intraoperative Flashcards

1
Q

Which item would be a part of the back table setup while preparing for an otorhinolaryngology procedure involving the ear?

A

Myringotomy knife

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2
Q

Which of the following instruments is used to retract muscle during hip procedures?

A

Deaver retractor

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3
Q

Which of the following clamps will the surgeon use to achieve hemostasis in the proximal pancreas?

A

Mosquito

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4
Q

A full-thickness skin graft can extend to and include the anatomical layer called

A

Subcutaneous tissue

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5
Q

Which of the instruments is not used for occluding a blood vessel?

A

Kocher

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6
Q

In a premenopausal patient who wishes to have more children, removal of fibroids would be accomplished by performing a:

A

Myomectomy

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7
Q

__________are commonly used during a craniotomy to adhere the scalp to the bone flap.

A

Raney clips

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8
Q

Which of the following sutures will the certified surgical technologist (CST) have ready following a small bowel resection?

A

1 nonabsorbable

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9
Q

What surgical procedure is done to treat sleep apnea?

A

Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty

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10
Q

Who is responsible for preparing and labeling specimens for transport to the pathology lab?

A

The circulator

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11
Q

A _______ retractor has a reverse curve that is inserted under the bone for leverage.

A

Bennett

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12
Q

Strabismus repair is a type of:

A

Ophthalmic surgery

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13
Q

A technique used to seal tears and holes during which CO2 gas is passed under pressure through flexible tubes to the tip of a probe is called:

A

Cryotherapy

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14
Q

__________ is the drain of choice following a choledochotomy.

A

T-tube

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15
Q

During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon will advance the cholangiogram catheter through which of the following structures?

A

Cystic duct

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16
Q

The function(s) of stapling devices used during endoscopic surgery is/are:

A

Re-approximating tissue

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17
Q

Which of the following retractors can be used for both an open cholecystectomy and liver retraction?

A

Harrington

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18
Q

A mallet would be used during which of the following procedures?

A

Total knee arthroplasty

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19
Q

Which of the following instruments is a self-retaining retractor?

A

Weitlaner

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20
Q

An Army-Navy is a:

A

Retracting instrument

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21
Q

Which of the following instruments is used to retract muscle during hip procedures?

A

Israel retractor

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22
Q

Which of the following burns are the result of contact with fire, hot fluid, or hot objects?

A

Thermal

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23
Q

The dilation and partial excision of dilated veins in the scrotum is a(n):

A

Varicocelectomy

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24
Q

What percentage of all surgical patients can be affected by hypothermia?

A

60%

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25
Q

During a lumbar laminectomy, which of the following instruments will the certified surgical technologist (CST) have on the sterile field to remove a part of the lamina?

A

Love-Kerrison rongeur

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26
Q

What factor below is not advantageous to laser technology in a surgical procedure?

A

Continuous use of laser to shorten procedure time

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27
Q

A type of drain that facilitates drainage from a surgical wound and is considered a passive drain is called a:

A

Penrose

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28
Q

During an inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon asks for a retractor to retract the spermatic cord. What will the certified surgical technologist (CST) pass off?

A

Penrose drain

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29
Q

______ is the surgical repair of a testicle in the scrotum.

A

Orchiopexy

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30
Q

What is the medical term used when the bladder herniates into the vagina?

A

Cystocele

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31
Q

To diagnose coronary disease, the following procedure is performed:

A

Cardiac catheterization

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32
Q

During a reduction mammoplasty, in which position is the patient placed to assess the breasts for size and symmetry?

A

Fowler

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33
Q

_______ are plastic or rubber tubing that is threaded over retention suture ends before they are tied.

A

Bolsters

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34
Q

Which of the following procedures is performed to repair a detached retina?

A

Sclera buckling

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35
Q

What type of suture technique would be used on the appendix?

A

Purse string

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36
Q

What is the procedure of choice to treat a deep vein thrombus?

A

Vena cava filter insertion

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37
Q

Which member of the surgical team must document the medications that are used at the surgical field?

A

Circulator

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38
Q

What structures are removed in a modified radical mastectomy?

A

Breast and lymph nodes

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39
Q

The surgeon is asking for an instrument to grasp the base of a hemorrhoid. Which of the following will the certified surgical technologist (CST) have ready?

A

Allis

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40
Q

What is the correct location for an incision used in an open cholecystectomy?

A

Right upper quadrant

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41
Q

The removal of the entire uterus, including the cervix, is called:

A

Total hysterectomy

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42
Q

A type of drain that facilitates drainage from a surgical wound and is considered a passive drain is called a:

A

Penrose

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43
Q

Glycine is used for which of the following procedures?

A

TURP

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44
Q

__________ is used to examine patients with abnormal Pap smears

A

Colposcopy

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45
Q

Which of the following departments would be responsible for supplying blood during a surgical procedure?

A

Medical laboratory

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46
Q

Which of the following tasks can be performed by both a sterile and nonsterile team member during the intraoperative phase of a surgical procedure?

