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QATAR > Interview > Flashcards

Interview Flashcards

1
Q

Flight maneuvring load acceleration limit.
Clean configuration

A

-1g to +2.5g

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2
Q

Flight maneuvring load acceleration limit.
Other configuration

A

0g to+2g

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3
Q

Runway slope (mean)

A

+-2%

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4
Q

Maximum runway altitude

A

9200ft

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5
Q

Nominal runway width

A

45m

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6
Q

Minimal runway width

A

30m

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7
Q

Maximum crosswind TOF and LDG

Maximum demonstrated crosswind is?

A

38kt (gust included)

Not AFM imitation, it is maximum crosswind condition experienced during aircraft certification.

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8
Q

Maximum tailwind for TOF

A

10kt

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9
Q

Maximum tailwind for landing?

For landing with a tailwind greater than 10kt, use?

A

15kt

Full FLAPS only.

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10
Q

Maximum wind for passenger door operation?

A

65kt.

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11
Q

Maximum wind for FWD and AFT cargo door operation is?

A

40kt. OR 50kt, if aircraft nose is into the wind, or if FWD and AFT cargo doors are on the leeward side.

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12
Q

At which wind speed must the FWD and AFT cargo doors be closed if the wind exceeds?

A

Before wind speed exceeds 65kt.

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13
Q

RWYCC5, which states? 6
Level?

A

Damp
Frost
Wet (up to 3mm water)
Slush (up to 3mm)
Dry snow (up to 3mm)
Wet snow (up to 3mm)

Good

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14
Q

RWYCC4 which state?
Level/AIREP?

A

Compacted snow with OAT at or below -15C

Good to medium

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15
Q

Maximum crosswind RWYCC 5?

A

38kt (gust included) LDG+TOF

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16
Q

Maximum crosswind RWYCC 4?

A

29kt (gust included) LDG + TOF

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17
Q

RWYCC3, which state? 6
Level/AIREP?

A

Dry snow more than 3mm up to 100mm
Wet snow more than 3mm up to 30mm
Compacted Snow OAT above -15C
Dry snow over compacted snow
Wet snow over compacted snow
Slippery wet

MEDIUM

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18
Q

Maximum crosswind RWYCC3?

A

25kt (gust included) LDG+TOF

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19
Q

RWYCC2, which state? 2
Level/AIREP?

A

Standing water more than 3mm up to 13mm
Slush more than 3mm, up to 13mm

MEDIUM TO POOR

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20
Q

RWYCC2, maximum crosswind?

A

20kt

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21
Q

RWYCC1, which state?
Level/AIREP?

A

ICE (cold and dry)

POOR

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22
Q

RWYCC1, maximum crosswind?

A

15kt

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23
Q

¤Cockpit window open maximum speed?

A

200kt

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24
Q

Minimum and maximum pressure altitudes for TOF and landing?

A

Between -1000ft up to 9200ft.

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25
Q

Maximum operating altitude?

A

39800ft.

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26
Q

Flaps lever position 0, max speed and flight phase?

A

Max speed = VMO/MMO
Phase = Cruise

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27
Q

Flaps lever position 1, max speed and flight phase?

A

230kt = phase holding (1 displayed on slat/flap display)
215kt = phase TOF (1+F displayed on slat/flap display)

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28
Q

Flaps lever position 2, max speed and flight phase?

A

200kt
TOF/Approach

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29
Q

Flaps lever position 3, max speed and flight phase?

A

185kt
TOF/Approach/landing

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30
Q

Flaps lever position FULL, max speed and flight phase?

A

177kt
Landing

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31
Q

Maximum operating speed VMO/MMO

A

VMO = 350kt
MMO = M0.82

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32
Q

Maximum speed with landing gear extended?

A

280kt = M0.67

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33
Q

Maixmum speed at which landing gear may be extended (VLO extension)

A

250kt = M0.60

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34
Q

Maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted (VLO retraction)

A

220kt = M0.54

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35
Q

¤Maximum tire speed?

A

Maximum ground speed = 195kt

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36
Q

What is VMCL?
Minimum speed?

A

Minimum control speed for landing

109kt

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37
Q

Altitude range for VMCA and VMCG?

A

-2000 to 14100ft.

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38
Q

Minimum control speeds on narrow runways: Runways with width below X, the VMCG must be increased by:

30m

A

40m

+2.5kt

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39
Q

Minimum control speeds on narrow runways: Runways with width below X, the VMCG must be increased by:

35m

A

40m

+1.5kt

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40
Q

Minimum control speeds on narrow runways: Runways with width below X, the VMCG must be increased by:

40m

A

40m

+0kt

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41
Q

Taxi speed when TOF weight is higher than 76000kg (167550lb)

A

Do not exceed a taxi speed of 20kt during a turn.

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42
Q

¤Wipers maximum operating speed?

A

230kt. Applicable when wipers are sweeping. Not applicable if wipers are not sweeping for any reason.

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43
Q

Maximum taxi weight 1 and 2

A

73900 or 71900

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44
Q

Maximum TOW 1 and 2

A

73500 or 71500

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45
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight

A

61000

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46
Q

Maxiumum landing weight

A

64500

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47
Q

Minimum weight

A

37230

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48
Q

Passengers onboard, not recommended how many minutes without air conditioning supply?

A

20min, lack of fresh air will reduce the cabin´s air quality.

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49
Q

Why do we not use bleed air from APU BLEED and from HP air start unit at the same time?

A

To prevent any adverse effect on the bleed air system.

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50
Q

Avionics ventilation: Flight crew must limit the time the aircraft electric power supply is used as follows
OAT at or below 49C

A

No limitation

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51
Q

Avionics ventilation: Flight crew must limit the time the aircraft electric power supply is used as follows
49C < OAT < or at 55C

A

2h

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52
Q

Avionics ventilation: Flight crew must limit the time the aircraft electric power supply is used as follows
55C < OAT < or at 60C

A

1h

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53
Q

Avionics ventilation: Flight crew must limit the time the aircraft electric power supply is used as follows
60C < OAT < or at 64C

A

0.5h

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54
Q

Maximum positive differential pressure

A

9.0PSI

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55
Q

Maximum negative differential pressure

A

-1.0PSI

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56
Q

Cabin pressure, safety relief valve setting?

A

8.6PSI

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57
Q

Maxiumum cabin altitude selection?

A

14000ft

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58
Q

Max normal cabin altitude

A

8000ft

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59
Q

CAB ALT WARNING

A

9550ft +-350ft

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60
Q

Cabin pressure, when does the outflow valve close? (Altitude)

A

15000ft

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61
Q

Minimum cabin altitude selection

A

-2000ft

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62
Q

Maximum differential pressure DELTAP and safety valve setting tolerence? hpa

A

+-7Hpa (0.1psi)

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63
Q

AP limitation, TOF

A

100ft AGL and at least 5s after liftoff

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64
Q

AP limitation, F-G/S (FLS)

A

200ft AGL

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65
Q

AP limitation, FINAL APP, V/S or FPA mode

A

250ft AGL

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66
Q

AP limitation, circling

A

500ft AGL

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67
Q

AP limitation, ILS CAT1 displayed on FMA

A

160ft AGL

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68
Q

AP limitation after manual go-around

A

100ft AGL

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69
Q

AP limitation in all other phases

A

500ft AGL

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70
Q

What about AP or FD in OP DES or DES mode in approach?

A

Permitted provided if the FCU selected altitude is set to, or above, the higher of the two: MDA/MDH or 500ft AGL.

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71
Q

RNP accuracy with GPS PRIMARY
En route

A

AP on = 1NM

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72
Q

RNP accuracy with GPS PRIMARY
In terminal area

A

AP on = 0.5NM

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73
Q

RNP accuracy with GPS PRIMARY
In approach

A

AP on = 0.3NM

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74
Q

If GPS PRIMARY lost is displayed on ND and MCDU

A

Navigation accuracy remains sufficient for RNP operations provided that RNP value is checked and entered on the MCDU and HIGH ACCURACY is displayed.

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75
Q

What is the recommended lateral and vertical guidance mode for RNAV approach?

A

FLS

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76
Q

RNAV GNSS approaches lateral trajectories are based on?

A

Waypoint coordinates.

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77
Q

Minimum decision height for ILS CAT 2

A

100ft.

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78
Q

Minimum decision height CAT3 fail passive (single)

A

50ft, A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed.

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79
Q

Minimium decision height: CAT III with DH

Minimum RVR: CAT III witout DH

A

Minimum decision height = 22ft

Minimum RVR = 75m

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80
Q

CAT II and CAT III fail passive autoland are only approved in which configuration?

A

Config full

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81
Q

Autoland, Maximum headwind conditions for ILS/MLS, CAT II or CAT III, CAT I, GLS

A

30kt

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82
Q

Autoland, Maximum tailwind conditions for ILS/MLS, CAT II or CAT III, CAT I, GLS

A

10kt

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83
Q

Autoland, Maximum crosswind conditions for ILS/MLS, CAT II or CAT III, CAT I, GLS

A

20kt without automatic rollout, 15kt with automatic rollout

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84
Q

Maximum wind conditions for ILS/MLS, CAT II or CAT III, CAT I, GLS, if tower reports a surface wind beyond limitations, only what can approach can be performed?

A

Only CAT 1 without autoland.

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85
Q

Autoland is demonstrated: 4

A

Wet and dry runways
GS angle between -2.5 and -3.15 degrees
Airport elevation between -1000ft and 6500ft.
Aircraft weight below maximum landing weight

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86
Q

Automatic rollout performance is approved?

A

Dry and wet runways, contaminated runways was not demonstrated.

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87
Q

Automatic rollout with OEI or one thrust reverser inoperative, flight crew can use the remaining reverse provided that

A

No more than IDLE reverse is used, wind does not exceed the maximum wind conditions for automatic rollout

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88
Q

Is autoland in CAT 1 or better weather conditions possible when sensitive areas are not protected? 4

A

Yes, provided that airline checked the ILS beam quality and the effect of the terrain profile before runway have no adverse effect on AP/FD guidance. Effect of terrain profile within 300m before runway threshold must be evaluated.

FC is aware of LOC or G/S beam fluctuations and PF is prepared to immediatly discconect the AP and take appropriate action

At least CAT II capability is displayed on FMA and FC used CAT II/CATIII procedures

Visual references are obtained at an altitude appropriate for CAT 1 approach, if not go-around must be performed.

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89
Q

APU after three consecutive APU start attempts?

A

Must wait 60min before a new start attempt

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90
Q

APU maximum rotor speed

A

Maximum N speed = 107%

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91
Q

Maximum EGT for APU start below 35000ft

A

1090C

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92
Q

Maximum EGT for APU start above 35000ft

A

1120C

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93
Q

Maximum EGT för APU running

A

675C

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94
Q

APU start/shutdown during refueling, APU starts or shutdown are permitted with the following restrictions

A

If APU failed to start or automatic APU shutdown, do not start the APU

If a fuel spill occurs, perform a normal APU shutdown

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95
Q

APU BLEED:

Max altitude to assist engine start?

Max altitude for air conditioning and pressurization?

A

20000ft

22500ft (single pack operation)
15000ft (dual pack operation)

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96
Q

What about APU bleed air for wing anti-ice?

A

Use of APU bleed air for wing anti-ice is not permitted.

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97
Q

Maximum TOGA time and EGT limit for takeoff and go around (TOGA, FLEX and derate) (both engines/one engine)

A

All engines operative = 5 minutes, EGT 635 degrees
One engine inoperative = 10min, EGT 635 degrees

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98
Q

Thrust setting and EGT limit, starting on ground and in flight

A

EGT = 635 degrees

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99
Q

Thrust setting and EGT limit for MCT

A

Not limited, EGT 610 degrees

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100
Q

Maximum shaft speeds: N1
Depends on?

A

100%

Ambient conditions and on configuration of the engine air bleed. These parameters may limit N1 to a value that is less than above-mentioned N1 value

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101
Q

Maximum shaft speeds: N2

A

100%

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102
Q

What is N1 and N2?

A

Express the rotaional speed of turbine engines as a percentage of the maximum normal operating RPM.

N1 is the speed of the low pressure spool and serves as the primary power setting, N2 is the speed of the high pressure spool which indicates if aircraft systems have sufficient power.

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103
Q

Maximum continuous oil temperature

Maximum transient oil temperature (15min)

A

155C

165C

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104
Q

Minimum starting oil temperature

A

-40C

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105
Q

Minimum oil temperature before IDLE is exceeded

A

-10C

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106
Q

Minimum oil temperature before takeoff

A

50C

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107
Q

Minimum oil quantitiy

A

11qt + estimated consumption (average is 0.3qt/h)

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108
Q

Minimum oil pressure

A

60PSI

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109
Q

Ground start of engines (automatic or manual), how much pause is required between successive cycles?

A

15s

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110
Q

How long is required to wait in case of how many failed cycles of engine start?

A

30min cooling period required to three failed cycles, or 4min of continous crank, or
5min cumulated crank.

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111
Q

For manual start, do not exceed the XX maximum cycle time?

A

2 minutes.

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112
Q

The starter must not be run on which N2? Ground and in-flight

A

When N2 is above 10% on-ground and 18% in flight.

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113
Q

Maximum reverse should not be used below?
Idle reverse is permitted down to?

A

70kt.
Aircraft stop.

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114
Q

When is FLEX takeoff (reduced thrust takeoff) not permitted?

A

On contaminated runways.

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115
Q

TFLEX (temperature flex), limitations, it can not be? 3

A

Higher than TMAXFLEX = ISA + 55 degrees
Lower than the flat temperature (TREF)
Lower than the actual OAT

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116
Q

The use of derated takeoff is permitted regardless of?

What is prohibited?

A

Runway condition (dry, wet or contaminated)
We do not have it.

Selection of TOGA is not permitted when a derated takeoff is performed.

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117
Q

Crosswind operation on ground, engines start limitation?

A

Able to start in crosswind up to 35kt.

