Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Internal Medicine > Internal Medicine Pearls > Flashcards

Internal Medicine Pearls Flashcards

1
Q

Loratadine

A

Claritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Catapres

A

Clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the mechanism of clonidine

A

Stimulates alpha 2 adrenergic receptors

Central acting anti hypertensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common cause of HTN in a young healthy non smoker?

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most likely cause of HTN in a diabetic obese male with hyperlipemia?

A

Atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What treatment options are available for widely resistant bacterial infections

A

Consider using an older antibiotic like colistin that is no longer tested for resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does sepsis effect lactic acidosis

A

Sepsis increases the risk of lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How should metformin be adjusted for in patient hospital stay

A

It should be stopped to prevent lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How should a patient be managed for in patient alcohol detox

A

Fixed dose step down of Librium (longer hospital stay)

Referral to psych

For younger patients use 10 mg baclofen TID and Ativan PRN

Severity of symptoms is increased over the age of 45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the problem with using antipsychotics with anti-arrhythmics

A

Severe QT prolongation

Sedation with Benzos may be the only option for treating delirium in a patient on a phase III anti arrhythmic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the mechanism of rabeprazole

A

Inhibits the hydrogen potassium ATPase of gastric parietal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the 1st generation cephalosporins

A

Cefazolin

Cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the third generation cephalosporins

A 
Ceftibuten
Cefdinir
Cefotaximine
Ceftriaxone
Cefixime
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name the 4th generation cephalosporins

A

Cefepime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the fifth generation cephalosporins

A

Cetaroline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the community service board

A

Psychiatry evaluation that determines if the patient is unsafe for themself and the need for care. The referral does not require patient consents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a cosyntropin stimulation test

A

Baseline ACTH drawn.

30 minutes after cosyntropin IV injection of 1 µg cosyntropin draw blood for ACTH

60 minutes after 1 µg bolus cosyntropin injection draw blood for ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What labs are a good indicator of gallstones and pancreatitis

A

AST three times of baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the common bugs the cause community acquired pneumonia

A

Typical’s: strep pneumonia H. influenzae

Atypicals: Legionella, chlamydia, Mycoplasma

Special risk factors: alcoholics, aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the two treatment options for community acquired pneumonia

A
  1. Fluoroquinolone

2. Macrolide plus cephalosporin third-generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the respiratory fluoroquinolones

A
  1. Levofloxacin.

2. Avelox.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The patient is taking Lasix how do you check the kidney function

A

Do not get the FeNa with Lasix you will need to get the FeUria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How’s the CNS Penetration of Zosyn

A

Poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Todd’s paralysis

A

Postictal states in which lethargy and confusion can remain for sometime. Maybe accompanied by focal neurologic deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Byetta

A

Exenatide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the mechanism of exenatide

A

Activates the GLP-1 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When will serum urate become supersaturated

A

6.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What serum level of urate should be treated to

A

Always treat below 6.0. If tophi are present treat to below 5.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What items will induce a gout flair up

A

-Red meat, Beer, Shellfish, yeast, low dose ASA, Chemo, diuretics, ETOH, nicotine Aid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Are most gout patients over Producers or under excretor’s

A

90% are Under excretor’s

Less than 800 mg in 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is gout managed

A

Managing flareups (Steroids, NSAIDs, colchicine)

Using urate lowering therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What options are available for urate lowering therapy

A

Uricosurics such as probenecid

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors such as allopurinol, Oxipurinol, or feboxustat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is incentive spirometery

A

The program was intensive and involved breathing exercises, incentive spirometry, and education in active breathing and forced expiration techniques. Postoperative pulmonary complication rates for experimental and control groups were 18 and 35 percent, respectively, OR 0.52 [95% CI 0.30-0.92]. Median length of stay was one day shorter for the group receiving inspiratory muscle training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the major causes of post operative fever

A

The five W’s

  • wind (atalectasis)
  • water (UTI)
  • wound (infection)
  • walking (DVT’s)
  • Wonder drug
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Semethicone

A

Gas X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the major causes of cellulitis

A 
Strep pyogenes (GAS)
Staph aureus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the difference between erysipelas and cellulitis

A

Cellulitis is a deeper

Erysipelas is superficial, more demarcated border.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Is erysipelas more often strep or staph infection

A

More commonly strep. But could be either

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Is cellulitis more commonly staph or strep

A

More commonly staph but could be either.

Staph is often associated with abscesses and a more purulent discharge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What treatment options are available treatment of cellulitis

A

Clindamycin
Bactrum plus amoxicillin

Less coverage of gram positive but still effective:
Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a major complication of clindamycin

A

C. Diff associated diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Discuss necrotizing fasciitis

A
  • Rapid progressing.
  • Pockets of abscess.
  • Be sure to draw lines surrounding the border.
  • Ensure frequent short duration follow-up.
  • Patient presents with disproportionate pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the causes of necrotizing fasciitis

A

Clostridium

GAS

Poly microbial including anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is Ranson scoring

A

A score based upon Ranson’s criteria is one of the earliest scoring systems for severity in Acute Pancreatitis.

