Intial / Recurrent CE650 GS Flashcards

1
Q

As you are lining up on the runway for takeoff what light will be illuminated on the annunciator panel assuming everything is normal.

A

PAC HP Valve Open

Ground Idle

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2
Q

Electronic memory aid

DC _______ and AC ________

A

lies

doesn’t not share

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3
Q

how long does it take to extend the flaps from:

0 - 7

7 - 20

A

12-14 seconds

4 secsonds

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4
Q

Before starting the second engine

A

Ground Idle switch in HIGH

and

Amps less then 200

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5
Q

Min fuel

A

700 lbs, 350 in each wing

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6
Q

How many drain valves and where are they located

A

12

5 - lt

4 - Rh

3 empennage

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7
Q

if the brakes stop working on touchdown

A

recycle Anti Skid switch

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8
Q

The Ailerons are ________ boosted like power steering

The captains control wheel is connected to the ailerons via _______ The copilot is connected to the ______

A

Hydraulic

Captain - cable

Copilot - Hyd Assist (Roll Spoilers)

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9
Q

Total number of vortex generators and how many are on each wing.

How many can be missing

A

22

11

1

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10
Q

Total number of static wicks and how many can be missing

Which static wick can not be missing as per the MEL

A

23

2, not adjacent

On the singer

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11
Q

On Landing how many annunciators lights will be illuminated when TR are deployed assuming everything is normal

A

6 + 1

ARM, UNLOCK, DEPLOY

RUDDER BIAS

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12
Q

TR are to be tested ______ at a time

A

1

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13
Q

Max rev thrust is _______%

A

91%

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14
Q

All switches are ______ activated

A

DC

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15
Q

Pneumatic bleed valves are held closed, when they loose power the valves _______

A

open

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16
Q

when using pneumatic bleed air for A/I, PAC in HIGH or HP Bleed air is _________

A

prohibited

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17
Q

what 3 gauges can be seen in the left nose equipment area?

A
  • Emergency Gear and brake
  • NWS accumulator
  • W/S Alcolhol
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18
Q