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118
Q

¤Minimum fuel temperature for JET A1

A

-43C

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119
Q

¤Maximum fuel temperature for JET A1

A

54C

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120
Q

Minimum JET A temperature?

A

-36C

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121
Q

Maximum fuel temperature for JET A?

A

54C

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122
Q

Minimum fuel temperature for JET B?

A

-46C

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123
Q

Maximum fuel temperature for JET B?

A

49C

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124
Q

Fuel temperature limits when JP4 and JETB fuels are used.
If wing fuel temperature exceeds? 30/40/49

Why?

A

30 degrees at engine start, the altitude must be limited to 35000ft until the center tank is empty.

40 degrees at engine start, the altitude must be limited to 30000ft until center tank is empty.

49 degrees at engine start, the altitude must be limited to 25000ft until the center tank is empty.

At high altitude with high fuel temperature, the pressure supplied by the center tank pumps becomes lower than the pressure supplied by the wing tank pumps.

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125
Q

Fuel imbalance at takeoff
Inner tanks (outer tanks balanced)
Full/3000kg/1450kg

A

Full = 500kg maximum asymmetry
3000kg (tank fuel quantity, heavier tank) = 1050kg maximum asymmetry
1450kg = (tank fuel quantity, heavier tank) 1450kg maximum asymmetry

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126
Q

Fuel imbalance at takeoff
Outer tanks (inner tanks balanced)

A

370kg maximum asymmetry

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127
Q

Fuel imbalance in flight and at landing
Inner tanks (outer tanks balanced)
Full/4300kg/2250kg

A

Full = 1500kg maximum asymmetry
4300kg (tank fuel quantity, heavier tank) = 1600kg maximum asymmetry
2250kg (tank fuel quantity, heavier tank)= 2250kg maximum asymmetry

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128
Q

Fuel imbalance in flight and at landing
Outer tanks (Inner tanks balanced)

A

690kg maximum asymmetry

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129
Q

Minimum fuel quantity for TOF

A

1500kg.
ECAM FUEL WING TK LO LVL etc must not appear for takeoff.

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130
Q

Icing conditions exist when?

A

OAT on ground or after takeoff or the TAT in flight is at or below 10 degrees and visible moisture in any form is present (clouds, fog with visibility of 1sm (1600m) or less, rain, snow, ice crystals)

Also exist when OAT on ground and for takeoff is at or below 10C and operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, standing water or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacalles or engine sensor probes.

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131
Q

Definition of severe ice accretion

A

Ice accumulation on the airframe reaches approximately 5mm thick or more.

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132
Q

Definition of thin hoarfrost

A

White crystalline deposit which usually developt on exposed surfaces on cold and cloudless nights. Very thin = lines or markings can be distinguished beneath it.

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133
Q

Maximum brake temperature for TOF? (brake fans off)

A

300C

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134
Q

NWS maximum angle?

A

+-85 degrees.

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135
Q

¤Taxi with deflated or damages tires. To vacate the runway or taxi at low speed with tire(s) deflated (not damaged), all of the following limitations apply:

If maximum one tire per gear is deflated (consider three gears), maximum taxi speed during turn

A

7kt.

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136
Q

¤Taxi with deflated or damages tires. To vacate the runway or taxi at low speed with tire(s) deflated (not damaged), all of the following limitations apply:

If two tires are deflated on the same main gear (maximum one main gear), maximum taxi speed during turn

A

3kt

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137
Q

Taxi with deflated or damages tires. To vacate the runway or taxi at low speed with tire(s) deflated (not damaged), all of the following limitations apply:

For NSW angle

A

Maximum 30 degrees.

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138
Q

If tire damage is suspected, the FC must?

A

Ask for aircraft inspection prior to vacate the runway or taxi. If ground crew suspects that a tire burst may damage the LDG gear, maintanence action is due.

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139
Q

Ground alignment of the IRS is possible in latitudes between?

A

73 degrees north and 73 degrees south.

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140
Q

If all ADIRUs have the same magnetic variation table, In NAV mode, the IR will not provide valid magnetic heading and magnetic track angle

A

North of 73 degrees north and south of 60 degrees south
Flying at latitudes beyond these limits are prohibited

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141
Q

Minimum bottle pressure for crew oxygen needs to cover

Most demanding case among the following: 3

A

Preflight checks, use of oxygen when only one FC member is in the cockpit, unusable quantity (to ensure regulator operation with minimum pressure), normal system leakage

The most demanding case among the following: Protection after loss of cabin pressure, with mask regulator on NORMAL:
- During emergency descent for all FC members and observers for 13min
- During cruise at FL100 for two flight crew members for 107min.
- Protection against smoke with 100% oxygen for all FC members and observers during 15min at 8000ft cabin altitude

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142
Q

GWPS functions should be inhibited = TERR pushbutton to OFF, on the GPWS panel when aircraft position is?

A

Less than 15NM from the airfield and operations form/to runways not incorporated in the GPWS database and for specific approach or departure procedures, whhich have previously been intentified by the operator as potentially causing expected or spurious terrain alters. Decision to inhibit predictive GPWS functions must not be based on flight crew judgment only.

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143
Q

¤Describe the WIPERS

A

Electrical wipers with two speeds (SLOW/FAST). Rotary selector controls each wiper.

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144
Q

¤What is QFE?

A

Mean sea level pressure corrected for temperature. When this is set on your altimeter, it will read your height not altitude. It will read zero at airfield elevation and after TOF it will read your height above that specific airfield.

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145
Q

¤What is QNH?

A

Pressure measured at station when reduced down to mean sea level pressure. When you set this on your altimeter, it will read your altitude. It is the lowest forecast pressure at mean sea level for a given day to ensure that safe terrain seperation is maintained regardless of the days variation in pressure.

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146
Q

¤How to convert QNH to QFE?

A

Divide airfireld altitude in feet by 30 to get the number of millibars above MSL. Add this to QFE to get QNH or subtract it from QNH to get QFE.

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147
Q

¤What about brake fans during taxi out?

A

If an arc is displayed on the ECAM WHEEL page, above the brake temperature (indicating a brake temperature > 100 degrees, select brake fans ON. This will ensure MAX energy rejected TOF will be sustained, the brake temperature for taxi will be in appropriate areas.

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148
Q

¤What about brake fans before take off?

A

If they are running, check brake temperature is below 150C. If temperature is above 150 degrees, delay takeoff until 150C is reached with fans running then switch them off.

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149
Q

What about brake fans after landing?

A

Should be delayed for a minimum of about 5 minutes or at the gate (whichever occurs first). The arc displayed on ECAM WHEEL page, suggesting the selection of brake fans at taxi out should be ignored for taxi in. Also, even if we get BRAKE HOT after landing should not lead to immediate selection of brake fans as long as 500 degrees is not likely to be reached.

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150
Q

¤When do you use pack flow LO on A320?

A

When passangers is BELOW 141.

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151
Q

¤What about the engine fire pushbuttons on tailpipe fire?

A

Do not press the engine fire pushbuttons, this would cut of the FADEC power supply which would prevent motoring sequence.

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152
Q

How long is the A320? Tail to nose

A

37,57m

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153
Q

How long is the A320 wingtip to wingtip

A

35.80m.

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154
Q

Unpressurized compartments on A320? 4

A

Nose gear bay, air condition compartment, main gear bay, tailcone.

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155
Q

¤Which circuit brakers/computers can not be reset under any circumstances?

A

ECU (engine control unit CFM), EEC (Electronic engine control IAE) and EIU (engine interface unit) while the engine is running. You can only do it when both engines are shut down.

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156
Q

¤What about reset on BSCU?

A

BSCU (Brake steering control unit) should not be resetted if aircraft is not stopped.

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157
Q

What about resets during flight?

A

In flight the crew must restrict computer resets to those listed in the table or applicable TRs or OEBs.

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158
Q

¤What about reset on SFCC? Ground and flight

A

In flight: Do not pull SFCC (could lead to SLATS/FLAPS locked) in flight.
On ground: Okay but hydraulic must be depressurized.

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159
Q

To perform a coumpter reset, how do you do? Cockpit control 4

A

Associated CKPT CTL = OFF
Wait 3s
Associated CKPT CTL = ON
Wait 3s
Record in Logbook even if not successful

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160
Q

To perform a coumpter reset, how do you do? C/B 5

A

Associated C/B = CROSSCHECK (PF and PM)
Associated C/B = PULL
Wait 5s
Associated C/B = PUSH
Wait 3s
Record in Logbook even if not successful

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161
Q

How many types of CBs do we have?

A

Two types, Monitored (green) = when out for more than 1 minute, the C/B tripped warning is triggered on ECAM = monitored by ECAM

Non-monitored (black).

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162
Q

¤What about the wing tip brake (WTB) C/Bs?

A

They have red caps to prevent them from being reset = we can not.

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163
Q

Who has prority over each other (generators)?

A

GEN 1 and GEN 2 has priority over APU generator and external power. External power has priority over the APU generator when EXT PWR pb is on.

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164
Q

One engine generator can supply?

A

Entire network, except the DC bus entartainment. You need two generators to supply the DC bus entariment except on ground if APU generator or the external power is sufficient.

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165
Q

¤What about C/B reset on ground about fuel tank?

A

Not permitted.

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166
Q

¤What about reset of FAC during flight?

A

Never in the air. Engines off, parking brake on and then.

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167
Q

How is air supplied by the pneumatic system in the aircraft?

A

Via two pack flow control valves, two packs, the mixing unit which mixes the air that comes form the packs and the cabin. Air is then distrubated to the trim air valves which takes help from the hot air valve and then to the cockpit and the cabin.

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168
Q

What does the RAM air provide during emergency?

What about outflow valve when RAM pressed?

If DELTAP is above 1PSI?

A

Ram air inlet can provide ambient air to the mixing unit. It ventilates the cockpit and cabin to remove smoke, if both packs fail. The pushbutton opens the ram air valve, provided ditching is not selected.

Outflow valve opens about 50% provided it is under automatic control and DELTAP is less than 1PSI.

Check valve located downstream the ram air door will not open = No airflow will then be supplied. The outflow valve control remains normal and no emergency raim air flows in.

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169
Q

How is tempertature regulation optimized?

A

Via the hot air pressure regulating valve and the trim air valves that add hot air, from the air coming from the mixing unit.

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170
Q

Temperature control panel is also available on the FAP, how much can they adjust it with?

A

During cruise can modify each cabin zone temperature that is selected from the cockpit with +-2.5 degrees.

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171
Q

How does the packs work? 5 steps

A

Automatically and independently of each other.

  1. Warm pre-conditioned bleed air enters the cooling path via the pack flow control valve and is transfered to the primary heat exchanger.
  2. Then the cooled bleed air enters the compressor section of the air-cycle machine and is compressed to a higher pressure and temperature.
  3. It is cooled again in the main heat exchangers and enters the turbine section where it expands and in expanding generates power to drive the compressor and cooling air fan.
  4. The removal of energy during this process reduce air temperature, resulting in very low air temperature at turbine discharge.
  5. From here the air goes do the mixing unit and then to the trim air valves and then distrubuted to the cabin and cockpit.
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172
Q

How is the Hot-air pressure regulating valve operated and controlled? What regulates it?

When does it close? 3

Remains operative?

A

Pneumatically operated and electrically controlled. ACSC1 regulate this valve.

Valve closes automatically if both ACSC1 or ACSC2 fail, or the duct overheats or at least two trim air valves fail.

Remains operative even if either the forward or aft cabin trim air valve fails.

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173
Q

The system that controls the cockpit and cabin trim air valves are controlled by?

How is trim air valves controlled? 2

The zone controller or the ACSC optimizes temperature by?

A

Cockpit by ACSC1 and cabin by ACSC2.

Electrically controlled by the zone controllers or the ACSC.

Acting on the trim air valves.

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174
Q

The actual temperature is measured by? Cockpit/cabin/lavatory

A

Sensors, in the cockpit for cockpit zone and in the lavatory extraction circuit and galley ventilation system for the cabin.

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175
Q

What is the temperature selection range?

A

From 18C to 30C, you have 18, 24 and 30.

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176
Q

When does the ram air inlet flap closes? TOF + landing

A

TOF = when TOF power is set and the main landing gear struts are compressed.

Landing = As soon as the landing gear struts are compressed as long as the speed is at or above 70kt. Opens 20s after the speed drops below 70kt.

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177
Q

Pack flow selector (LO/HIGH), whatever we select, the system delivers higher flow for any of the following circumstances: 2

A

Single pack operation or APU is supplying bleed air.

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178
Q

If hot air pressure regulating valve failes? Open/closed position

FAULT on overhead?

A

Failed open = no effect.
Failed closed = Optimized regulation is lost. Trim air valves are drived to fully closed position. Which means if hot air valve close, the trim air valves close. Pack 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the selected value and pack 2 controls the cabin temperature to the mean value of the selected temperatures.

When duct overheat is detected.

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179
Q

If trim air valve failes?

A

Optimized temperature regulation to the corresponding zone is lost. The temperature is fixed.

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180
Q

How many cabin fans do we have?

A

Two. They circulate the air in the cabin.

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181
Q

Cabin pressurization system = outflow valve has four general functions?

A

Ground function = Fully opens the outflow valve on ground

Prepressurization = During takeoff, increases cabin pressure to avoid surge in cabin pressure during rotation

Pressurization in flight = Adjust the cabin altitude, and rate of change to provide passengers with a comfortable flight.

Depressurization = After touchdown, gradually releases the residual cabin overpressure before theground function fully opens the outflow valve.

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182
Q

Normaly what operates the outflow valve?

A

One of the two cabin pressure controllers CPCs operates the outflow valve.

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183
Q

What does the air pressure in the cabin get signals from?

A

From the FMGC. If it fails and not available for automatic pressurization, the crew only needs to sleect the landing field elevation.

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184
Q

Which three different modes do we have for cabin pressurization?

A

Automatic mode (normal), semi automatic mode or manual mode (manual motor of the outflow valve used).