Ranson’s criteria consist of 11 parameters. Five of the factors are assessed at admission and six are assessed during the next 48 hours

Mortality increases with an increasing score. Using the 11 component score, mortality was 0 to 3 percent when the score was <3,
11 to 15 percent when the score was ≥3,
40 percent when the score was ≥6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the components of Ranson scoring

A 
At admission:
Age in years > 55 years
White blood cell count > 16000 cells/mm3
Blood glucose > 10 mmol/L (> 200 mg/dL)
Serum AST > 250 IU/L
Serum LDH > 350 IU/L

Within 48 hours:
Calcium (serum calcium < 2.0 mmol/L (< 8.0 mg/dL)
Hematocrit fall > 10%
Oxygen (hypoxemia PO2 < 60 mmHg)
BUN increased by 1.8 or more mmol/L (5 or more mg/dL) after IV fluid hydration
Base deficit (negative base excess) > 4 mEq/L
Sequestration of fluids > 6 L

The criteria for point assignment is that a certain breakpoint be met at anytime during that 48 hour period, so that in some situations it can be calculated shortly after admission. It is applicable to non-gallstone pancreatitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is tachy - Brady syndrome

A

Also known as sick sinus syndrome

an umbrella term for a group of abnormal heart rhythms (arrhythmias) presumably caused by a malfunction of the sinus node, the heart’s primary pacemaker. Bradycardia-tachycardia syndrome is a variant of sick sinus syndrome in which slow arrhythmias and fast arrhythmias alternate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are common etiologies to prerenal AKI

A

Hypovolemia (dehydration)
Decrease contractility
Systemic vasodilation (sepsis)
Renal vasoconstriction (NSAIDs, ACE/ARBs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How can the determination of prerenal AKI be made?

A

FE(Na) < 1%
BUN/CR > 20
Uosm > 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How can the determination of prerenal AKI be made if a patient is on lasics

A

FE(un) < 35%

FE(un)= [U(un)/P(un)] / [U(cr)/P(cr)]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the formula for FE(Na)

A

FE(Na)= [U(Na)/P(Na)] / [U(cr)/P(cr)]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How does PTH related chronic kidney disease

A

The greater the target range of PTH equals a more severe stage chronic kidney disease

Stage III as target PTH of 35 to 70

Stage IV has target PTH of 70 to 110

Stage V has target PTH 150 to 300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the key ingredients in a lactated ringer

A 
130 mEq of Na ion = 130 mmol/L
109 mEq of Cl ion = 109 mmol/L
28 mEq of lactate = 28 mmol/L
4 mEq of K ion = 4 mmol/L
3 mEq of Ca ion = 1.5 mmol/L

Lactated Ringers has an osmolarity of 273 mOsm/L. The lactate is metabolized into bicarbonate by the liver, which can help correct metabolic acidosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the SIRS criteria

A

Temp: > 38 °C or < 36
Heart rate: >90/min
RR >20/min or PaCO2 12,000 or 10% bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is leukocytosis

A

Leukocytosis is a white blood cell count (the leukocyte count) above the normal range in the blood. It is frequently a sign of an inflammatory response, most commonly the result of infection, and is observed in certain parasitic infections. It may also occur after strenuous exercise, convulsions such as epilepsy, emotional stress, pregnancy and labour, anesthesia, and epinephrine administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the classifications of leukocytosis

A 
There are five principal types of leukocytosis:
Neutrophilia (the most common form)
Lymphocytosis
Monocytosis
Eosinophilia
Basophilia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the band cell

A

A band cell (also called band neutrophil or stab cell) is a cell undergoing granulopoiesis, derived from a metamyelocyte, and leading to a mature granulocyte.
It is characterized by having a nucleus which is curved, but not lobar.
The term “band cell” implies a granulocytic lineage (neutrophil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is tacrolimus indicated

A

To induce immune suppression for transplants rejection therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the only fluoroquinolone that has anaerobic coverage

A

Avelox (moxifloxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the normal levels of lactate

A

0.5 to 2.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

At what level of Lactate should sepsis be a concern

A

Lactate greater than 4.0 consider septic shock until proven otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What bacterial infections is clindamycin used to treat

A

Aerobic Gram-positive cocci, including some members of the Staphylococcus and Streptococcus (e.g. pneumococcus) genera, but not enterococci.[13]

Anaerobic, Gram-negative rod-shaped bacteria, including some Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella, although resistance is increasing in Bacteroides fragilis.