A

Specimen care

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47
Q

What is a common risk factor for an older adult patient compared to an adolescent patient?

A

Skin condition

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48
Q

From the list below, which is not indicated for irrigation?

A

To rinse the sutures

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49
Q

Which of the following steps can the certified surgical technologist (CST) take to prevent bone damage when the surgeon is working with a power saw on bone?

A

Irrigation

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50
Q

Which of the following retractors attaches to the operating room table, requiring the assistance of the certified surgical technologist (CST) to ensure proper placement?

A

Bookwalter

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51
Q

Which of the following techniques will the surgeon use to ligate vessels during saphenous vein harvest?

A

Ligature reel

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52
Q

______ scissors are used for cutting thick, fibrous tissue.

A

Mayo

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53
Q

During a total hip arthroplasty, the anatomical structure(s) that are replaced are:

A

Femur head, acetabulum, femoral neck

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54
Q

Which of the following retractors should the certified surgical technologist (CST) have ready to expose the common bile duct during an open cholecystectomy?

A

Deaver

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55
Q

Which of the following are NOT members of the sterile team?

A

Circulator

56
Q

The surgeon is performing an arteriotomy and asks the certified surgical technologist (CST) for a scissor. Which of the following will the surgeon need?

A

Potts-Smith

57
Q

Which retractor is used during OB/GYN (obstetrics/gynecology) procedures?

A

O’Connor-O’Sullivan

58
Q

A retractor used in a laminectomy is called:

59
Q

An approach into the maxillary sinus through the canine fossa, a gingivobuccal incision, is for the surgical procedure called:

A

Caldwell-Luc

60
Q

Which of the following instruments is used to remove frayed edges from the meniscus?

A

Motorized shaver

61
Q

In addition to the intraoperative record that is maintained by the circulator, what other document must be maintained for every patient during a surgical procedure?

A

Anesthesia record

62
Q

A Baker cyst is located in the:

A

Back of the knee

63
Q

In a pancreaticoduodenectomy, the certified surgical technologist (CST) will have which of the following sponges ready for the surgeon?

A

Moist laparotomy

64
Q

Dissection through the intercostal space would be the initial incision for which surgical procedure?

A

Thoracoscopy

65
Q

Which incision is most used for a cesarean section?

A

Pfannenstiel

66
Q

Which piece of furniture is considered to be the Certified Surgical Technologist’s (CST) primary workstation?

A

Mayo stand

67
Q

Spinal anesthesia may be used for any of the following procedures EXCEPT:

A

Gastric bypass

68
Q

When is the draped Mayo stand moved into place in a surgical procedure?

A

After the patient is draped

69
Q

An Open Reduction Internal Fixation (ORIF) is usually accomplished using all of the following EXCEPT:

70
Q

Which of the following hemostatic agents would NOT be used in bone procurement from the ilium?

71
Q

Which of the following is a sign of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Severe muscle spasms

72
Q

The hernia that leads to tissue necrosis is known as:

A

Strangulated hernia

73
Q

Which of the following dissectors will the surgeon need during a hysterectomy?

74
Q

A measuring device used during surgical procedures is a(n)

75
Q

The surgical treatment for otitis media is:

A

Myringotomy

76
Q

How long after a tourniquet has been inflated on the upper extremity does the certified surgical technologist (CST) need to notify the surgeon?

77
Q

Which of the options is not a valid option for suctioning in a surgical procedure?

78
Q

The self-retaining retractor with sharp or blunt teeth is called a(n):

79
Q

When a patient is moved into Trendelenburg position, the operating team will do all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Place the Mayo stand in a lower position

80
Q

The certified surgical technologist (CST) is assisting the surgeon during an abdominal resection. What device will the CST pass off for an end-to-end-anastomosis?

A

EEA
EEA (end-to-end anastomosis) is an intraluminar staple used to achieve anastomosis in abdominal resection procedures.

81
Q

Removal of the prepuce is known as:

A

Circumcision

82
Q

The procedure to transport cerebrospinal fluid from the ventricles of the brain to the peritoneal cavity is called:

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

83
Q

Who is responsible for counting items added to the sterile field during a procedure?

A

CST and circulator

84
Q

Neurosurgical sponges are also known as:

85
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable position for placement of a scrubbed, gowned, and gloved surgical technologist’s hands?

A

Clasped together above waist level

86
Q

For which type of surgery could a retrobulbar block be administered for anesthesia?

A

Vitrectomy

87
Q

Which of the following incisions will be used for an exploratory laparotomy?

88
Q

The removal of a kidney to treat a tumor, a disease, or an injury is called:

A

Nephrectomy

89
Q

The initial step of a D&C (dilation and curettage) procedure is:

A

Placement of a weighted vaginal speculum

90
Q

A patient with cryptorchidism can be treated with this surgical procedure

A

Orchiopexy

91
Q

For which type of surgery could a retrobulbar block be administered for anesthesia?