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185
Q

What is Cabin pressure controllers CPCs?

Where does it receive signals from? 4

When does automatic transfer occurs?

How can we switch between the two CPCs?

It takes landing elevation, QNH and pressure altitude from?

If FMGC not available?

A

Two identical, independent, automatically controls the system by maintaining proper cabin pressure.

ADIRS, FMGC, EIU (engine interface unit) and LGCIU.

70s after each landing, or if the operating system fails.

Set MODE SEL pb to MAN, for at least 10s, then returning it to AUTO will select the other system.

It uses landing elevation and QNH from FMGC and the pressure altitude from ADIRS.

Captains BARO reference from the ADIRS and the manual LDG ELEV selection

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186
Q

Function of the safety valves?

On which PSI do they operate? 2

A

Two independent pneumatic valves prevent cabin pressure from going too high.

(8.6PSI above ambient) or too low (1 PSI below ambient).

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187
Q

Which 6 phases do the CPCs have?

A

Ground, takeoff, climb, cruise, descend, abort

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188
Q

Ground phase of the CPC?

A

Before takeoff and 55s after landing, outflow valve fully opens to ensure there is no residual cabin pressure. At touchdown, any remaining cabin pressure is released at a cabin vertical speed of 500ft/min.

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189
Q

Cruise phase of CPC?

A

Controller maintains cabin altitude at the level-off value or at the landing field elevation, whichever is higher. but still limited to maximum 8000ft.

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190
Q

Desend phase of CPC?

MAXIMUM DESCENT RATE?

A

Maintains a cabin rate of descent such that cabin pressure is equal to the landing field pressure +0.1PSI, shortly before landing.

Maximum is 750ft/min.

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191
Q

Abort phase of CPC?

A

If aircraft does not climb after takeoff, the abort mode prevents the cabin altitude from climbing. Cabin pressure is set back to takeoff altitude +0.1 PSI.

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192
Q

If we press DITCHING pushbutton to ON, what will it send signals to? 4

What about the outflow valve? Automatic/manual mode

A

Send close signal to outflow valve, emergency ram air inlet, avionics ventilation, pack flow control valves.

IF outflow valve in manual control, it will not close automatically even if ditching is pressed.

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193
Q

When does the cabin vertical speed flashes?

A

Flashes if it reaches 1750ft/min, stop flashes when returning below 1650ft/min.

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194
Q

WHen is delta P out of normal ranges?

A

Below or at -0.4PSI or above or at 8.5PSI.

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195
Q

When does the cabin altitude flashes?

A

Reaches 8800ft and stop flashing below 8600ft.

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196
Q

What divides the 10 flight phases and what are they? 11

A

FWC.

  1. ELEC PWR
  2. 1st Engine started
  3. 1st engine to power
  4. 80kt
  5. Liftoff
  6. 1500ft
  7. 800ft
    8 Touchdown
  8. 80kt
  9. 2nd ENG shutdown
  10. 5MN after.
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197
Q

During which flight phases is the TO inhibit on ECAM?

During which flight phases is LDG inhibit on ECAM?

A

Flight phase 3,4 and 5.

Phase 7 and 8

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198
Q

Ventilation system includes ventilation for? 3

A

Avionics, batteries, lavatories and galleys.

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199
Q

What is the normal open ventilation circuit?

A

Open-circuit configuration, operates when avionics duct temperature is equal or above 40C, throttle not at TO and aircraft on ground. Air comes in from skin air inlet valve, passes through filter and then blower fan, continue to avionics equipment, to the extract fan and out from skin air outlet valve.

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200
Q

What is normal close circuit ventilation?

A

In flight = Operates when skin temperature is below the in-flight threshold which is +35C temperature increasing or +32C temperature decreasing.

On ground = when avinoic duct temperature is below 40C. Skin Air inlet and outlet valves are closed. The air circulates and air is added from the avionic bay and the cargo underfloor instead.

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201
Q

How is the batteries ventilated?

A

Venturi in the skin of the aircraft draws air from the space around the batteries and vents it overboard. Resulting airflow ventilates the batteries.

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202
Q

¤ During preperation why do we check TCAS on STBY?
When do you put TCAS to TA/RA?

A

To prevent possible interferance to radar surveillance system

It should not be selected before the holding point/lining up.

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203
Q

¤Why do you put TCAS TA/RA at line up/takeoff?

What about taking off with TA only?

A

TA/RA mode is the default mode of the TCAS. Too see other traffic and be visible for other traffic.

We can depart with TA only in specific airports, and for specific procedures that may provide false resolution advisories. We turn it to TA/RA at the acceleration flow pattern after TOF.

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204
Q

¤Why do you need to press the battery PB during cockpit preperation? This ensures?

What if the voltage is at or below 25.5V?

A

We check that the voltage is above 25.5V, this ensures a charge above 50%.

A charging cycle of 20min is required. BAT1 and BAT2 auto, EXT PWR = on, check on ELEC SD page that the battery contactor is closed and the batteries are charging. After 20min = BAT1 and BAT2 off, BAT 1 and BAT2 voltage check above 25.5V, BAT1 and BAT2 auto.

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205
Q

During safety exterior inspection, before we enter the aircraft, we check three things which are?

What if any of the landing gear doors are open?

A

Wheel chocks, landing gear doors = check pisition, APU area = check.

Do not pressurize the hydraulic systems until clearence is obtained from ground personnel.

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206
Q

Can we start the APU on batteries? How much do we wait?

A

Yes, it should be started 30min after the selection of batteries to AUTO.

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207
Q

35min after the batteries has been selected to auto, the battery charge is?

A

Less than 25% of maximum capacity.

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208
Q

What is important if we are going to use HF?

A

DO not transmit on HF during refueling operations and only perform HF radio checks when appropriate (no personeel in the immediate vicinity).

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209
Q

What happens if we press the APU FIRE test pb for more than 3s?

A

Automatic shutdown of the APU and the discharge of the APU fire extinguisher bottle may occur.

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210
Q

EXT PWR light is on and we are going to start the APU.
If the aircraft was previously unpowered, wait at least how many seconds before selecting APU MASTER SW to on?

How many seconds after the APU MASTER sw it turned on, before we press the APU START button?

A

70s.

3s.

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211
Q

What does FCOM say about using APU and GPU in general?

What about in extremely hot conditions?

A

Not recommended.

In extremly hot conditions (OAT>36C) when APU can provide more cool air when GPU provides electrical power.

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212
Q

What should we think about before pressing the APU BLEED PB?

A

Do not use it if ground personnel confirms that a LP or HP ground air unit is connected to the aircraft. We can also ocnfirm it on the BLEED SD page, if there is pressure in the bleed system.

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213
Q

When we switch the IRs to NAV, what spurious alerts can we get?

A

AUTO FLT RUD TRV LIM SYS associated with CAT2/CAT3/CAT 3 DUAL inop systems or COM SATCOM FAULT.

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214
Q

When must a complete IRS aligment be performed? 5

A
  1. Before the first flight of the day or
  2. Crew change or
  3. When departure airport is located between latitudes 2 degrees north and 2 degrees south or
  4. GPS is not available and the NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route or
  5. GPS is not available and the expected flight time is more than 3h.
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215
Q

A fast IRS alignment must be performed when?

Condition to perform an fast alignment?

A

If a complete IRS alignment is not necessary and the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position is at or above 5NM.

Aircraft must be stopped on ground. Any aircraft movement will automatically restart the IRS alignment. Do not align IRS during engine start, or while the engines are running.

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216
Q

In which conditions do we check the taxi time in for the previous aircraft in the logbook and why?

A

Icing conditions with OAT at +3C or below, this time will be used to determine the remaing taxi-out time before the next engine acceleration for ice shedding.

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217
Q

When can the aircraft acceptance be done latest?

A

Must be completed at the end of the cockpit preperation.

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218
Q

When do we check the OXY pressure in the limitations?

A

IF the OXY pressure is half boxed in amber in the DOOR SD page.

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219
Q

HYD SD page, what about the volume of the hydraulic fluid in the reservoirs?

A

May change to environmetal conditions. If OAT is above 20C, a fliud level above the normal range (up to half of the normal range) is acceptable.

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220
Q

What about when we check the ACCU PRESS indicator?

How do we recharge it?

A

Check it is in the green band.

If required use the electric pump on yellow hydraulic system to recharge the brake accumulator.

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221
Q

When should we avoid of using the parking brake?

A

When one brake is above 500 degrees, or 350 degrees with brake fans ON.

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222
Q

EMER EQPT what do we check? 8

A

Life vests stowed
Crash axe stowed
PBE is stowed and ready for use
Portable fire extinguisher is lockwired and pressure gauge within the green area
Smoke goggles are stowed
Oxygen masks are stowed
Flashlights are stowed
Escape ropes stowed

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223
Q

Limitation on RAIN RPLNT:
When to not use it? 2

When to use it?

When is the RAIN RPLNT pushbutton inhibited?

A

Never use rain repellent to wash the windshield and never use it on a dry windshield.

Use only in case of moderate to heavy rain.

When aircraft on ground, engines off.

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224
Q

Why must the parking brake be ON during walkaround?

A

Must be set to ON to enable the flight crew to check brake wear indicators.

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225
Q

RCDR GND CTL pushbutton ON, important to not to forget what before performing the test?

CVR 30min model?

CVR 120min model?

A

In order to perform the test, ensure that the PRK BRK is on.

Contineous tone or short tone.

A short tone, or short tone and a beep every 4s, or two short tones and a beep every 4s.

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226
Q

After walkaround, we press the ELEC pb on SD and check what?

A

BAT 1 and BAT 2 to off then auto. 10s after auto, check the ELEC SD page that the current charge of the battery is below 60A, and is decreasing. If the charge of at least one battery is not below 60A, wait until the end of the charging cycle of the batteries and perform this check again.

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227
Q

We check ISIS, what about flags?
We check the clock, what is the time precision requirement?

A

Check no flags, reset attitude if necessary.

+/- 1s UTC, to comply with this precision for ATC datalink communication, the flight crew must either use the clock in GPS mode or use the clock INT mode and synchronize the clock with the GPS at least one time per day. This ensures that the UTC time drift is below +/- 1s UTC.

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228
Q

If brakes are hot and chocks are in place, what about the PRK BRK handle?

A

OFF. Releasing the parking prevents the critical structures from being exposed to high temperature levels for an extended time.

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228
Q

What is required for RVSM operations? 6

For RVSM operations, which ATC system do we select?

During flight level transitions, do not exceed or go below assigned flight level by more than?

At FL200, when doing RVSM check, maximum difference between PFDs and standby altimeter?

A

2 ADR
2 PFD functions
1 transponder
1 AP
1 FCU channel (open climb/open descend)
1 FWC

SYS1 if AP1 is used, SYS2 if AP2 is used.

150ft.

PFDs = 90ft. Standby and PFD = 295ft

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229
Q

At electrical power-up, the FMGSs and FCU run through various internal tests. Allow how much time before starting pushing pushbuttons until the test is over?

A

3 min for test completion.

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230
Q

Do not press any MCDU key until?

A

Until the message PLEASE WAIT dissapears from the MCDU.

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231
Q

ADIRS position initilization = as appropriate, initialization of the IRS is?

The position for the initialization of the IRS is the?

A

Automatic.

GPS position. If IRS alignment based on GPS position not availble = apply the manual position initialization procedure.

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232
Q

How are the green dot, F, S, VLS speeds calculated on the PERF page on FMGC?

A

Computed from the ZFW and ZFWCG entered by the crew on the MCDU. Therefore, this data must be carefully checked (CPTs responsibility).

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233
Q

When do we insert THS on PERF beside flaps setting and why do we do?

A

THS until the laodsheet is received. When entered in the MCDU, the THS value will be used to trigger the F/CTL PITCH TRIM/MCDU/CG disagree alert.

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234
Q

What is the maximum QNH you can set on destination QNH or FCU?

A

1050HPA.

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235
Q

EFB/MCDU green dot compare, why can we have discrepency?

A

Indicates in the TOW used in both systems (EFB/FMGS).

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236
Q

On ground, maximum difference between both PFDs?
ISIS and PFDs?
Mechanical standby altimeter and PFD?

A

+-20ft between both PFD
+-100ft between ISIS and PFDs
+-300ft between mechanical standby altimeter and PFDs.

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237
Q

What about engaging A/THR on ground?

A

Do not do it, it may generate the AUTO FLT A/THR OFF warning at engine start.

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238
Q

After the oxygen masks are tested, what should we do? Why?

A

On the ECAM DOOR/OXY SD page, check amber REGUL LO PR indication is not displayed. It ensures that the LP valve is open.

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239
Q

NW STRG DISC memo check displayed, the nosewheel steering selector must be in?

If ECAM does not display this memo but ground crew confirms that the tow pin is in towing position?

A

In the tow position. NW STRG DISC memo on the ECAM indicates this position.

Do not start the engines during pushback in order to avoid possible damage to the nose landing gear upon yellow hydraulic pressurization.

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240
Q

Why do we start the engine 2 first?

When do we start an engine?

A

To power the yellow hydraliuc system, that pressurizes the parking brake.

After all amber crosses (except N1 and N2) and messages have disappeared on the engine parameters (upper ECAM display) and ENG SD page.

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241
Q

During engine start if the electrical power is interrupted during the start sequence, how is it indicated? What should we do?
If FADEC indicates hung start or hot start?

A

Loss of ECAM DUs. We should abort the start by setting the ENG MASTER to OFF, then perform a 30s dry crank.

Applies an automatic recovery sequence without ECAM message. It is not necessary for the crew to shut down the engine.

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242
Q

Whart do we check when we started the engine and idle is reached = AVAIL indication displayed. 5

A

EPR about 1.01
N1 about 21.4%
N2 about 57.8%
EGT aboout 414C
FF about 350kg/h

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243
Q

When is the HYD PTU FAULT allert triggered?

A

If the last engine is started withing 40s following the end of the cargo doors operation.