Most aerobic Gram-negative bacteria (such as Pseudomonas, Legionella, Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella) are resistant to clindamycin,[13][14] as are the facultative anaerobic Enterobacteriaceae.[15] A notable exception is Capnocytophaga canimorsus, for which clindamycin is a first-line drug of choice.[16]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the function of the AST / ALT ratio

A

When greater than 2.0, it is more likely to be associated with viral hepatitis, alcoholic hepatitis[4] or hepatocellular carcinoma

When greater than 1.0 but less than 2.0, it is likely to be associated with cirrhosis
It is normally less than 1.0

However, the AST/ALT ratio is less useful in scenarios where the liver enzymes are not elevated, or where multiple conditions co-exist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Is a ALT or AST a better indicator of inflammation

A

ALT is a more specific indicator of liver inflammation than AST, as AST may be elevated also in diseases affecting other organs, such as myocardial infarction, acute pancreatitis, acute hemolytic anemia, severe burns, acute renal disease, musculoskeletal diseases, and trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the clinical significance of an elevated ALT

A

Significantly elevated levels of ALT(SGPT) often suggest the existence of other medical problems such as viral hepatitis, diabetes, congestive heart failure, liver damage, bile duct problems, infectious mononucleosis, or myopathy.

For this reason, ALT is commonly used as a way of screening for liver problems. Elevated ALT may also be caused by dietary choline deficiency. However, elevated levels of ALT do not automatically mean that medical problems exist.

Fluctuation of ALT levels is normal over the course of the day, and ALT levels can also increase in response to strenuous physical exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What pathologies will cause an increase and ALK PHOS

A

The normal range is 20 to 140 IU/L.

High ALP levels can show that the bile ducts are blocked.

Levels are significantly higher in children and pregnant women.

Also, elevated ALP indicates that there could be active bone formation occurring as ALP is a byproduct of osteoblast activity (such as the case in Paget’s disease of bone).

Levels are also elevated in people with untreated Celiac Disease.

Lowered levels of ALP are less common than elevated levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the pathologies that will cause hyperbillirubinemia?

A
  1. Mild rises in bilirubin may be caused by:
    - Hemolysis or increased breakdown of red blood cells
    - Gilbert’s syndrome – a genetic disorder of bilirubin metabolism that can result in mild jaundice, found in about 5% of the population
    - Rotor syndrome: non-itching jaundice, with rise of bilirubin in the patient’s serum, mainly of the conjugated type.
  2. Moderate rise in bilirubin may be caused by:
    - Pharmaceutical drugs (especially antipsychotic, some sex hormones, and a wide range of other drugs)
    - Sulfonamides are contraindicated in infants less than 2 months old (exception when used with pyrimethamine in treating toxoplasmosis) as they increase unconjugated bilirubin leading to kernicterus.[14]
    - Hepatitis (levels may be moderate or high)
    - Chemotherapy
    - Biliary stricture (benign or malignant)
  3. Very high levels of bilirubin may be caused by:
    - Neonatal hyperbilirubinaemia, where the newborn’s liver is not able to properly process the bilirubin causing jaundice
    - Unusually large bile duct obstruction, e.g. stone in common bile duct, tumour obstructing common bile duct etc.
    - Severe liver failure with cirrhosis (e.g. primary biliary cirrhosis)
    - Crigler–Najjar syndrome
    - Dubin–Johnson syndrome
    - Choledocholithiasis (chronic or acute).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How can volume depletion be determined

A
  1. urine Na concentration remains below 15 meq/L

2. Elevated specific gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is S1Q3T3

A

EKG interpretation that shows an S wave in I a Q wave and inverted T wave in lead III. It is the classical sign of a PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the wells score

A

Calculation used to determine the risk of Pulmonary embolism. Criteria include:

  1. Symptoms of DVT (3)
  2. No alternative dx (3)
  3. tachycardia > 100 (1.5)
  4. immobilizations or surgery (within 4 weeks) (1.5)
  5. Hx of DVT (1.5)
  6. hemoptysis (1)
  7. malignancy (1)

Score greater than 6 is high probability
Score less than 2 is low probability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Colace

A

docusate sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the mechanism of docusate sodium

A

stool softner.

Facilitates mixture of stool fat and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Senna soft

A

Sennosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the mechanism of sennosides

A

increases peristalsis (Stimulant laxative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the 3 mechanism in which T-bili can be elevated

A 
increased production (hemolysis), 
intrahepatic causes (toxins, injury, gilberts),
posthepatic causes (obstruction/gall stones)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the major risk factors for NASH (non alcoholic steatohepatitis)

A

obesity
DM
hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

macule

A

A flat, generally less than 0.5 cm in diameter area of skin or mucous membranes with different color than surrounding tissue. Color may be tan, brown, blue, red, or hypopigmented; macules may have nonpalpable, fine scale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

patch

A

A flat, generally greater than 0.5cm in diameter area of skin or mucous membrane with different color than surrounding tissue. Color may be tan, brown, blue, red or hypopigmented; patches may have nonpalpable, fine scale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Papule