Leave gen ______ for GPU starts

GPU starts count as ______ battery starts

A

OFF

0

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19
Q

How do you know if the generator field relay is open

A

Volt indicate 0

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20
Q

Landing lights may cause up to ______ of magnetic variation

A

10 deg

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21
Q

what makes up Passenger lights

A

Overhead
Reading
Footwell

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22
Q

min fuel in left tank to fill fus tank during overwing fueling

A

175 gallons - 1,100 lbs

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23
Q

Engine start can be aborted anytime by pressing the __________

A

starter disengage switch

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24
Q

Reasons to shut down engine start

A

HOT, ITT limit
HUNG, no N1 20 seconds
No light off, 10 seconds

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25
APR will increase N1 by
1%
26
the EEC requires ___V
14 - 30 V
27
The mechanical N2 governor in the FCU is at ______% N2 to provide overspeed protection
105%
28
X-gen start in flight is
inhibited
29
Landing Gear locks PAC Bleed select to
LP
30
If svc air is lost pressure in the cabin
increases
31
max alt with a hydraulic issue
45,000
32
OFV sequence after landing
60 sec 300 fpm 60 fully open
33
Flap setting for Takeoff Alt above 8,000
7
34
Engine Fuel burn both engines
10 lbs/min
35
Average taxi time and fuel burn
20 min, 200 lobs
36
Rt and LT P/S switch control
LT - P/S, AOA RT - P/S, Rudder bias
37
max quantity of w/s alcohol and time limit
2 quarts 15 min
38
roll spoilers move after _____" of control movement
3.5"
39
Vref is _____Vs0
1.3
40
N2 Lights Green Red
48 - 99.9% >99.9%
41
use_________ in the III with W/S bleed air on, on ground, due to lack of ram air
Caution
42
Actions to take if both batteries overheat
Batt sw off
43
Rotary test is required on the ________ Start with ______ to check all lights are working VII - Rotary test requires w/s heat switch to be selected ______ during Rotary w/s temp test
first flight of day ANNUN ON
44
AP basic mode consist of
Hdg select and alt hold
45
AP _____ be tested before use
must
46
if PRI Trim is INOP, AP is
Inop
47
Flap up speed
v2 + 25 Vref + 25
48
STBY GYRO switch must be _____ for automatic transfer to emergency battery pack
ON
49
Gyro slave in manual moves LH and RH at _____ per min
30 deg
50
VERT GYRO switch to FAST acts as a _______
timer for AHRS
51
Attempting to override the feedback cable "snatcher" or advance throttles prior to unlock extingushing light requires _______
Mx inspection
52
Engine start, test flood lights ________
backup, dedicated emergency, battery
53
When the aileron boost looses pressure a ______ horn will sound and the _____ trips off
warning AP
54
On A/C without INV ON/OFF switch Avionics switch turns on _____ and _____ equipment
AC and DC equipment
55
the Red gun in the display is the ________ to fail
1st
56
TFE 731, 731 means
731 lbs
57
N2 produces _______ N1 Produces ________
Power Thrust
58
engine holds _______ qts of oil oil breather closes at _________ 1 sensor for the __________ 1 sensor for the _______
11.6 27,000 - 30,000 annunciator gauge
59
APU produces ______ amps and _____ volts
150 28
60
________ batteries need to be charged at the same time
both
61
Junction box connects heaver ______amp wire to smaller _____ amp wire
365 75
62
if one batter is 24 volts and the second is 19 volts the second battery is
faulty
63
with the generators online switch the batt switch to ______ to read battery voltage from the HBB
off
64
Engine fire bottle _______ oxygen
displaces
65
smoke detector is next to the OFV where air is the ________
thickest
66
wing fuel tanks are _______ fus fuel tank is a _______
wet tanks, fuel on metal bladder
67
Fuel flow pressure to the engine is _________
1450 psi
68
wing fuel tanks are not ______
pressurized
69
fuel transfers at a rate of approx ______ lbs a min
25
70
the aft vanity FUS FUEL Transfer T handle ________ the transfer valve, pushing the handle in does NOT ______ the valve and pulling the T handle does ______ trigger the light
opens close does not
71
NWS accumulator provides
3-4 90deg turns
72
spoiler hold down accumulator _______ pressure and does ______ loose fluid
provides not
73
when does the AUX HYD PUMP turn on
Low Pressure -1200 PSI SPoiler Hold down is on
74
HYD Accumulators do what 3 things
- Store fluid under pressure - Absorb system shock - Instant Pressure Available to components
75
HYD fluid is _____ compressible
not
76
explain Venturi effect
Bernoulli's principle as fluid travels thru a smaller cross section the pressure decreases and velocity increases
77
Gen is limited to _____ amps on takeoff
365 amps
78
receiving wing tank boost pump must be ______ during fuel transfer
off
79
SPPR must be accomplished in accordance to the ______