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244
Q

When do we set the ENG ANTI ice PB to on?

How is the engine anti ice valves operated?

What if we set ENG ANTI ICE pb-sw to ON and the valves do not open (fault light/s remains on)

What about IGNITION memo?

A

During all ground operations, when icing conditions exist or are anticipated.

Pneumatically/by pressure from the thrust.

Increase the N2 of the associated engine by 5%. When valves are open, retard the thrust levers to IDLE.

If ENG ANTI ICE pb-sw is set to ON, IGNITION memo appers on the ECAM because continuous ignition is automatically selected.

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245
Q

We press the RUD TRIM reset pb on ground, after the reset the flight crew may observe?

A

An indication of up to 0.3 degrees L or R in the RUD TRIM position indication.

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246
Q

Taxi flow PM, we check the ENG mode selector, when do we set to IGN? 2

A

If heavy rain or severe turbulence is expected after takeoff.

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247
Q

PACKs off is the the standard setting for takeoff, why?

A

Improve performance when using TOGA thrust.

In case of FLEX takeoff, selecting packs OFF or APU BLEED ON will reduce takeoff EGT and thus reduce maintanence costs.

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248
Q

On runway, we say READY, it means? 3

A

RWY and departure area has been checked for being free
WX radar display has been checked
Airborne frequency is prepared in STBY window if known.

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249
Q

During takeoff, what about the sidestick?

A

If crosswind at or below 20kt and no tailwind = half forward. Apply it until the airspeed reaches 80kt and release gradually to reach neutral at 100kt to counter nose-up effect.

In case of tailwind or if the crosswind is above 20kt = sidestick full forward. Increase thrust levers progressively to reach takeoff thrust by 40kt ground speed.

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250
Q

What happens with the SD pages when we advance thrust to FLX or TOGA?

A

ENG SD page replaces WHEEL SD page on the ECAM lower display.

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251
Q

During TOF, at which wheel speed is the connection between NSW and rudder pedals removed?

A

130kt.

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252
Q

When we advance thrust leverts to FLX/TOGA, what do we check and say?

A

Check actual N1/EPR of the individual enginees has reaches the N1/EPR rating limit before aircraft reaches 80kt and check EGT. Then announce THRUST SET.

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253
Q

How about the rotation?

A

Achiev continious rotation with a rate of 3 degrees/s towards a pitch attitude of 15 degrees.

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254
Q

What would happen if we select the packs on before reducing takeoff thrust?

A

Result in an EGT increase.

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255
Q

OPT FL is a function of?
Displayed REC MAX FL gives the aircraft at least? If we enter cruize level above this value?

A

Of the cost index.

At least 0.3g buffet margin. We can, FMGC will accept it provided that it does not exceed the level at which the margin is reduced to 0.2g.

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256
Q

Why is the green hydraulic system level lower on air than on ground?

A

Because of the landing gear retraction.

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257
Q

When overflying a waypoint or at least every 30min check fuel.
Check that the sum of the fuel on board and the fuel used is consistent with the fuel onboard the departure:
- If the value is abnormally negative =
- If the value is abnormally positive =

A

Suspect a fuel leak.
Suspect a fuel quantity overread.

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258
Q

What is the standard thrust reverser setting for landing?

What about on DRY and WET runways?

A

Reverse MAX.

Dry = we may use IDLE.
Wet = select IDLE only if all the following conditions are satisfied: Landing distance assessment has been made with the following parameters = MEDIUM TO POOR landing performance level for the in-flight landing distance computation, no reverser credit and the result of the landing distance assessment is within the DA.

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259
Q

If the wind is gusty, let´s say 35020G35, we only insert 350/20 on the PERF page for landing, what happens with the gust?

A

During approach, the GS mini function in MANAGED speed mode takes into account the gust.

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260
Q

When is the GS mini function active? 2

What is it?

What is the minimum energy level?

A

Speed is managed and FMS flight phase is the approach phase.

It takes advantage of aircraft intertia when wind varies during approach to provide an appropriate indicated target speed. When we fly this speed = the energy of the aircraft is maintained above a minimum level that ensures standard aerodynamic margins versus the stall.

Energy level the aircraft will have at touchdown with an indicated speed equal to VAPP, and with the wind equal to the tower reported wind as inserted in the PERF APPR page. The ground speed then equals to ground speed mini. During approach, FMGC computes the managed target speed in order to keep the ground speed at or above the gorund speed mini.

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261
Q

GS MINI, managed target computation? 3

VAPP computation, is the highest of?

A

It uses the tower headwind component, the current headwind component and the VAPP.

Tower headwind component = Avarage wind provided by ATIS and the value we enter in PERF APPR page.

Current headwind = Current wind measured by the ADIRS on the aircraft longitudinal axis.

VAPP computation = FMS computed the VAPP and displays it on the PERF APPR page. It takes into account the tower headwind component.

VAPP = VLS + 1/3 x twr headwind component or VAPP = VLS + 5kt. NOTE: 1/3 of the twr reported headwind has 2 limits = 0kt as the minimum value (no wind or tailwind) and+15lt as the maximum value.

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262
Q

CONF 3, what should we keep in mind?

When is landing with CONF 3 recommended?

Not recommended?

A

Additional/planning in order to meet company stabilization criteria and longer LDR (less drag, higher pitch + higher touchdown speed).

Conditions of windshear.

In turbulence that is not associated with windshear (no significant change of wind direction or speed during the approach, thermals) or tailwind exists or is anticipated on the approach.

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263
Q

What about engine anti-ice during climb and descend?

What should we think about when we use either wing or engine anti ice during descend?

A

Climb = up to SAT -40C.
Descend = even if SAT below -40C, it must be on.

It reduces the descent path angle when the engines are at IDLE. We can compensate for this by incresing the descend speed or by extending up to half speedbrakes.

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264
Q

When should we not use the TERR on ND?

A

If NAV ACCURACY is low, it can show us false indications.

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265
Q

If the predicted tailwind at landing is greater than 10kt, what is not permitted?

A

Decelerated approach is not permitted, and the aircraft speed should be stabilizes at around VREF + 5kt in final.

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266
Q

When should flaps 1 be selected?
Flaps 2?

A

More than 3NM before the final descent point.
At 2000ft AGL minimum and one dot below.

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267
Q

For decelerated approaches, the aircraft must reach or be established on the final descent with?

A

Flaps 1 and S-speed at or above 2000ft AGL.

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268
Q

How do we confirm landing gear is downlocked?

A

Check for three green indications on the landing gear indicator panel. At least one green triangles on each landing gear strut on the WHEEL SD page is sufficient to indicate that the landing gear is downlocked. Rely also on the LDG GEAR DN LDG memo message to ocnfirm that the landing gear is downlocked.

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269
Q

What happens when we take gear down with the residual pressure on the triple indicator? If residual pressure?

A

After the landing gear is downlocked it accomplish the alternate braking functional test. If residual pressure = RESIDUAL BRAKING PROC APPLY.

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270
Q

Until when can we use the speed brakes on A320?

A

BEFORE conf full. Retract them before selecting flaps full to prevent a pitch down when the speed brakes automatically retract.

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271
Q

What about the wing anti-ice on landing?

A

ON only in severe icing conditions. We should not land with it.

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272
Q

To minimize flaps wear, extend flaps at?

A

VFE -15kt when possible.

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273
Q

LOC and G/S capture modes will engage no soner than?
When APPR mode is selected AP1 and AP2 should be engaged, when does the FMA show correct approach capability for the intended approach?

A

3s after being armed.

Below 5000ft AGL. Above 5000ft AGL it displays CAT 1.

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274
Q

When does the PM call out if excessive deviations occurs on ILS?
RNP?

A

LOC and GS = 0.5dot.

XTK > 0.1NM and V/DEV > 1/2 dot. One the vertical scale, one dot corresponds to 100ft, therefore 1/2 is 50ft.

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275
Q

At 350ft RA, if LAND mode is not engaged?

When should FLARE on FMA be visible?

When should ROLLOUT be visible on FMA?

A

Autoland is not authorized.

40ft, latest 30ft.

As soon as one of the main gears touches the ground, latest when nose wheel have touched.

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276
Q

RNAV approaches, if TOO STEP PATH amber is displayed after FDP?

A

Do not use FINAL APP, use NAV/FPA or TRK FPA.

277
Q

RNAV approaches, what about GPS primary?

What about barometric reference difference for RNAV approach?

A

It must be available on at least one FMS.

Maximum acceptable difference between altimeters is 100ft.

278
Q

On RNP approaches, what about FDs?

A

From minima down to MAP, the FD provides an additional guidance. The FD must be switched off if the guidance is not relevant. After the MAP, disregard the FDs as it reverts to HDG V/S

279
Q

For approach with LNAV/VNAV minima, when can we continue? 2

Discontinue? 5

A

Use appropriate remaining AP/FD in the following cases: GPS PRIMARY LOST on one ND or NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on one ND.

GPS primary lost on both ND,
XTK > 0.3NM,
NAV FM/GPS POS DISAGREE,
NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on both NDs.
Also in case of deviation of 75ft below VDEV = 3/4dot.

280
Q

During landing, when is the A/THR disconnected?

A

As soon as both engines are set to IDLE.

281
Q

Spoilers armed, which two conditions needs to be met for them to extend?

During landing, when is ground spoilers inhibited?

A

Both main landing gears on ground, both thrust levers at or below IDLE position.

If one or more thrust levers remain above the IDLE detent.

282
Q

If we land without ground spoilers are not armed?

What if ground spoilers are not extended?

A

Ground spoilers extend at reverse thrust selection.

The autobrake will not activate.

283
Q

When should we stow the reversers?

What about snow-covered grounds?

A

When aircraft reaches taxi speed, and before it leaves the runway.

Reversers should be stowed when aircraft speed reaches 25kt.

284
Q

Why do we set both thrust reversers to idle at 70kt?

A

At low airspeeds, the airflow caused by gases reentering the compressor, can cause engine stall that may result in excessive EGT.

285
Q

When should we disengage the autobrake at latest?

A

Before 20kt. Otherwise we can get an ECAM.

286
Q

Why do we start the APU before one engine taxi?

A

In order to provide power to the engine fire extinguisher bottles, and avoid electrical transients and load shedding.

287
Q

When is maintenance action required regarding the brakes after landing? 4

A
  1. Temperature difference between two brakes of a gear is more than 150C and the temperature of one of these brakes is ABOVE or equal to 600C. or
  2. The temperature difference between two brakes of a gear is more than 150C, and the temperature of one of these brakes is BELOW or equal to 60C. or
  3. The difference between the average temperature of the left gear brakes and right brakes is above or equal to 200C. or
  4. The temperature of one brake exceeds 900C.
288
Q

What about cooling time of the engines after landing? 2

A
  1. If idle reverse were used = cooling time starts when the flight crew retards the thrust lever during the flare.
  2. If full reverse were used = cooling time starts when the flight crew sets the thrust lever to idle reverse during the landing rollout = latest 70kt.
289
Q

What about APU BLEED when parked after landing?

A

Set it on before engine shutdown to avoid engine exhaust fumes from entering the air conditioning.

290
Q

What about securing the aircraft regarding the batteries?

If batteries are off while APU is running?

A

Wait until APU flap is fully closed (about 2min after the APU AVAIL light goes out) before switching off the batteries. Switching the batteries before the APU flap is closed may cause smoke in the cabin during the next flight.

APU fire extinguishing is not available.

291
Q

¤When is A/THR retard mode available?
How does the engagement occurs? 5

A

Only available during an automatic landing.

  1. At least one AP is engaged. LAND and A/THR speed mode are engaged.
  2. FLARE engages
  3. When aircraft raches approx 30ft, the A/THR retard mode automatically engages. FMA DISPLAYS THR IDLE and A/THR sets the thrust to IDLE
  4. A retard callout triggers at 10ft RA, asking the fight crew to set the thrust levers to IDLE
  5. Flight crew sets the thrust levers to IDLE = A/THR disconnects and the RETARD mode disengages.
292
Q

¤Automatic and manual landing, retard callout sound?

A

For automatic landing = 10ft, manual landing = 20ft. In manual or automatic landing, the RETARD callout triggers independently of the thrust lever position.

293
Q

What about ventilation for lavatory and galley?

A

Extraction fan draws ambient cabin air thruough the lavatories and galleys and exhausts it near the outflow valve. The fan runs continually when electric power is available.

294
Q

How is the ventilation for cargo?

FWD cargo heating?

A

An extraction fan draws air from forward cargo compartment or aft cargo compartment and exhausts it overboard, Air from the cabin replaces the exhausted air thus ventilating the cargo compartments.

Uses the hot engine bleed air, which is also used for cockpit and cabin temperature control, mixing it with the ambient cabin air that flows through the cargo compartment.

295
Q

FMGC contains following units? 4

A

2 flight management guidance computers FMGC
2 Multipurpose control and siplay units MCDU (third optional)
1 flight control unit (FCU)
2 flight augmentation computers FAC

296
Q

FMGC provides predictions of? 5

What do we use to set up the flight?

A

Flight time, mileage, speed, economy profiles and altitude.

MCDU.

297
Q

The airline updates the navigation database in the FMGC every? How long does it take?

A

28 days. Updating operating takes 20min to complete or 5min if crossloaded from the opposite FMGC.

298
Q

How many waypoints, runways, navaid and routes can we maximum create in the FMGC?

A

99 waypoints
10 runways
20 navaids
5 routes

299
Q

What is the FCU?

A

Short-term interface between the flight crew and the FMGC. Used to select any flight parameters or modify those selected in MCDU.

300
Q

What is FAC?

It controls? 6

A

2 Flight augumentation computers.

Rudder, rudder trim, yaw damping inputs, warning for low-energy, windshear detection and flight envelope and speed functions (VLS, VFE on PFD etc.)

301
Q

What is the main interface between FMGC and FADEC?

A

Thrust levers.