A

Discrete, solid, elevated bodies, usually less than 0.5cm in diameter. Papules are further classified by shape, size, color and surface characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

plaques

A

Discrete, solid, elevated bodies, broader than they are thick, measuring more than 0.5cm in diameter. Plaques may be further classified by shape, size, color and surface characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

nodules

A

Dermal or subdermal lesions that are firm, well-defined, and usually greater than 0.5cm in diameter. Cysts are fluid-filled nodules. Large nodules are called tumors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

pustules

A

Circumscribed elevations that contain pus. Pustules are usually less than 0.5cm in diameter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

vesicles

A

Fluid-filled cavities that are less than 0.5cm in diameter. Vesicles may be filled with fluid that is clear, serous, hemorrhagic or purulent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

bullae

A

Fluid-filled blisters greater than 0.5cm in diameter. Bullae can be filled with fluid that is clear, serous, hemorrhagic or purulent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is Inducible clinicamycin resistance

A

MRSA can develop resistance rapidly to single antibiotic treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

How long should septic arthritis be treated

A

Four weeks IV antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How long should a septic bursitis be treated

A

Three weeks oral antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How does treatment of staph aureus cellulitis differ from strep cellulitis

A

Staff aureus requires two weeks IV vancomycin because staph aureus can seed other areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The patient presents with coma, what are the medical treatments to counteract the coma.

A

Glucose (diabetes)

Thiamine (wernickes)

Flumazenil (Benzos)

Narcan (opiod antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the mechanism of benzonate

A

Anesthetizes respiratory passage, lung and pleural stretch receptors, reducing cough reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are delirium tremens

A

Delirium tremens (DT) is defined by hallucinations, disorientation, tachycardia, hypertension, fever, agitation, and diaphoresis in the setting of acute reduction or abstinence from alcohol. In the absence of complications, symptoms of DT can persist for up to seven days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How is the level of alcohol withdrawal determined

A

CIWA-Ar Score

Clinical Institute withdrawal assessment scale for alcohol revised

Less than 8 none to minimal withdrawal
8 to 15 mild
16 to 20 moderate
greater than 20 severe

92
Q

What is a modified madrey’s discriminate function

A

predict prognosis in alcoholic hepatitis

(4.6 x (PT test - control))+ S.Bilirubin in mg/dl

Prospective studies have shown that, it is useful in predicting short term prognosis especially mortality within 30 days. A value more than 32 implies poor outcome with one month mortality ranging between 35% to 45%.

93
Q

How is obesity hyperventilation syndrome different from obstructive sleep apnea

A

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome is a form of sleep disordered breathing. Two subtypes are recognized, depending on the nature of disordered breathing detected on further investigations.

The first is OHS in the context of obstructive sleep apnea; this is confirmed by the occurrence of 5 or more episodes of apnea, hypopnea or respiratory-related arousals per hour (high apnea-hypopnea index) during sleep.

The second is OHS primarily due to “sleep hypoventilation syndrome”; this requires a rise of CO2 levels by 10 mmHg (1.3 kPa) after sleep compared to awake measurements and overnight drops in oxygen levels without simultaneous apnea or hypopnea.[1][3] Overall, 90% of all people with OHS fall into the first category, and 10% in the second.[2]
[edit]

94
Q

Discuss GGT

A

Blood test results for GGT suggest that the normal value for men is 15-85 IU/L, whereas for women it is 5-55 IU/L.[9]

Elevated serum GGT activity can be found in diseases of the liver, biliary system, and pancreas. In this respect, it is similar to alkaline phosphatase (ALP) in detecting disease of the biliary tract. Indeed, the two markers correlate well, though there is conflicting data about whether GGT has better sensitivity.[10][11] In general, ALP is still the first test for biliary disease.

The main value of GGT over ALP is in verifying that ALP elevations are, in fact, due to biliary disease; ALP can also be increased in certain bone diseases, but GGT is not.[11] More recently, slightly elevated serum GGT has also been found to correlate with cardiovascular diseases and is under active investigation as a cardiovascular risk marker. GGT in fact accumulates in atherosclerotic plaques,[12] suggesting a potential role in pathogenesis of cardiovascular diseases,[13] and circulates in blood in the form of distinct protein aggregates,[14] some of which appear to be related to specific pathologies such as metabolic syndrome, alcohol addiction and chronic liver disease. High body mass index is associated with type 2 diabetes only in persons with high serum GGT.[15]