Placard
80
red light on rotary test _______ when out of off
illuminates
81
Pri Trim may need to be ________ to for Rotary test to illuminate PRI TRIM Fail light
actuated
82
On models 0-178 with automatic transfer of Inverters The left switc" AKA Avionics Master controls the ____ components of the avionics equipment. The INV switch controls the ____ components of the avionics equipment. On Models 179 and on the Avionics Power ON switch controls both _____ and _______ components of the avionics.
DC AC DC and AC
83
All equipment on the Emergency buss will ______ if BATT switch is off due to overheat and generators are on
operate
84
The horizontal stab test will trigger the annunciator light to illuminate for _______
5 seconds
85
Flight crew non essential CB are located in the _______
J Box
86
The APU is a ______ stage turb engine the provides _______ , ______ and optional _______
single Service Air A/C Hyd
87
The APU is controlled by the _______ The APU will ______ shutdown due to failure or fire. the fie bottle will automatically discharge the fire after _____ seconds The Fire bell bell will ring ________
ESU, Elec. Seq Unit automatical 8 seconds continously
88
________TR Lights Arm - a pressure switch, indicating the isolation valve is ______ and hydraulics are _______ Unlock - a Microswitch indicating TR _____ movement Deploy - a Microswitch indicating _____ deployed No light means Hydraulic Pressure is _______ from the TR's and the TR's are stowed in position by an Over-center condition of the operating _________.
Open available Initial Fully Isolated bar mechanism
89
TR will only deploy when the following 2 conditions are met:
WOW TL in idle
90
Pneumatics: All Systems use _____ air. The PACs use ____ and ____ air.
HP HP and LP
91
III Caution when using W/S heat on ground as no _____ is mixing with HP air
Ram Air
92
W/S Bleed Air Switches control the_____ of air
volume
93
W/S defog does ____ heat the w/s
not
94
AC/DC Gen Inlet heater is _____ monitored
not
95
Cycling Engine A/I means
wingroot overheat
96
min A/S of _____kts in icing conditions to ______ icing build up on a/c
180 kts prevent
97
Throttle feed back cable holds the throttle in idle at ______ psi
600 PSI
98
A/C Dimensions and turning radius
55.2' in length 53.3 wingtip to tip 17.1' ht of empennage Min Turn Radius 33.35'
99
Green oxygen disc will rupture if the bottle is _______
overpressurized
100
Pax O2 will not flow until the _______ is pulled to conserve O2
lanyard
101
Select Pax O2 _____ to conserve O2 for the Crew
OFF
102
Mic Oxy Mask and Mic Head Set switch is located where
Lt and Rt lower inst panel
103
the walk around portable O2 is _________cb ft
11 cubic ft
104
when the aircraft is descending below 8,000' after a decompression the pax solenoid __________
closes
105
Turn IGN _____ in heavy rain as a precaution against flamout
ON
106
with WOW Stab Ht will ______ turn on
not
107
A stab on light indicates the heating element is ________ stab light cycles on/off indicates ______
Cold Overheat
108
W/S Alcohol is dispersed on the _______ window
left
109
The gear takes approximately ________ to cycle
4-6 seconds
110
main gear braking is ______. during retraction
automatic
111
the HYD dump valve is located _________ and pulling the valve relieves landing gear _______ by opening the ______ valve to release blocked fluid to return
in the aft lav Pressure
112
Do Not _______ gear after free fall
retract
113
parking brake _______ fluid return to use the parking break, if eng are off _ _ Do not set _____ hot brakes
prevents - Aux hyd pump on - pump toe brake Not
114
roll spoilers movement begins after _______ of aileron travel
3 - 3.5 deg
115
Aileron boost needs to be ________ after power interruption
reset
116
clacker sound when stab trim is moving for more then ______
1 second
117
Rudder bias provides _________ lbs of rudder pound force
125 - 150
118
NWS automatically _________ once airborne
Disengages
119
an indication of a floating spoiler is annun by________ and/or _______
spoiler up lt, speed brake lt
120
anytime a flap asym is detect the flap control will _______ the flaps
disable
121
control lock during taxi out in ________ conditions
gusty
122
when a fault in the left or right AOA probe/transmitter the ________ will illuminate
AOA prob
123
when their are faulty inputs from the Flap or spoilers to the AOA logic the __________ lt will annunciate In this cases the stick shaker will will _______ between 0.715 - 0.825 as a fail safe the AOA gauge, indexer and fast slow indicator will be _____
Flaps/Speedbrake Activate Off
124
both AOA probes have failed when the following light are illuminated
- Probe and Stall warn Lt
125
During an emergency descent with the AP engaged above 34,275 and bare above 13,500 feet the AP will? _ _ _ Turn _____ the AP to cancel the Emergency descent mode
- Pitch to maintain Vmo/Mmo - 35 deg bank left for approx 48 sec - Level at 15,000 OFF