302
Q

5 different navigation compass displays can be selected on ND

A

ARC (map mode), ROSE NAV (map mode), ROSE VOR, ROSE LS, PLAN

303
Q

FMGC has 3 modes

A

DUAL MODE = normal mode
Independent mode = each FMGC being controlled by its associated MCDU-
Single mode = using one FMGC only.

304
Q

Two FMGCs are synchronized, each performs its own computations and exchanges data with the other through a crosstalk bus.

Which FMGC is master? 1 AP engaged, two AP engaged, no AP engaged

A

1 AP = Related FMGC is master = onside FD for guidance, controls the A/THR, controls FMA 1 and 2

2 AP = FMGC1 is master

No AP = FD1 on = FMGC1 master. FD2 on = FMGC2 master. If no AP engaged = A/THR is controlled by FMGC1.

305
Q

If each FMGC is loaded with different database?

DIsplayed on MCDU?

Switching database on ground and in flight?

A

The FMGS will only operate in independent mode. Check database number and validity.

INDEPENDENT OPERATION

ON GROUD ONLY: CROSSLOAD the database to restore dual operation. ONLY authorized personnel should take the responsibility to crossload the FMGC database.

IN FLIGHT: DO NOT SWITCH the navigation databases. Make the same entries on both MCDUs to have both AP/FDs orders.

306
Q

If one FMGC fails which mode do we have?

DIsplayed on MCDU?

On the ND?

A

System automatically selects the degraded mode = single mode.

OPP FMGC IN PROCESS

If NDs not both in same mode or range, the associated ND displays “MAP NOT AVAIL” and “SET OFFSIDE RNG/MODE”. When they are on same range and mode = OFFSIDE FM CONTROL is displayed.

307
Q

Can we reset FMGC in flight?
Ground with engines stopped?

A

Yes, but only one FMGC at a time.
Crew may attempt a double and simultaneous CB reset.

308
Q

When can we get CHECK WEIGHT message on MCDU?

A

When GW computed by FMGC and the GW computed by the FAC disagree by more than 7t.

309
Q

What about the FD in normal operations?

A

PFD1 displays FD1 guidance orders, computed by FMGC1.
PFD2 displays FD2 guidance orders, computed by FMGC2.

310
Q

What happens if we previously did not engage any AP or FD?

FD symbol flashes for?

A

HDG or TRACK and V/S or FPA engages.

10s.

311
Q

How does the FD1 and FD2 engage during ground?

Flight? 2

A

Ground = aircraft power-up.

In flight = automatically if the crew engages the SRS GA mode or the AP/FD TCAS mode engages upon a RA.

312
Q

When does the FDs disappear? 3

On landing?

A

Bank exceeds 45 degrees or aircraft pitch exceeds 25 degrees up or 13 degrees down.

The pitch bar disappears in ROLL OUT mode.

313
Q

What is displayed on FMA if FD2 is disengaged by crew? FD1 disengaged?

A

1FD-
-FD2

314
Q

If one FD fails, what happens + FMA?

A

All FD pb remain on
Both PFDs display the guidance orders from the remaining FD
1FD1 appears on the FMA if FD2 fails, or 2FD2 if FD1 fails.

315
Q

WHat about red FD flag on PFD?

A

If the guidance orders are not available while the FD is engaged, a FD red flag appers on the PFD and the FD bars disappear.

316
Q

Flight control surfaces are all?

A

Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated. Stabilizer and rudder can also be mechanically controlled.

317
Q

How is rudder and stabilizer controlled?

A

Stabilizer = Electrical for normal or alternate control, mechanical for manual trim control.

Rudder = Mechanical, however control for yaw damping, turn coordination and trim is electrical.

318
Q

How many computers do we have?

A
  1. 2 ELACs (elevator aileron computer)
    3 SECs (flight augumentation computer)
    2 FACs (flight augumentation computer)
319
Q

Speed brakes are spoiler?
Maximum deflection?

A

2, 3 and 4.
25 degrees.

320
Q

When is speed brakes inhibited? 2

What happens if an inhibition occurs?

A

Flaps full, SEC 1 and SEC3 both are faulty.

Retract automatically and stay retracted until the inhibition condition disappears and FC resets the lever.

321
Q

Ground spoiler control, Rejected takeoff (armed and not armed)

A

Rejected takeoff = If they spoilers armed and wheel speed exceeds 72kt, ground spoilers will automatically extent as soon as both thrust levers are set to IDLE.

If not armed = Wheel speed exceeds 72kt, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine.

322
Q

FLARE MODE, what happens?

A

When aircraft passes 50ft, THS is frozen and flight mode changes to flare mode. System memorizes the aircraft´s attitude at 50ft. As the aircraft descends through 30ft, the system begins to reduce the pitch attitude to -2 nose down over a period of 8s.

323
Q

Wing Anti-ICE, what does hot air protect?

What does electrical heating protect? 5

A

Three outboard leading-edge slats (3-4-5) of each wing and engine air intakes.

Flight compartment windows, sensors, pitot probes and static ports, waste-water drain mast.

324
Q

Wing-anti ice: How does the anti-ice system work? Test on ground?

If system detects a leak?

N1 and EPR when selected ON?

If electrical power supply fail?

A

In flight, hot air from the pneumatic system heats the three outboard slats. Air is supplied through one valve in each wing. On ground, FC can initiate a 30s test sequence by turning the system ON.

Affected side´s wing anti-ice valve automatically closes.

N1 and EPR limit is reduced, idle N1 and EPR is increased.

The valves close.

325
Q

Engine-anti ice: How does the anti-ice system work?

Automatically close?

A

Independant air bleed form the high pressure compressor protects each engine nacalle from ice. Air is supplied through a two-position (open and closed) valve that FC controls with two pushbuttons.

When air is unavailable (engine not running).

326
Q

WING-ANTI ICE, If electrical power supply fail?

Engine-ANTI ice, if electrical power supply fail?

A

The valves close.

The valve open.

327
Q

What is WHC and how many do we have?
When does window heating comes on?

A

2 Window heat computers WHC.

Automatically when at least one engine is running or when aircraft in flight or manually before flight when FC switches ON the probe/window head pushbutton.

328
Q

What is PHCs and how many?

WHat about TAT probes?

A

Three PROBE HEAT COMPUTERS PHCs automatically control and monitor: Captain probes, F/O probes and STBY probes.

TAT probes are not heated ON GROUND and pitot heating operates at a low level.

329
Q

MEL Wing.anti ice control valve closed in OPEN/CLOSED position

A

Open position = RH valve may be inoperative in OPEN position provided that the associated ECAM procedure is applied and increase fuel by 3-4% according to MEL.

Closed position = One or both may be inoperative in closed position provided that the aircraft is not operated in known or forecast icing condition.

330
Q

MEL Engine.anti ice control valve closed in OPEN/CLOSED position

A

Closed = One or both may be inoperative in closed position provided that the aircraft is not operated in known or forecast icing condition.

Open = One or both may be inoperative in open position provided that performance penalties are applied (3-4% extra) and OAT is below ISA+35C.

331
Q

If both ELACS fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizers?

A

SEC

332
Q

When does sideslip indicator change to blue beta target?

A

Any EPR difference more than 1.25 and EPR differs more than 0.3.

333
Q

What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on ECAM?

A

Speedbrakes extended, engines not at IDLE.

334
Q

Which protection is not available below 100ft AGL?

A

Alpha floor.

335
Q

When the cargo door switch for the yellow hydraulic pump is in use, the flight controls are?

A

Inhibited.

336
Q

The forward and aft cargo doors can be opened from?

A

Outside only.

337
Q

What happens to the cockpit door with electrical power failure?

A

It automatically unlocks.

338
Q

Course information from the ILS 1 receiver will be displayed?

A

On the CPTs PFD when the captains ILS push button is selectec ON. NOT ON ND.

339
Q

What causes a display unit DU to go blank? 2

A

Loss of power and display unit failure.

340
Q

The actual speed is indicated by the X reference line

A

Yellow

341
Q

As you approach a selected altitude, when will the yellow altitude window start flashing?

A

As you approach within 750ft of FCU selected altitude and stop when it is within 250ft.

342
Q

When is the S of the speedtape displayed?

A

Only when the flap handle position is in position 1.

343
Q

After engine shutdown, you observe pulsing STS message. What does it mean?

A

Reminder that the status page holds a maintenece message.

344
Q

The SD displays the GW in green as soon as the second engine is started?

A

False.

345
Q

Engine and APU generators are rated at which KVA?

A

90

346
Q

IDG fault light indicates?

A

IDG low oil pressure or IDG oil overheat

347
Q

Limitation on IDG? 2

A

Never disconnect an IDG unless engines are running nor push the IDG button for more than 3s.

348
Q

The BAT FAULT light will illuminate when?

A

Charging current increases as an abnormal rate.

349
Q

Which voltages requires recharging or replacing the batteries?

A

25V or less

350
Q

Battery bus is normally powered by?

A

DC bus 1 through a DC tie control relay.

351
Q

Which flight control computer will be lost in emergency electrical configuration with gear extension?

A

FAC 1.

352
Q

Is it possible to paralell generators?

A

The electrical system will not allow paralleling of generators.

353
Q

Will the rat deploy automatically with 2 hydraulic failures?
When does the RAT automatically deploy?

A

No.
Electrcial power to both AC BUS 1 and 2 is lost and the aircraft speed is above 100kt.

354
Q

Function of GEN 1 line pushbutton if pressed?

A

When selected off, generator 1 is removed from all buses but continue to power one fuel pump in each wing.

355
Q

Which flight control computers are operational in EMER ELEC CONFIGURATION when LDG gear down?

A

ELAC1 and SEC1.

356
Q

Which radios are inoperative with gear extension while in EMER ELEC CONFIGURATION?

A

DME1 and transponder 1.

357
Q

Emergency generator supplies power as long as?

A

The landing gear is up.

357
Q

What would cause the GALLEY fault light illuminate?

A

The load of any geenrator is above 100% of its rated output.

358
Q

Which communication and navigation radios are operative in case of EMER ELEC CONFIGURATION? 5

A

ACP 1 and 2, VHF1, RMP1, VOR1, ILS1

359
Q

The static inverter works when?

A

When aircraft speed is above 50kt and on batteries only.

360
Q

DC BAT BUS can be supplied by?

A

TR1 via DC BUS1 and DC BAT BUS

361
Q

If AC BUS 1 fails, the AC ESS bus is supplied by?

A

AC BUS2.

362
Q

The AUTO position of the X BLEED selector opens the crossbleed if?

A

APU bleed valve is open.

363
Q

Temperature regulation on the A320 is controlled by?

A

One zone controller and two pack controllers.

364
Q

Overheat detection system uses a single loop for?

A

The pylons and the APU.

365
Q

Bleed air normally comes from the X stage of the engine?

A

Intermediate.

366
Q

How many motors for the outflow valve?

A
  1. 2 automatic, 1 manual.
367
Q

If BMC1 fails, BMC2 takes over all monitoring functions except?

A

Engine 1 and APU leak detection.

368
Q

When does the APU BLEED FAULT light illuminates amber?

A

Bleed leak

369
Q

Temperature regulation is achieved by the precooler which regulates and limits the temperature at?

A

200 degrees.

370
Q

Crossbleed valve opens when system is using APU bleed. When does it close?

A

If system detects an air leak (except during engine start).

371
Q

Bleed leak protection for the APU pneumatic duct is provided by?

A

Detection loops associated with BMC1.

372
Q

Engine and wing anti-ice on, BMC detects bleed leak. What happens?

A

Wing anti-ice closes on associated side, engine anti ice still operating.

373
Q

APU bleed air supplies the pneumatic system if the APU speed is above?

A

95%

374
Q

Which source controls the crossbleed valve?

A

Electric, not pneumatic

375
Q

ECAM BLEED page, when is the GND symbol displayed?

A

Whenever the aircraft is on the ground.

376
Q

How many sources does the high pressure air has?

A

3.

377
Q

Can fuel be transferred from tank to tank?

A

Only on the ground.

378
Q

What precaution should you observe when gravity feeding fuel?

A

Operate the aircraft below 15000ft.

379
Q

How many motors controlls the crossfeed valves?

A

2.

380
Q

After engine start, center tank fuel pumps run for how many minutes regardless of the slat position?

A

2 minutes.

381
Q

Refueling time at normal pump pressure for wing tanks and all tanks?

A

Wing = 17min.
All tanks = 20min.

382
Q

What does OUTER TK FUEL XFRD MEMO means?

A

Reminder to show that a transfer valve is open.

383
Q

Fuel from outer compartment to the inner compartment of the wing tanks occurs when inner compartment quantity decreases to?

A

750kg.

384
Q

Why do the center tank pumps stop automatically when the slats are extended for takeoff?

A

To ensure that the engines are fed from the wing tanks for takeoff (feeding segregation).

385
Q

From which tank will fuel gravity feed?

A

Outer cell of the wing tanks and inner cell of the wing tanks.

386
Q

With the center tank pump mode SEL switch in AUTO, the center tank pumps? 3

A
  1. Run for 2 minutes after both engines are running.
  2. Will not restart until slats are retracted in flight.
  3. Continue to run until five minutes after the center tank is empty.
387
Q

CTR TK FEEDG appears on MEMO, it means?

A

At least one center tank pump is energized.

388
Q

The wing fuel transfer valves are X held closed?

A

Electrically held closed.

389
Q

The drain masts are heated after first engine start?

What happens to the heat at the drain masts when aircraft on ground?

A

False. It´s heated automatically on ground before engine start.

The heat is reduced to avoid injury for the ground personel.

390
Q

At what power level does window heat operate while airborne?

A

High power

391
Q

What about the engine anti-ice valve in the event of a low air pressure?

A

The engine anti-ice valve closes automatically.

392
Q

The engine nacelle is anti-iced by?

A

Air bleed from the high pressure compressor.

393
Q

The pump identification number on the ECAM HYD page becomes amber when?

A

N2 is below idle.

394
Q

How many pumps has the yellow hydraulic system to provide pressure?