GGT is elevated by large quantities of alcohol ingestion. Determination of total serum GGT activity is however not specific to alcohol intoxication,[16] and the measurement of selected serum forms of the enzyme offer more specific information.[14] Isolated elevation or disproportionate elevation compared to other liver enzymes (such as ALP or ALT) may indicate alcohol abuse or alcoholic liver disease.[17] It may indicate excess alcohol consumption up to 3 or 4 weeks prior to the test. The mechanism for this elevation is unclear. Alcohol may increase GGT production by inducing hepatic microsomal production, or it may cause the leakage of GGT from hepatocytes.[18]
Numerous drugs can raise GGT levels, including barbiturates and phenytoin.[19] GGT elevation has also been occasionally reported following NSAIDs, St. John’s wort, and aspirin. Elevated levels of GGT may also be due to congestive heart failure.[20]

95
Q

Will alkaline phosphatase be elevated with alcoholic liver disease

A

No

96
Q

How is magnesium effect with alcoholics

A

Alcoholics tend to waste total body stores magnesium

97
Q

How is the spleen related to platelets

A

Splenomegaly will cause thrombocytopenia

98
Q

What is traubes space

A

Traube’s (semilunar) space is an anatomic region of some clinical importance. It is a crescent-shaped space, encompassed by the lower edge of the left lung, the anterior border of the spleen, the left costal margin and the inferior margin of the left lobe of the liver. Thus, its surface markings are respectively the left sixth rib, the left anterior axillary line, and the left costal margin.

Dulness to percussion is significant for splenomegaly

99
Q

What is the difference in mechanism concerning vancomycin and oxicillin

A

Oxacillin is bacteriocidal vancomycin is bacteriostatic

100
Q

What significance is a positive D-test for Clindamyosin

A

Positive D test indicates an inducible resistance

101
Q

discuss how to determine basil and sliding scale insulin

A

Factor .3 is used for Insulin sensitive
factor .4 Is used for moderate patients
factor .5 for insulin resistant patients

Multiply the factor times the body weight in kilograms

Set 50% for basal insulin 50% for sliding scale Insulin. Have a sliding scale insulin broke up for each of the three meals.

Divide the daily caloric intake by the factor determines from body weight in kilograms To determine the sliding scale range

Once insulin total is greater than 200 change to a higher potency

102
Q

What are Dercum’s

A

Also known as adiposis Dolorosa

Rare disease that consists of painful lipomas

103
Q

What are McGreers criteria for UTI

A

Includes only symptomatic urinary tract infections

No Indwelling Catheter
Must have three of the following:

fever >= 100.4°F/ > 38°C or chills
new or increased burning on urination, frequency or urgency
new flank or suprapubic pain or tenderness
new change in character of urine
worsening of mental or functional status

With Indwelling Catheter
Must have two of the following:

fever >= 100.4°F/ > 38°C or chills
new flank or suprapubic pain or tenderness
change in character of urine
worsening of mental or functional status

104
Q

How is opiates withdrawal scored

A

COWS

Subjective score based off withdrawal symptoms including gooseflesh and pinpoint pupils along with trimmers sweats and arthralgias

Score:
5-12 = mild;
13-24 = moderate;
25-36 = moderately severe;
more than 36 = severe withdrawal
105
Q

What is significant with a lactate of 4.0

A

One third of patients will die within one month

106
Q

How is a upper G.I. bleed scored

A

Glasgow-Blatchford Bleeding Score (GBS)

107
Q

Name the top 4 severe upper G.I. bleed

A
  1. Esophageal varices
  2. Borheaves
  3. Peptic ulcer bleeds.
  4. gastritis
108
Q

What are the common causes of lower G.I.

A

Diverticulosis

Hemorrhoids

Malignancy

Colitis

Mesenteric ischemia, VTE

109
Q

What is gave syndrome

A

Gastric antral vascular ectasia (GAVE) is an uncommon cause of chronic gastrointestinal bleeding or iron deficiency anemia. The condition is associated with dilated small blood vessels in the antrum, or the last part of the stomach. The dilated vessels result in intestinal bleeding. It is also called watermelon stomach because streaky long red areas that are present in the stomach may resemble the markings on watermelon.

110
Q

What is Dieulafoy’s lesion

A

medical condition characterized by a large tortuous arteriole in the stomach wall that erodes and bleeds. It can cause gastric hemorrhage but is relatively uncommon. It is thought to cause less than 5% of all gastrointestinal bleeds in adults. However, unlike most other aneurysms these are thought to be developmental malformations rather than degenerative changes.

The lesion will cease bleeding with the volume depletion

111
Q

What is the generic treatment for an upper G.I. bleed

A

Use protonic for 24 hours with IV drip followed by oral

Two large bore IVs

Typing cross prepare for transfusion.

