A

Urinary catheter (if needed) is placed after patient is asleep and prior to final positioning.

49
Q

What are some patient prep solutions used in surgery? How long should you scrub?

A

Chlorhexidine
Betadine
Hibiclens
Alcohol

approx 3 minutes

50
Q

What is the proper way to scrub/gown/glove?

51
Q

How are surgical instruments cleaned and disinfected?