A
  1. Engine pump, electrical and hand pump.
395
Q

Maximum degrees of nosewheel steering available when using the handwheel is?

A

+-75 degrees

396
Q

ENG PUMP FAULT light extinguishes when the engine pump switch is selected to off except for?

A

An overheat.

397
Q

When does the PTU fault LIGHT illuminates?

What does a PTU fault indicate? 3

A

Green or yellow reservoir has low air pressure. (NOT OVERHEAT).

GREEN OR YELLOW reservoir overheat/low air pressure/low level.

398
Q

Can we pressurize the green hydraulic system on ground via the PTU?

A

Yes, if the parking brake is set.

399
Q

If you lost the green system, what is lost mainly? 4

A

Landing gear normal extension, landing gear retraction, reverse 1, normal brakes

400
Q

When will normal operation of the BLUE system hydraulic pump begin?

When is the BLUE hydraulic system pressurized?

A

During the first engine start.

Automatically after first engine start.

401
Q

On the hydraulic quantity indicator, what does the amber level indicate?

A

The warning level. NOT RESERVOIR CONTENTS

402
Q

What does the RAT MAN ON switch do?

A

Extends RAT, pressurizes BLUE system, DOES NOT START EMERGENCY GENERATOR.

403
Q

After extending the RAT, is it possible to check its position and status?

A

Yes, select the ECAM HYD page.

404
Q

When the APU master switch is released, a normal APU shutdown occurs?

If APU bleed was used, after a manual shut down sequence, the APU keeps running for?

A

With a delay if the bleed air was in use.

60s.

405
Q

The APU MASTER SW FAULT light is illuminated

A

Only when an automatic shutdown of the APU occurs

406
Q

With battery power, what would an APU fire test look like?

A

APU FIRE pushbutton illuminated. SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminated.

407
Q

When the APU is running, the APU fuel pump?

A

Runs when tank pumps pressure is not sufficient ONLY.

408
Q

The basic element of the APU is a single shaft gas turbine which delivers?

A

Mechanical shaft power for driving the accessory gearbox and produces bleed air (engine starting and pneumatic supply).

409
Q

Maximum altitude at which the APU may be started using the batteries only?

A

25000ft.

410
Q

What controls the fuel flow regarding the APU?

A

ECB.

411
Q

What happens when the batteries are selected off regarding the APU?

A

When selected off, the APU generator is de-energized.

412
Q

The APU may obtain power for starting from? 3

A

Ground services, normal aircraft supply, aircrafts batteries or in combination with the external power.

413
Q

Some causes of automatic APU shutdown? 7

A

Fire (on ground only),
underspeed,
overspeed,
EGT overtemperature,
reverse flow,
low oil pressure,
DC power loss

414
Q

If an APU start is inhibited on battery power only, is fire protection available?

A

Yes.

415
Q

Can the APU be used with wing-anti ice on?

A

Yes, but ONLY for electrical power. The APU bleed valve should not be opened while using wing anti-ice.

416
Q

Can APU fire test be performed with APU running?

A

Yes.

417
Q

LOW OIL LEVEL advisory pulses in which colour if the APU OIL quantity approaches its minimum value?

A

Green.

418
Q

The FADEC is normally powered by?

A

Its own magnetic alternator.

419
Q

How many thrust lever positions are they?

A

6, TO/GA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE, REV IDLE and MREV

420
Q

How many FADECs installed in the aircraft?

A

Two, one per engine.

421
Q

How many seconds do we need to press the A/THR disconnect switch to get the A/THR system disconnected for the reminder of the flight and what else do we loose?

A

15s, we will loose the alpha floor protection.

422
Q

Alpha floor protection is available?

A

From lift off and down to 100ft radio altitude in landing configuration.

423
Q

What are the two basic modes of the A/THR?

A

Variable thrust and fixed speed.

424
Q

If thrust levers are set in IDLE detent, is Alpha floor protection still available?

A

Yes, thrust lever position is risregarded.

425
Q

A/THR, when does oil quantity indication begin to pulse?

A

Decreasing below 5qt.

426
Q

How do you arm A/THR in flight?

A

A/THR switch ON when throttles are NOT in engagement mode.

427
Q

Does FADEC provide EGT limit protection constantly?

A

No, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts.

428
Q

Is there any mechanical linkage between the thrust levers and the engines?

A

No, it is totally electrical.

429
Q

You are in the middle of manual engine start. What are you looking for when you select ENG MASTER 2 ON? 3

A

Fuel used is reset, both igniters are powered and fuel flow is indicated.

430
Q

Is it possible to disconnect alpha floor?

A

Yes, by depressing the autothrust push button on FCU.

This is the reason why we do not disconnect the A/THR from the FCU button while in fight, we do it from the red buttons on the A/THR to still have the alpha floor protection.

431
Q

During an in-flight start or a manual start, will the FADEC auto abort for an abnormal?

A

No. Only during ground except for manual start.

432
Q

Can alpha-floor be disengaged while in alpha protection?

A

Yes, by manually disengaging the auto thrust.

433
Q

Which steps of a manual start are being taken care of by the FADEC? 2

A

Starter valve closure and ignition cut off.

434
Q

FADEC will automatically abort an abnormal start but will it also automatically dry crank the engine?

A

Yes, as long as the ENG MASTER switch remains in the ON position.

435
Q

What abnormals would cause the FADEC to automatically abort a start? 4

A

A hot start, an overtemp, a stalled start or no lightoff.

436
Q

What will depressing the guarded MASK MAN ON pb accomplish?

A

It manually sends a signal to open the oxygen mask door.

437
Q

What is indicated by a missing green thermal plug during an exterior preflight? 2

A

An oxygen system overpressure or thermal discharge.

438
Q

What does amber OXY on the ECAM doors mean? 2

A

The crew supply switch is turned off and/or oxygen pressure is less than 400PSI.

439
Q

Purpose of the CREW SUPPLY push button?

A

When selected ON, it allows the flow of low pressure oxygen to the crew´s masks

440
Q

At approximatly what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen mask drop?

A

14000ft +0, -500ft

441
Q

On which ECAM page could the flight crew check the exact pressure of the oxygen cylinder?

A

The DOORS page.

442
Q

Halon fire extinguisher should be used on what type of fires? 2

A

Electrical and flammable liquid fires.

443
Q

The PBE provides a breathable atmosphere for approximatly how many minutes?

A

15 minutes.

444
Q

When the door arming lever is in ARMED position, opening the door from outside will?

A

Disarm the door. It will not deploy and inflate the evacuation slide.

445
Q

What is indicated by autobrake DECEL light?

A

Airplane deceleration is 80% of selected rate.

446
Q

What does each turn of the gravity gear extension handle do?

A

Shutoff hydraulic pressure, open doors, unlock gear.

447
Q

During pushback, you see NW STRG DISC memo has become amber, why?

A

The memo has become amber because one engine is running.

448
Q

The antiskid deactivates when ground speed is less than?

A

20kt.

449
Q

Landing gear operation is inhibited at speeds?

A

Above 260kt +-5kt.

450
Q

Can the gear be extended above 260kt?

A

Yes, but only manually.

451
Q

Nose wheels and main wheels have fusible plugs that prevent tires from bursting if they overheat?

A

False.

452
Q

The parking brake accumulator is desgined to maintain the parking pressure for at least?

A

12h.

453
Q

Wheel page on ECAM, green arc shown over a wheel indication means?

A

Marks hottest brake with a temperature of more than 100C.

454
Q

When PRK BRAKE is set, what happens with the brake systems?

A

The other brake systems and anti-skid are deactivated.

455
Q

Can normal landing gear operation be restored after a gravity extension if green hydraulic pressure is available?

A

May be possible if gravity gear extension was not caused by a failure of the landing gear mechanism.

456
Q

The autobrake will arm if at least?

A

One ADIRS is functioning.

457
Q

Antiskid system gets it´s reference speed from?

A

ADIRS

458
Q

Failure of all three ADIRS, is antiskid still available?

A

Yes

459
Q

Landing gear indicator panel receives information from?

A

LGCIU1.

460
Q

NSW is controlled by?

A

BSCU/yellow system

461
Q

Principle of anti-skid is?

A

Comparing wheel speeds with aircraft reference speed.

462
Q

The brake and accumulator pressure gauge/yellow alternate brakes shows pressure from?

A

Both yellow brake system and the brake accumulator.

463
Q

NSW is available? 4

A

Speed below 70kt, one engine running, towing in normal position, aircraft on ground

464
Q

The red arrow, near the landing gear is illuminated when?

A

Landing gear is not down locked in approach configuration.

465
Q

Which ADIRS close the safety valve of green hydraulic supply when speed is above 260kt?

A

ADIRS 1 & 3.

466
Q

On ECAM wheel page, Autobrake is flashing green. It means?

A

Autobrake is disengaged.

467
Q

NSW by rudder pedals are limited to?

A

Maximum +-6kt depending on aircraft speed.

468
Q

On the ground, when is CVR automatically stopped after last engine shutdown?

A

5 minutes.

469
Q

RMP1 is dedicated to which VHF radios?

A

VHF1 and VHF3.

470
Q

If VHF1 is selected on RMP2, SEL light illuminates white on?

A

RMP1 and RMP2.

471
Q

The service interphone X interphone jacks?

A

7

472
Q

When is CVR energized? 2

A

Automatically energized after first engine start or five minutes after AC electrical power is applied to the aircraft.

473
Q

When selecting the guarded RMP NAV key?

A

FMGC auto tuning is inhibited.

474
Q

If ATC mode selector is at AUTO, selected ATC operates?

A

Only in flight.

475
Q

You receive a SELCAL on VHF2, what happens on your ACP?

A

Amber sign call flashes on VHF2 key.

476
Q

In case of dual FMGC failure selection of radio navigation frequencies is possible with?

A

RMP1 and RMP2 only.

477
Q

When the ON voice key on ACP is puished in, ADF and VOR ident signals are inhibited?

A

True.

478
Q

Once activated, how can you cancel the EVAC alert from the cockpit?

A

COMMAND switch.

479
Q

Illumination of SEL indicator on RMP indicates?

A

The RMP is being tuned to a transceiver from another RMP.

480
Q

What about RAD NAV on FMGC when NAV PB on RMP is pressed?

A

Information on RAD NAV is not available.

481
Q

To transmit and receive on the service interphone, the pilot must select?

A

CAB reception knob and the ATT transmission key on ACP.

482
Q

With the aircraft in pitch alternate law, roll is in which mode?

A

Direct.

483
Q

When flaps are extended, the ailerons?

A

Drops 5 degrees.

484
Q

When is automatic pitch trim inhibited in normal law? 2

A

Radio height below 50ft (100ft if AP connected), Bank angle is greater than 33 degrees.

485
Q

Roll control is achieved by?

A

One aileron and four spoilers on each wing. (NOT RUDDER)

486
Q

What about horizontal stabilizer trim after landing? THS

What about rudder trim?

A

Resets to zero.

Not reseted automatically.

487
Q

How many wing tip brakes do we have and whats the purpose of it? 4

WING TIP BRK ON on ECAM menas?

A

Four wing tip brakes. It locks the high speed devices = flaps in case of asymmetry (NOT THE SLATS), overspeed, symmetrical runaway and uncommanded movement.

Hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position.

488
Q

If electrical power to a SEC fails?

A

The affected spoilers automatically retract.

489
Q

Automatic rudder trim is provided at a rate of?

Manual rudder trim is provided at a rate of?

Both, up to maximum of?

A

5deg/sec

1deg/sec

20 degrees.

490
Q

If both FACs fails, when can the maximum rudder deflection be obtained?

A

After the slats are extended.

491
Q

What is LOAD ALLEVIATION funtion LAF?

A

Relivies wing structure loads by deflacting the ailerons and spoilers.

492
Q

Which altitude limitation is associated with high lift devices?

A

20000ft.

493
Q

What is alpha speed lock function?

A

Will inhibit slat retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.

494
Q

Mechancially backed-up control surfaces requires?

A

Hydraulic power for actuation.

495
Q

How many actuators are provided to control the ailerons and hydraulic sources is needed to supply these actuators?

A

2 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.

496
Q

If both FAC´s fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?

A

It freezes at its present position and assumes low speed position when flaps 1 are selected.

497
Q

What happens in the side stick-neutral high speed protection mode? 3

A

AP disengages
Bank angle is limited to 40 degrees
The aircraft rolls wings level and pitches up to slow down to VMO/MMO.

498
Q

When is flight mode active?

A

From liftoff until flare mode engages at 50ft RA.

499
Q

Maximum flap setting for in flight use of the spoilers?

A

Flaps 3.

500
Q

Where does the SFCCs obtain AOA and air data information from?

A

ADIRU

501
Q

How many SFCCs do we have and what do they do?

A

Two, controls/monitor the slat and flaps system.

502
Q

In normal law, what are the limits of pitch attitude protections with flaps full?

A

25 degrees nose up, reduced to 20 degrees at low speed.

503
Q

Let´s assume one of the FC depressed his take-over button for more than 40s, what happens to the other one?

A

Captains side-stick is de-activated unless he presses his takeover pushbutton.

504
Q

What kind of protections are available in alternate law?

A

G-load protection and speed stability if the ADIRS and elevators are working.

505
Q

If both pilots deflect their side stick fully back?

A

The “pitch up” order is equal to a single stick defection.

506
Q

When can you directly degrade from normal to direct law? 2

A

LDG gear down and dual radio altimeter fault.

507
Q

What about feedback for the yaw damping and turn coordination functions?

A

There is no feedback.

508
Q

When is alpha floor not available? 3

A

Out of normal law, below 100ft RA in landing configuration, If A/THR not available.

509
Q

What happens to high speed VMO/MMO when you are in alternate law?

A

VMO is reduced to 320kt and MMO does not change.

510
Q

What about turn coordination in alternate law?

A

It is not available when not in normal law.

511
Q

Cost index = 0 means?