A

Vitrectomy

92
Q

The scleral buckle procedure uses low wattage cautery to mark the sclera over the retinal detachment and seal the sclerotomy. The cautery is called a:

93
Q

___________ is a specially treated gauze that has a hemostatic agent.

94
Q

Which of the following hemostats will the surgeon need to clamp branches of the mesentery artery during a colectomy?

95
Q

During a gastrostomy, a Malecot or Pezzar catheter is secured using what type of suture technique?

A

Purse string

96
Q

Which of the following instruments is used to clear plaque from the tunica intima during an endarterectomy?

A

Freer elevator

97
Q

Which of the following terms best describes a thin wire inserted into a catheter to maintain rigidity?

98
Q

During a total abdominal hysterectomy, which of the following sutures will the certified surgical technologist prepare to tie off the uterine ligament?

A

Chromic gut

99
Q

Which suction tip is used during an otorhinolaryngological surgical procedure?

100
Q

The normal sequence of steps for placement of screws in a plate for an orthopedic ORIF procedure is to hand the instruments in the following sequence:

A

Depth gauge, tap, screw on a driver

101
Q

Which of the following is the most important factor in a surgical technologist’s role in preventing surgical site infections (SSI)?

A

Strict surgical conscience

102
Q

Gastric banding is a surgical procedure used for:

A

Morbid obesity

103
Q

During an appendectomy, various supplies are used. Which of the following is not an ideal supply for this case?

104
Q

What factor below is not advantageous to laser technology in a surgical procedure?

A

Continuous use of laser to shorten procedure time

105
Q

Which of the following procedures best describes an obstruction in the vaginal labia?

A

Marsupialization of Bartholin’s cyst

106
Q

An 82-year-old patient is scheduled for pacemaker insertion. What form of anesthesia is most commonly used?

A

Monitored anesthesia care (MAC)

107
Q

Which of the following procedures will be done to treat a female patient suffering with stress incontinence due to pregnancy or menopause?

A

Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz (MMK)

108
Q

What machine generates an electrical impulse to the heart during cardiac arrest to reestablish a heart rhythm?

A

Defibrillator

109
Q

Which of the following tissues can be accidentally removed in a thyroidectomy?

A

Parathyroid glands

110
Q

Which of the following instruments is used to retrieve gallstones?

111
Q

______ is the removal of excess skin and fat between the muscle fibers of the eyelids.

A

Blepharoplasty

112
Q

What procedure is commonly performed with a pyloroplasty?

113
Q

The mechanical device designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedures is called a/an:

A

Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)

114
Q

During a laparoscopic appendectomy, the surgeon requests a stapler. Which of the following staplers will the certified surgical technologist (CST) pass off?

115
Q

During an open simple nephrectomy, the surgeon will need to occlude the ureter. Which of the following instruments will the certified surgical technologist (CST) pass off?

116
Q

When passing a ringed surgical instrument to the surgeon, the Certified Surgical Technologist (CST) should pass it by holding the:

117
Q

The certified surgical technologist (CST) is assisting on an open hysterectomy. Which of the following clamps will the CST have available?

118
Q

What structures are removed in a modified radical mastectomy?

A

Breast and lymph nodes

119
Q

Who is responsible to maintain all rules, regulations, and precautions regarding the use of the laser by all personnel?

A

Laser safety officer

120
Q

Retractors are used to________ the operative site.

121
Q

Which of the following anatomic structures are anastomosed during a choledochoduodenostomy?

A

Common bile duct (CBD) and duodenum

122
Q

When a CST (certified surgical technologist) performs a surgical scrub, he or she is:

A

Eliminating transfer flora

123
Q

Which of the following patients will require the use of retention sutures?

124
Q

For which surgical procedure would you not be required to have bone wax available?

A

Femoropopliteal bypass

125
Q

_______catheters are used to dilate the ureters.

126
Q

Pedicle clamps, such as the Mayo-Guyon, are found on which type of instrument tray?

A

Genitourinary

127
Q

Which of the following procedures uses closed manipulation of the bone with immobilization of a fracture?

A

CREF
CREF (Closed Reduction External Fixation) refers to closed manipulation of a fracture with immobilization.

128
Q

A(n)________hernia exists when the contents are trapped.

A

Incarcerated

129
Q

The _______ ________ is the area of the eye located in front of the iris; it contains the aqueous humor.

A

Anterior chamber

130
Q

For which surgical procedure would a Dorman stone basket, a choledochoscope, and a T-tube be used?

A

Cholecystotomy

131
Q

Which action below is not according to regular standards when an exposure incident occurs in the operative environment?

A

Wait 24 hours to assess the wound

132
Q

Which type of catheter is used for an embolectomy?

133
Q

Which of the following procedures involves anastomosis of the stomach and jejunum?

A

Billroth II

134
Q

If it is necessary to unfasten a towel clip after initial placement, the surgical technologist should:

A

Remove the field from the clip and replace it

135
Q

Who determines where the tourniquet should be placed prior to a surgical procedure on an extremity?

136
Q

When passing instruments, the certified surgical technologist (CST) should place the instrument:

A

In the position of function