112
Q

What is the ratio of a blood transfusion

A

4 units of blood

2 FFP

1 platelets

113
Q

How is octreotide used for varices

A

It decreases the pressure to the varices

114
Q

Mucomyst

A

Acetylcysteine

115
Q

What are the three major liver function patterns

A

Hepatocellular
Cholestatic
Isolated hyperbillirubinemia

116
Q

Outside of the liver what can cause a significant bump in AST

A

Acute MI

117
Q

What are the causes of hepatocellular patterns

A 
Viral
Toxins
Fatty Liver
Auto Immune
Hereditary
118
Q

What is a cholestatic liver pattern

A

Increase in ALK PHOS

119
Q

What are the causes of cholestatic pattern

A

Obstruction (us dilation)

  1. Gall stones
  2. Pancreatic cancer

Dilated

  1. Sclerosing
  2. PBC
120
Q

What antibodies are associated with auto immune hepatitis

A

Anti smooth

121
Q

What antibodies are associated with auto immune cholangitis

A

Anti mitochondria

122
Q

What is the first blood cell line that is increased after chemo

A

Monocytes

123
Q

What is the most specific EKG pattern for a pulmonary embolism

A

Inverted T waves on leads V1-V4

124
Q

What is S1Q3T3

A

Indicates right heart strain.

Suspicious of cor pulmonale

125
Q

What is polyglandular autoimmune disease

A

Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 1 (APECED or Whitaker’s syndrome)
Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 2 (Schmidt’s syndrome)
The most serious but rarest form is the X-linked polyendocrinopathy, immunodeficiency and diarrhea-syndrome, also called XLAAD (X-linked autoimmunity and allergic dysregulation) or IPEX (immune dysfunction, polyendocrinopathy, and enteropathy, X-linked). This is due to mutation of the FOXP3 gene on the X chromosome.[3] Most patients develop diabetes and diarrhea as neonates and many die due to autoimmune activity against many organs. Boys are affected, while girls are carriers and might suffer mild disease.
[edit]

126
Q

What is the time period that is being examined when a creatinine measurement is taken

A

Previous 24 hours

127
Q

Discuss contrast induced nephropathy

A

Typically occurs 2-5 days

Mucomyst to reduce inflammation
Increase fluids (125/hour)
Dialysis as necessary

128
Q

What are the three most common bugs with CF

A

Pseudomonas Cepacia
Staph Aureus
Pseudomonas Aeriginosa

129
Q

What is the correction factor for Na with elevated glucose

A

For every 100 over 100 multiply by 1.6 and add to Na.

476 glucose with Na 130
3.76x1.6=6
Corrected Na = 136

130
Q

What is the general rule for fluid resuscitation

A

Volume: Hourly Rate
– Divide daily maintenance by 24 or use “4:2:1 rule”

Patient’s Weight Range

Hourly maintenance fluid rate

if 10 kg or less—Pt. needs 4 mL/hr. for each kg

if 11-20 kg—Pt. needs 40 mL/hr. PLUS 2 mL/hr. for each kg over 10 (or 3mL/kg)

if more than 20 kg—Pt. needs 60 mL/hr. PLUS 1 mL/hr. for each kg over 20 (or 2mL/kg)

131
Q

What is the difference between hypervolemia and dehydration?

A

Dehydration is loss of free water and is always associated with hypernatremia

132
Q

How quickly should lactate be corrected

A

It should be normalized in 4 hours. Always treat to 2.0

133
Q

Precedex

A

Dexmedetomidine

134
Q

What is the mechanism of Dexmedetomidine

A

Produces centrally mediated sympatholytic, sedative and analgesic effects

Used for sedation

135
Q

What is the child Pugh scoring

A

is used to assess the prognosis of chronic liver disease, mainly cirrhosis. Although it was originally used to predict mortality during surgery, it is now used to determine the prognosis, as well as the required strength of treatment and the necessity of liver transplantation.

Points Cla. 1 yr. 2 yr
5-6 A 100% 85%
7-9 B 81% 57%
10-15 C 45% 35%

136
Q

Keppra

A

Levetiracetam

137
Q

When is Levetiracetam indicated

A

Seizures

138
Q

Should you go pressors through a peripheral line

A

No! Possibility of limb ischemia and loss of limb

139
Q

Levophed

A

Norepinephrine

140
Q

What is the problem of using dopamine as a pressor

A

Dopamine is very pro arrhythmic

Use levophed instead

141
Q

How do you rule out cardiogenic shock

A

Echocardiogram

142
Q

Should you give positive inotropes or chronotropes with diastolic heart failure

A

No. You will further exacerbate the problem

143
Q

What is the mechanism of cyclosporine

A

Anti-IL2

144
Q

What is boaz sign

A

Right shoulder pain associated with gall bladder disease

145
Q

What are the baseline BNP levels that carry an 84% specificity

A

< 50 yo is BNP of 450
50-75 is BNP of 900
>75 is BNP of 1800

146
Q

What are the MDR risk factors

A 
90 days prior abx use
2 days of hospital stay in previous 90 days
Chemotherapy
Dialysis
Long term care facility
147
Q