A

Minimum fuel consumption (max range).

512
Q

With the DATA selector set to HDG, time remaining until complete IRS alignment?

A

10 minutes.

513
Q

Alignment of the IRS, countdown stops and ALIGN is flashing. It means?

A

Indication that alignment has stopped as the present position has not been entered from the FMGS.

514
Q

While taxiing on the ground, the FMGS displays the position of the aircraft using?

A

IRS ONLY.

515
Q

When is the green energy circle displayed on ND?

A

When HDG or TRK mode is used.

515
Q

What if you engage the AP on ground if engines are not running?

A

A/P will disengage when one engine is started.

516
Q

How can you cancel the expedite pushbutton? 3

A

Pull the altitude, vertical speed or speed knob.

517
Q

SRS will command what on both engines operative?

A

V2/SRS + 10kt.

518
Q

Pilot interface with the FMGS using? 3

A

FCU, thurst levers and MCDU.

519
Q

FMGC1 is not working, to enter data into the FMGC, which MCDU would you use?

A

Either MCDU1 or MCDU2.

520
Q

VOR data can be displayed on? 2

A

Both NDs and DDRMI

521
Q

Standby attitude indication will remain available for how long after total electrical failure?

A

5 minutes

522
Q

ILS1 information is displayed on?
ILS 2 information is displayed on?

A

PFD1, ND2
PFD2, ND1

523
Q

The airspeed indication on PFD starts at?

A

30kt.

524
Q

The armed vertical modes are displayed on the FMA on the second line in?

A

Blue or magenta.

525
Q

The engaged vertical modes are displayed on the FMA on the first line in?

A

Green or blue.

526
Q

What is prefered method of radio positioning updating for FMGS?

A

DME/DME

527
Q

Box promts on the MCDU indicate data?

A

Entry is required for minimum FMGS operation.

528
Q

The aft cargo compartment smoke detection system consists of?

A

Four smoke detectors and two channel smoke detection control unit.

528
Q

What about APU fire in flight?

A

Must be shut down manually and the agent manually discharged.

529
Q

How many fire extinguishing bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?

A

One.

530
Q

When the APU FIRE SWITCH is released out?

A

The APU bleed and crossbleed valves are closed.

531
Q

Engine fire loops are installed in the? 3

A

Pylon nacelle, core and fan.

532
Q

The GEN 1 LINE smoke light indicates?

A

Smoke in the avionics ventilation system.

533
Q

Aircraft on ground, Apu is started on batteries only, is fire protection available?

A

Yes. APU will initiate auto shutdown and discharge the extinguishing agent.

534
Q

Which is only place where no fire extinguishing system is installed?

A

Avionics compartment.

535
Q

DISCH light on either the engine or APU indicates?

A

The extinguisher bottle has been discharged.

536
Q

Engine fire is detected, when will the pedestal mounted red FIRE annunciator light extinguish (släckas)?

A

Only after the fire warning no longer exists.

537
Q

What has automatic fire extinguishing systems? 2

A

Only APU and lavatory waste bins.

538
Q

If a break in both engine fire loops occurs within how many seconds, of each other, a X will occur

A

5sec
X = FIRE warning

539
Q

What about illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light regarding BLOWER and EXTRACT button lights?

A

BLOWER AND EXTRACT push button fault lights will illuminate.

540
Q

Each engine nacalle and pylon area is equipped with?

A

No smoke detectors, only two fire detection loops. A and B.

541
Q

Each lavatory is equipped with how many smoke detectors?

A

Only one.

542
Q

If APU fire is detected on ground, APU shutdowns automatically and how many seconds does it takes for the agent to discharge?

A

3s.

543
Q

GPWS works between which altitudes?

A

50 to 2500ft.

544
Q

If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure?

A

Decreases

545
Q

When combustion gases passes through the turbine, what happens?

A

Pressure drops.

546
Q

If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb or descend, the instrument will:

A

Continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occured.

547
Q

The static air temperature (SAT) is:

A

Absoloute temperature expressed in celsius.

548
Q

A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to :

A

React like an altimeter.

549
Q

An “ traffic advisory” (TA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying :

A

A full yellow circle.

550
Q

The cross-feed fuel system is used to:

A

Feed every engine from any fuel tank.

551
Q

When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:

A

Voltage and frequency.

552
Q

The rate-of-turn is the:

A

Change-of-heading rate of the aircraft

553
Q

Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane’s maximum range), the traffic load is normaly limited by:

A

The maximum take-off mass.

554
Q

During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that :

A

The centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.

555
Q

The maximum mass for landing could be limited by

A

The climb requirement with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.

556
Q

What is dry operating weight?

A

Weight of the airplane, without traffic load and fuel.

557
Q

While making mass and balance calculation for a particular aeroplane, the term ‘Empty Mass’ applies to the sum of airframe, engine( s), fixed ballast plus

A

Unusable fuel and full operating fluids.

558
Q

An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:

A

A reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance

559
Q

During take-off the third segment begins

A

When acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.

560
Q

During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1?

A

The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.

561
Q

For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

A

1.6 (1.67 x the actual landing distance)

562
Q

The speed V2 is

A

The take-off safety speed.

563
Q

What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope

A

Decreases the take-off speed V1.

564
Q

What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?

A

The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.

565
Q

Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?

A

A high runway elevation and tail wind.

566
Q

Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?

A

VR

567
Q

What does BCMG 0800 at the end of a METAR mean?

A

Visibility increases to 800m for the next 2hrs.

568
Q

A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is:

A

Dry powder.

569
Q

A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than:

A

50NM

570
Q

During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the hold over time starts:

A

At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

571
Q

CAT C aircraft speed categorie VAT? (indicated airspeed at threshold).

A

Category C — 224 km/h (121 kt) or more but less than 261 km/h (141 kt) IAS

572
Q

The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:

A

3NM

573
Q

Which procedure do you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure?

A

Continue the fight maintaining VMC and land as soon as Practicable.

574
Q

After take-off the slats are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ?

A

Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.

575
Q

At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):

A

Increases

576
Q

The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:

A

TAS

577
Q

During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection:

A

Downward on the up going wing and upward on the down going wing.

578
Q

Tuck under will happen

A

Only above the critical Mach number.

579
Q

When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch moment will be:

A

Nose down

580
Q

Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by:

A

Primary aerodynamic control only.

581
Q

During GS mini, which two limits does the managed target speed have?

A

Minimum value = VAPP
Maximum value: CONF 0, 1, 2, 3 = VFE next, CONF FULL = VFE next -5kt

582
Q

On contaminated taxiways, the taxispeed should be limited to?

A

10kt.

583
Q

What is de-icing?

A

Removal of snow/ice from the aircraft.

584
Q

What is anti-icing?

A

Applying fluid to stop ice from building up on the aircraft.

585
Q

Type 1 fluid and what is it mostly used for?

A

Type 1 = Low viscosity, limited hold-over time, used mainly for de-icing

586
Q

Type 2,3 and 4 fluid and what is it mostly used for?

A

Type 2, 3 and 4 = High viscosity, longer hold-over time, used for de-cing and anti-icing

587
Q

Depending upon the severity of the weather, de-icing/anti icing procedure must be applied either in one step or two steps. Describe both and when holdover time starts.

A

One step = Single application of heated and diluted deicing/anti-icing fluid = provides shorter holdover time and should be used in low moisture conditions only. Holdover time starts from the beginning of the application of the fluid.

Two steps = First applying the heated deicing fluid, then by applying a protective anti-icing fluid. Thet can not be applied together. Holdover time starts from the beginning of the apllication of the second fluid.

588
Q

Presence of fluid contaminants on the runway has an adverse effect on braking performance. Why?

A

Because it reduces the friction between the tires and the surface of the runway. Also crates a layer of fluid between the tires and the runway surface = reduce contact area.

589
Q

What is the first warning we get during windshear conditions?

When do we get this warning regarding the VLS?

A

SPEED SPEED SPEED to attract PF eyes to the speed scale.

VLS-7kt on FPA 3 degrees.

590
Q

When is PWS active? 2

Takeoff: Predictive windshear alert is inhibited?
When is it active on ground and how long does it scan?

What happens during landing?

How long does it scan for WS during flight?

A

WXR/PWS in position 1 or 2 and the aircraft radio height is below 1800ft.

When aircraft speed is above 100kt and up to 50ft.
Up to 100kt, both warning and cautions are available within a range of 3NM.

During final approach, the visual and aural warning alerts are downgraded to caution (MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY on ND) between 370ft AGL and 50ft AGL and range between 1.5NM and 0.5NM. This means it is inhibited on landing below 50ft.

5NM ahead of the aircraft.

591
Q

The wather radar can detect how far ahead in NM?

Horizontally?

Vertically?

A

320NM

+-80 degrees

+-15 degrees

592
Q

Aural alert of the PWS regarding the priority? 3

Inhibited by? 2

A

Priority over TCAS, GPWS, and other FWC aural warnings.

Inhibited by reactive windshear and aural messages of stall warnings.

593
Q

Weather ahead function on ND. When is it available?

The detection area is? 3

Which altitudes is it working/inhibited?

A

Available when weather radar is ON and triggers when red or yellow weather in detection area or turbulence in the detection area.

3min ahead of the aircrfat, in a corridor of 2NM on each side and in a corridor of 4000ft above and below the current track.

Below 1500ft = inhibited
Above 1500ft = displayed on ND and above 2500ft = additional WEATHER AHEAD aural message is emitted.

594
Q

Reactive windshear is provided by?

Provided in which 3 conditions?

A

The FAC in takeoff and approach phase.

At takeoff = 3s after liftoff up to 1300ft RA
At landing = from 1300ft RA to 50ft RA
And with at least CONF 1 selected.

595
Q

When is the AP/FD TCAS mode available? 4

A

Aircraft above 900ft, TCAS in TA/RA, at least one AP and one FD available and EGPWS/WINDSHEAR/STALL warning is not triggered.

596
Q

When does LVR CLB flashes on FMA? 4

What activates when we set the thrust to CLB?

A

All engines operative, both thrust levers are below the CL detent or one thrust lever is above CL detent, aircraft above 100ft and no windshear is detected.

A/THR becomes active.

597
Q

What is VMCA?

A

Vmca is defined as the minimum speed, whilst in the air, that directional control can be maintained with one engine inoperative (critical engine on two engine aerolanes), operating engine(s) at takeoff power and a maximum of 5 degrees of bank towards the good engine(s). We counteract the yawing moment with the rudder.

598
Q

What is VMCG?

A

Minimum control speed on ground. Vmcg is defined as the minimum calibrated airspeed, during the takeoff run at which, if the critical engine suddenly fails, it is possible to maintain directional control using only aerodynamic controls.

Vmcg must not be greater than V1.

599
Q

When is a runway considered as wet?

As contaminated?

What is fluid containment?

Why is it always above/below 3mm that decide the condition?

A

When the surface is covered by any visible moisture or water up to and including 3mm in depth.

Runway covered by a fluid contaminant with a depth of more than 3mm.

Dry snow, wet snow, standing water, slush.

Below 3mm there is no risk of hydroplaning.

600
Q

The required landing distance for wet runway is the required landing distance for dry runway multiplied by?

A

1.15

601
Q

What is IR and what does it provide? 8

A

Laser based inertial reference system (aircraft sensors) which provides attitude, heading, aircraft position, track, heading, acceleration, ground speed and the flight path vector.

602
Q

FAC 1 + 2 fault, what will we initially think and what will be lost?

A

Initially always we will think it is unreliable speed but thats not the case. Call out numbers immediatly “I have 150kt” etc and if all three = PFD1, ISIS and PFD2 shows same speed = we do not have unreliable speed.

BE CAREFUL, all the S-speeds, F-speeds, overspeeds etc. are gone on the PFD = we need to configure aircraft without them = check the placard for flaps and gear and be quickly with configuration!

603
Q

Important always to not forget during emergency descend

A

Doesnt matter if damage or not ALWAYS press the SPEED button after the speed is pulled and fly with SPEED not MACH.

If you hear a loud bang = damage = do not increase speed. Stay with same or decrease speed.

604
Q

CAT2
- Minimum decision height
- RVR
- AP
- FMA
- In case of manual landing

A

100ft.
300m.
At least one AP engaged in APPR mode
CAT2 or CAT3 SINGLE or CAT3 DUAL must be displayed on FMA
AP should be disconnected no later than 80ft AGL.

605
Q

CAT3 SINGLE
- Minimum decision height
- RVR
- AP
- FMA

A

50ft
200m
At least one AP engaged in APPR mode
CAT3 SINGLE/CAT 3 DUAL

606
Q

What is the difference between EGPWS and GPWS?

Based on?

A

E = Enhanced = forward looking capability for terrain is added.

Based on terrain database and FMGC current position, not on radar returns.

607
Q

5 GPWS modes?

A

Mode 1 = Excessive rate of descend
Mode 2 = Excessive terrain closure rate
Mode 3 = Altitude loss after takeoff or go-around
Mode 4 = Terrain clearence not sufficient
Mode 5 = Excessive descent rate below GS

608
Q

What is the normal required climb gradient in case of go-around?

What is the climb gradient in case of go-around with both engines operative?

What is the climb gradient in case of go-around with one engine?

