Interview Flashcards

1
Q

What is Static air temperature (SAT)

A

Also known as the Ambient or Outside air temperature. It is the temperature of the free air surrounding an airplane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Total air temperature (TAT)

A

The temperature of the air entering a sensor in the airflow that is warmer than the SAT due to kinetic/dynamic heating caused by the air hitting the aircraft/sensor. (Boundary layer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the different types of ice.

A

Rime, Clear, Mixed, Frost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do you report icing?

A

Trace- you can start to notice ice. Don’t necessarily need to use. D/A equ unless you hang out in the ice for more than an hour.

Light- need to use D/A equ. and system can handle it.

Moderate- the rate of accumulation is such that even short encounters are potentially hazardous. Must use D/A equ.

Severe- D/A equ can’t keep up or the ice is accumulating in unprotected areas. Must exit the conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is RVSM?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum

Between FL290 and FL410 uses 1000ft vertical separation between levels. Adds 6 additional flight levels to use.
Odd flight levels go east and even flight levels go west.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is VMC?

A

Minimum Controllable Airspeed
Red line on ASI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What factors are used to set VMC?

A

Standard Day at Sea level
Most unfavorable weight
Aft CG
Critical engine windmilling
Flaps in take off position
Landing gear up
Up to 5 degree bank
Max power on operating engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is VYSE

A

Best Rate of climb single engine

Blue line on ASI. Best climb if possible or best drift down speed if unable to climb or hold altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What engine is the Critical engine.

A

On a conventional twin it is the left engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the difference between a AIRMET and a SIGMET

A

AIRMETS- are important to all aircraft but potentially hazardous to aircraft having limited capabilities. Come in 3 types:
Zulu - icing and freezing level
Sierra - IFR conditions or MTN obscu
Tango - turbulence, wind shear

SIGMET- significant serious weather concerning all aircraft.
Severe turbulence (CAT)
Severe icing, dust/sand/ash storms reducing visibility to less than 3 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a MEL

A

Minimum Equipment List

An exact listing of equipment, instruments, and procedures that allow an aircraft to fly under specific conditions and limitations with certain equipment inoperative. Must be approved by the FAA and followed regardless of operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is required to not need a planned filed alternate. Part 135

A

You always need an alternate unless 1 hr before and after your ETA the approved weather reports/forecast indicate the ceilings to be 1500 feet above the lowest circling MDA or above the lowest published approved approach minimum or 2000 feet above the airport elevation whatever is higher.

At least 3 miles visibility or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable approach visibility minimum which ever is greater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

To use an airport as an alternate. Part135 per OpSpec C055

A

Weather must report that at ETA the weather will be at or above alternate landing minimums

For one approach add 400ft to MDA or DA and 1sm to required visibility

For two approaches add 200ft to the higher DA or MDA and add 1/2 sm to the highest visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the standard IFR climb gradient?

A

200 feet per nautical mile.

Crossed the departure end of the runway at 35 feet climb to 400 feet above the runway elevation before turning and then maintained a minimum of 200 feet per nautical mile. This is over the 40:1 obstacle identification surface, which is 152 feet per nautical mile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Holding pattern speeds

A

6,000 and below - 200kts
6,001 to 14,000 - 230kts
14,001 and above - 265kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Speed limit below 10,000

A

250 kts

17
Q

What is V1

A

Often called takeoff decision speed however the decision to abort a takeoff must have occurred prior to V1. At or above V1 a takeoff will be continued even if an engine fails.

18
Q

How does V1change if the runway is wet and why? 

A

V1 would decrease. The wet runway would increase the accelerate-stop distance, requiring the V1 speed to be reduced. V1 can never be below Vmcg and never higher than Vr.

19
Q

Approach weather required. Part 135

A

Must have weather reports with current ceilings, visibility and altimeter setting. Can not begin approach unless the weather is at or above the approach minimums. Visibility is controlling not ceilings.

20
Q

What is required to go below DA or MDA?

A

Continuous position for a normal landing to be made. Part 135 must land in the touchdown zone (usually the fort 3000ft of runway).

Have the required flight visibility for the approach.

Have one of the following visual references:
Approach lighting system (but no lower than 100ft above TDZE unless you can also see the red terminating bar or the red side row bar lights.
The runway end identifier lights (REIL)
VASI/PAPI
Threshold, Threshold marking threshold lights
Touchdown zone, touchdown zone makings, touchdown zone lights
Runway, runway markings, runway lights.