What is the tx for outpatient CAP

A

Macrolide

Doxycycline

148
Q

What is the tx for failed outpatient or in patient CAP

A

Levoquin

149
Q

What is the to for ICU CAP

A

Ceftriaxone
Azithromycin

Or
Fluoroquinolone

150
Q

What is the tx HCAP MDR

A

Vancomycin

Zosyn

151
Q

What penacillins have pseudomonas coverage

A
  1. All carbapenims except ertapenim
  2. Tobramycin & Gentamycin
  3. Levofloxacin & ciprofloxacin
  4. Aztreonam
152
Q

Bentyl

A

Dicyclomine

153
Q

What is the mechanism and indications for dicyclomine

A

Anticholinergic and relaxes smooth muscle.

Indicated for IBS

154
Q

What are Wellington wave on an EKG

A

Biphasic T waves in V1-V4

Indicates impending proximal LAD occlusion. Emergent cath necessary to prevent STEMI

155
Q

What is used for DVT’S prophylaxis

A
  1. Activity
  2. Mechanical (SCD’s)
  3. Medical (heparin or lovenox)
156
Q

When should you use heparin instead of lovenox

A

STEMI
Allergies

Heparin has a shorter half life (1.5 hrs) and is easily reversible with protamine.

Lovenox half life is 12 hours

157
Q

What is an IJ line.

A

Internal jugular line (central venous line)

158
Q

What is Hoffman sign

A

tingling sensation triggered by a mechanical stimulus in the distal part of an injured nerve. This sensation radiates peripherally, from the point where it is triggered to the cutaneous distribution of the nerve. The tingling response can be compared with that produced by a weak electric current, as in transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS). This unpleasant sensation is not a severe pain and does not persist

159
Q

What are muehrcke’s lines

A

changes in the fingernail that may be a sign of an underlying medical disorder or condition. Muehrcke’s lines are white lines (leukonychia) that extend all the way across the nail and lie parallel to the lunula (half moon). In contrast to Beau’s lines, they are not grooved. The lines are actually in the vascular nail bed underneath the nail plate, and as such, they do not move with nail growth. Meuhrcke’s lines disappear when pressure is placed over the nail, blanching the underlying nail bed.

160
Q

What are some clinical findings of the hands that are associated with cirrhosis

A 
Asterixis
Hoffmann sign
Hypothenar
Muehrcke's lines
Clubbing
161
Q

Phenergan

A

Promethazine

162
Q

Endocort EC

A

Budesonide

163
Q

What is the most common cause of death In a patient with cirrhosis

A

Bleeding and infection due to decreased protein production

164
Q

What is the mechanism of rifaximin

A

Reduces ureas producing bacterial flora

165
Q

Is albumin beneficial for cirrhosis

A

No clear benefit currently defined

166
Q

What is prophylactic tx of gastroesophogeal varicies.

A

Non selective Beta blockers. Not preventative. Will decrease mortality.

Nadolol or propranolol

Goal of treatment is decrease of 25%

167
Q

What is SBP

A

Spontaneous bacterial Peritonitis

168
Q

What is the tx for SBP

A

Cefotaximine 2 gms IV Q 8 hrs x 5 days

If no encephalopathy or ARF can use PO Ofloxacin.

Major bugs include klebsiela, enterics, and E. coli

169
Q

What causes decompensated cirrhosis

A 
Constipation
Infection
Increased alcohol intake
Medication
Bleeding from esophageal varicies
170
Q

What is hepatopulmonary syndrome

A

Triad of

  1. Liver disease
  2. Impaired oxygenation
  3. Intrapulmonary vascular abnormalities (referred to as intrapulmonary vascular dilations - IPVD’s)

PiO2 < 80
AA gradient > 15

171
Q

What is decompensated cirrhosis

A

1 of the four

  1. Ascites
  2. SBP
  3. Worsening
  4. Hepatic encephalopathy
172
Q

What is a tips procedure

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt or transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic stent shunting (commonly abbreviated as TIPS or TIPSS) is an artificial channel within the liver that establishes communication between the inflow portal vein and the outflow hepatic vein. It is used to treat portal hypertension (which is often due to liver cirrhosis) which frequently leads to intestinal bleeding (esophageal varices) or the buildup of fluid within the abdomen (ascites)

173
Q

What is platypnea

A

refers to shortness of breath (dyspnea) that is relieved when lying down,[3] and worsens when sitting or standing up. It is the opposite of orthopnea. The word is derived from the Greek platus (= flat) and pnoia (=breath).

174
Q

What must be considered if more than 5 L is pulled from a patient with ascites

A

Oncotic pressure is very low, add albumin replacement otherwise you may induce a hepatorenal syndrome. Death will occur in 1-2 weeks.