A

2.5%

3.2%

2.1%

609
Q

Avoiding all red/magenta and yellow* on ND by:
Above 30000ft

Avoiding all red/magenta and yellow* on ND by:
25000-30000ft

Avoiding all red/magenta and yellow* on ND by:
0-25000ft

A

Avoid all red/magenta and yellow¤ areas by 20NM

Avoid all red/magenta and yellow¤ areas by 15NM

Avoid all red/magenta and yellow¤ areas by 5NM, preferebly 10NM

610
Q

An engine is considered as secured when the ECAM actions of the procedures are performed until:

A
  • ENGINE FAILURE WITHOUT DAMAGE: T/L IDLE, ENG MASTER OFF.
  • ENGINE FAILURE WITH DAMAGE: T/L IDLE, ENG MASTER OFF, FIRE P/B PUSHED, 1 AGENT DISCHARGED.
  • ENGINE FIRE: T/L IDLE, ENG MASTER OFF, FIRE P/B PUSHED, AGENT 1 (AND 2) DISCHARGED AS REQUIRED
611
Q

GO AROUND procedure. 9

A
  1. GO AROUND FLAPS and set levers to TOGA.
  2. PF READS THE FMA = MAN TOGA, SRS, GA TRK, A/THR BLUE.
  3. PM selects flaps 1 step and announce Positive CLIMB, PF = gear up, PM = gear up, flaps 3 and xxxx ft checked.
  4. Advise tower. WZZ going around.
  5. Select AP2 on.
  6. Above F-speed = flaps 1.
  7. Above S-speed = flaps up.
  8. CLB on FMA = set two step back to CLB from TOGA. (or MCT in case off engine fail).
  9. Follow missed approach procedure.
612
Q

What are indications of Engine damage?

When do we do not have engine damage?

A

N1 and N2 = 0. Amber crosses, HIgh EGT, Loss of oil/hydraulic fluid, loud noise/vibration/buffeting,
repeated/unctrolled engine stalls.

If we have values on N1 and N2.

613
Q

DOHA, ENGINE FAILURE. EFP = Straigh ahead, 4000ft. 17

A
  1. Control the aircraft with the rudders.
  2. VR = Rotate initially to pitch 12.5/SRS. If no good climb rate = set TOGA on both engines.
  3. PM = Positive climb = gear up = gear up, cancel master caution and reads the first line of the title.
  4. PF will get NAV on FMA = pull heading.
  5. Start TRIM the rudder, when trimmed engage AP.
  6. PF = 400ft AGL = I have control, I have communication. Confirm failure.
  7. PF = Tower, QATARI001, maydayx3 engine failure standby.
    - PM = Engine failure confirmed, with damage ENG
  8. PF = ECAM actions
  9. PF = Tower QATARI001 mayday, intention climb straight ahead 4000ft.
  10. PM = Engine secured.
  11. PF = Stop ECAM.
  12. Engine secured or ENG OUT ACC whichever is later = 1600ft = push to level off.
  13. PF = Activate secondary-
  14. Above S-speed = flaps 0. When green dot reached = pull to OPN CLB.
  15. THR MCT flashes on FMA = If TOGA = one step down. If FLX = One step down to CLB and then one step up back to MCT.
  16. PF = Continue ECAM
  17. PM = ECAM actions completed.
614
Q

Which four different configuration do we have regarding the BUSS system?

The BUSS can be activated?
DBUSS?

A
  1. No buss sytem = If affected ADR´s cannot be identified = use pitch/thrust tables
  2. Non-reversible BUSS system = turn all ADRS´s off to get it.
  3. Reversible BUSS system (two BKUP spd/ALT PB available on the main instrument panel
  4. Digital BUSS (DBUSS) system

Below FL250.
No limitation.

615
Q

Unreliable speed: If no affected ADRs can be identified? What will happen if we don´t do this and what will be lost?

A

Switch off 2 ADRs without ECAM doesnt matter which one. Otherwise if we don´t do this OVERSPEED protection will kick in, in normal law which pitchs up the aircraft and you can stall.

When we switch 2 ADRS off, we have no AP.

616
Q

Unreliable speed: PITOT OBSTRUCTION. What about ECAM and what should we do?

A

No ECAM will come up. We need to crosscheck PFD 1, PFD 2 and ISIS. If two same = we use it. We need to turn on the switching panel and turn OFF faulty ADR on overhead without ECAM! OTHERWISE we will get VLE EXCEEDENCE warning on ECAM (spurious) in this case.

617
Q

Memory items UNRELIABLE SPEED. 9

A
  1. AP OFF
  2. A/THR OFF
  3. FDs off
  4. Below Thrust reduction altitude = TOGA, Pitch 15
  5. Above thrust reduction altitude and below FL100 = CLB, 10 degrees
  6. Above thrust reduction altitude and above FL100 = CLB, 5 degrees
  7. Flaps if CONF 0, 1, 2, 3 = maintain current config. If FULL = select flaps 3 and maintain
  8. Speed brakes check retracted
  9. L/G = up
618
Q

Airplane loaded toward forward center of gravity limits? Aft?

A

Will be more stable. The more stable an aircraft becomes, the less maneuverable it will be.
Aft = less stable. Less force is required by the tail to counteract the nose down pitching moment.

619
Q

What is important to not forget with DODAR?
What is DODAR?

A

FDODAR, always review the fuel first.
D = Diagnose = situation
O = Option = what options do we have? Continuing, diverting, returning
D = Decide = What is your opinion?
A = Assign = NITS briefing = Nature, Intention, Time, Special, Approach briefing
R = Review = Has anything changed? Fuel, weather, Have we forgotten anything? Are we ready for the approach? If everthing OK = tell ATC ready for approach and do the approach checklist.

620
Q

Emergency landing: What do you say 1500ft above aerodrome? 500ft AAL?

A

Emergency stations, emergency stations

Brace Brace

621
Q

Rejected takeoff, in order to help captain in decision making when is the warnings that are not essential inhibited on ECAM? 2

Above 100kt only reject the takeoff in case off? 5

A

From 80kt up to 1500ft or 2 min after liftoff whichever occurs first.

  1. Major failure
  2. Sudden loss of thrust
  3. Abnormal indications
  4. Amber ECAM warnings (sidestick fault, failed engine, reversers unlocked, reverser fault and thrust lever fault).
  5. Any RED ECAM WARNINGS
622
Q

How do you perform a rejected takeoff? 4

PM?

A
  1. Thurst levers idle = max reverse. (stow at 70kt if enough runway left)
  2. When aircraft stopped = parking prake on
  3. PA = Attention crew at stations, attention crew at stations
  4. Order ECAM actions.

PM announce the spoilers, reverse green, decel 70kt. “QATARI001 Stopping. Locates the emergency crew checklist and starts ECAM.

623
Q

ADR 1+3 fault.

What about AIR DATA switching?

What will be lost initially?

What to think about for landing?

When gravity gear down how much is the penalty?

A

Keep it in normal do not touch it if ADR3 is failed there is no point.

AP and A/THR. THR LK on FMA = THR LEVERS MOVE. We go into alternate law and indications and PFD 1 and ISIS is lost.

Land with flaps 3. When gravity gear down = direct law. VAPP = VREF + 10kt.

When gravity gear down = fuel burn of 180% more = 2.8 more.

624
Q

When does normal pressurization occur?

A

During the takeoff roll.

625
Q

The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by mens of?

A

The trim air valves.

626
Q

When would you select RAM AIR on? 2

A

Dual pack failure or smoke removal.

627
Q

The HOT AIR valve pushbutton controls?

A

Hot air manifold.

628
Q

Avionic ventiliation system indications may be found on which ECAM page/pages?

A

Only the CAB PRESS page.

629
Q

What is the maximum altitude associated with pressurization system?

A

39100ft.

630
Q

Trim air valves are controlled by?

A

The zone controller.

631
Q

What about cargo ocmpartment ventilation?

A

Only the aft cargo is heated and ventilated.

632
Q

Outflow valve is powered by?

A

One of three electric motors.

633
Q

If a pack controller fails (primary or secondary channel failure), the pack outlet air temperature is controlled by?

A

The anti-ice-valve.

634
Q

The temperature of the air that exists the compressor in the pack become amber above?

A

230 degrees.

635
Q

Temperature regulation is controlled by one zone controller and two pack controllers.

In case of primary channel failure?
Both channel fails?

A

The secondary gives constant temperature of 24 degrees.

Pack one = 20 degrees
Pack two = 10 degrees

636
Q

The IR align light is extinguished. It means?
Flashing?

A

Alignment has been completed.

No present position has been entered = alignment fault.

637
Q

The DDRMI provides pilots?

A

Bearing only for VOR1 and VOR2.

638
Q

VOR1 in red on ND means?

A

VOR1 receiver is inoperative.

639
Q

How many DMCs do we have?

A

3

640
Q

RNAV position information is displayed on ND on which modes only?

A

ARC and ROSE NAV only.

641
Q

Which of the following has highest priority? Rangordna PFD, ND, SD

A
  1. PFD
  2. ND
  3. SD
642
Q

The GS indication will flash continously when the deviation exceeds how much and above?

A

1 dot above 100ft RA.

643
Q

The lower end of a red and black strip along the speed scale defines the VMAX speed?

A

It is the lowest of the following VMO (or MMO), VLE, VFE

644
Q

After landing, in ELEC EMER configuration, the batteries automatically connects to the DC BAT when speed is below?

A

100kt.

645
Q

If both generators are powering the system, and one fails, are any busses unpowered?

A

No, but some loads are shed in both main galleys.

645
Q

If during flight, BUS TIE pushbutton is depressed to OFF what affect would this have on power to the busses?

A

None.

646
Q

Which busses will be powered after the RAT is extended and the EMER GEN begins producing power? 5

A

BATT HOT buses, ESS DC, ESS DC SHED, ESS AC, ESS AC SHED

647
Q

ENG1 has been started, APU INOP and EXT still ON. What supplies the grenerators?

A

GEN1 supplies AC BUS1 and the downstream systems, EXT PWR supplies AC BUS 2.

648
Q

When are the ESSENTIAL SHED buses power by the battary?

A

Never. Purpose of the shed buses is to reduce load on the batteries.

649
Q

DC BAT bus can be supplied by? 3

A

DC BUS1, DC BUS 2 and batteries

650
Q

In flight in case of loss of both generators, emergency generator not running, the DC ESS BUS is supplied by?

A

Hot BUS 2

651
Q

Recirculation fans in the air conditioning system direct filtered cabin air to which area?

A

Mixing unit.

652
Q

Which three soruces does high pressure air has?

A

Engine bleed, APU load compressor and HP ground connection.

653
Q

With a loss off pneumatic system pressure, the engine bleed valve will?

A

Close.

654
Q

What indication will you see on the overhead if center tank has more than 250kg fuel and left or right wing has less then 5000kg?

A

Mode select fault.

655
Q

Fuel quantity indication on ECAM for the outer cell is boxed amber if?

A

Both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell is at low level.

656
Q

On the ground, the wing anti ice valves will?

A

Open during a test sequence of 30seconds provided pneumatic supply is available.

657
Q

What is difference between wing and engine anti ice FAULT lights?

A

Both indicates valve in transition, or valve disagree withs with selected position. Wing light could also indicate low pressure.

658
Q

When will PTU work/PTU do its test during engine start?

A

Will not work until the second engine is started.

658
Q

The LAF accumulators are pressurizedby which hydraulic systems?

A

Green and yellow.

659
Q

If landing gear was gravity extended, what other systems will be inoperative?

A

NSW only.

660
Q

If APU bleed was used, after a manual shutdown, the APU keeps runnig for?

A

60-120s.

661
Q

A/THR what is the difference between variable thrust and the speed mode?

A

In the fixed thrust mode, thrust is fixed and the elevator controls the speed.

662
Q

What is required to arm the auto brakes? 3

A

Green hydraulic pressure available, anti-skid, no failures in the braking system.

663
Q

There are two triangles for each gear on ECAM WHEEL page. What do they present?

A

Each triangle represents the position detected by one of the two computers.

664
Q

NSW is available when?

NSW is controlled by?

A

Nose gear doors closed

BSCU

665
Q

Alternate brakes using the yellow system. Autobrake is?

A

Lost

666
Q

The HOT light on the brake fan pushbutton illuminates when brake temperature reaches?

A

300 degrees.

667
Q

LDG gear indication panel, UNLK light illuminates red when?

A

Gear is not locked in selected position.

668
Q

Opening an emergency overwing exit will?

A

Automatically inflate the double lane slide off the trailing edge of the wing.

669
Q

When is the CVR energized?

Automatically stopped after last engine shutdown?

A

Automatically energized after first engine start or five minutes after electrical power is applied to the aircraft.

5 minutes after.

670
Q

Only the last X of recording are retained by the CVR?

A

2h.

671
Q

Pressing the X key, on the ACP, allows the crew to inhibit the audio navigation signals

A

VOICE

672
Q

All communication radios are controlled?

A

From any of the three RMPs. NOT THE ACPs

673
Q

When would green AM light illuminate on RMP1?

A

If AM mode is required and crew has selected HF1 on AM.

674
Q

How can you receive ATIS information from VOR?

A

Pressing and releasing out the VOR reception knob and selecting the ON voice key on the ACP.

675
Q

When is speedbrakes inhibited? 2

A

AOA protection active or flaps at full.

676
Q

What are the only flight controls without redudancy?

A

Spoilers.

677
Q

When the thrust levers are moved to takeoff position, the FMGS updates its position at takeoff using? 2

A

Navigation database and the takeoff runway entered into the MCDU by the pilot.

678
Q

All navaids are normally autotuned by?

A

The FMGC

679
Q

What do the white round light on the FCU mean?

A

Managed guidance has been armed or engaged.

680
Q

When the APU fire switch is released out? 2

A

The APU BLEED and crossbleed valves are closed

681
Q

After depressing the CARGO SMOKE TEST push button once, a satisfactory test of the aft cargo compartment smoke detector consist off?

A

Two complete cycles with associated warnings.

682
Q

What is a dutch roll?

A

Combination of rolling and yawing oscillations that occurs when the dihedral effects of an aircraft are more powerful than the directional stability.

683
Q

Who is CEO of QATAR?

A

Badr Mohammed Al Meer

684
Q

What is the temperature at the tropopause at the poles/equator?

A

Poles = -45C
Equator = -75C

685
Q

ICAO holding speeds and altitudes? 4

A

14000 or below = 230kt.
14000 to 20000 = 240kt
20000 to 34000 = 265kt
Above 34000 ft = M0.83

686
Q

What are the MNPS (minimum navigation performance specifications) altitude limits?

A

FL285-FL420.

QATAR (2 decks)

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