175
Q

What are the seronegative arthritis

A

IBD associated
Ankylosing
Psoriatic
Reactive

176
Q

What is 96 % specific test for RA

A

Anti-CCP

177
Q

What is a CAT test

A

COPD Assessment Test

Subjective patient completed survey grading the patients severity of COPD

178
Q

What is a good mnemonic to follow for keeping ROS organized.

A

RICHMAN

Respiratory
Infection
Cardiovascular
Heme/onc
Metabolites
Ailamentary
Neurological
Skin
179
Q

What can be used to reduce immunogenicity of patients taking biologics

A

Methotrexate in addition to biologics grossly reduces immunogenicity responses against the biologics

180
Q

What is the mechanism of plaquanil

A

Plaquanil prevents the lysosomes ability to modify pH and thus limits protein production and therefore modifies the immune system

181
Q

What is the mechanism of etanercept

A

Binds and inhibits soluble TNF a

182
Q

How is RA diagnosed

A
  1. Points on arthritis
  2. ESR / CRP
  3. CCP / RF
  4. Present greater than 6 weeks
183
Q

Discuss the basic potency of the statins

A

Crestor is 2 times as potent as Lipitor
Lipitor is 2 times as potent as zocor
Zocor is 2 times as potent as prevastatin

184
Q

What is the dosing regimen of Tylenol

A

1-2 tabs 325 mg PO Q 4-6 hrs PRN

Max is 1 gram/4 hours or 4 gram/ day

185
Q

What is the dosing regimen of Motrin

A

Take 1-2 200 mg tabs PO Q 4-6 PRN

Max dose is 2400/ day

186
Q

What is acapella breathing treatment

A

Acappella is a handheld device that combines the resistive features of a positive expiratory pressure (PEP) device with oscillations. The physiologic rationale is that by exhaling against resistance we slow down our expiratory phase of breathing.. This slower exhalation against resistance or positive pressure generates a back pressure which in turn splints or stents open the more peripheral airways and moves the equal pressure or choke point more central and so lessens airway collapse distally. This prolonged exhalation time also allows for collateral ventilation to occur. So, that with the assist of the pores of Kohn, canals of Lambert and channels of Martin, mucus can be mobilized from the distal or peripheral airways to the larger more central airways and thereby enhances secretion clearance. However, the patient or individual must be able to generate adequate air flow to use this device.

187
Q

Uroxatrol

A

Alfuzosin

188
Q

What is the mechanism of alfuzosin

A

Selectively antagonizes lower urinary tract Alpha-1-adrenergic receptors, relaxing smooth muscle and improving urine outflow.

189
Q

What bugs are associated with HCAP

A

MRSA.
Pseudomonas.
ESBL
Actinobacter

190
Q

What is used to tx HCAP

A
  1. Anti-Psuedomonal or cephalosporins or carbapinems
  2. Fluoroquinolone or macrolide
  3. Vancomycin
191
Q

What is an acute measure of nutrition

A

Pre albumin

192
Q

What is a long term measure of nutrition

A

Albumin

193
Q

What is an acute measure of inflammation

A

CRP

194
Q

What measurement is used for a longer more chronic perspective of inflammation

A

ESR

195
Q

What effect does a PPI have on gastric emptying

A

Delays gastric emptying

196
Q

What dose of steroids can induce glucocorticoid suppression

A

Greater than 20 g QD for more than 2 weeks has high risk

5 g QD can be used chronically with low risk

197
Q

What steroid has little mineralcorticoid activity and can cross the placenta and CNS

A

Dexamethasone

198
Q

What is the general steroid potency

A

Hydrocortisone 1 x
Prednisone 4 x
Solumedrol 5 x
Dexamethasone 20x

199
Q

What role does adiponectin have with insulin

A

Makes cells sensitive to insulin

200
Q

What effect does sulfa drugs have on creatinine clearance

A

Sulfa drugs compete for clearance and can increase Creatinine

201
Q

Samsca

A

Tolvaptan

202
Q

What are the indications for tolvaptan

A

Hyponatremia Hypervolemic

Hyponatremia Euvolemic

203
Q

What is the mechanism of tolvaptan

A

Electively antagonizes vasopressin V2 receptors increasing free water secretion

204
Q

What are the criteria determining admission or discharge for patients with a hx of syncope

A

Boston criteria
San Francisco criteria
Rose Criteria

205
Q

What defines the San Francisco rule

A

“CHESS” mnemonic

  • C - History of congestive heart failure
  • H - Hematocrit < 30%
  • E - Abnormal ECG
  • S - Shortness of breath
  • S - Triage systolic blood pressure < 90
206
Q

How is the severity of Pneumonia scored

A

Port score

Curb-65

207
Q

What causes post influenza pneumonia

A

Staph Aureus

208
Q

When is steroids indicated for meningitis

A

Strep meningitis

209
Q

What does LDH measure or reflect

A

Tissue breakdown releases LDH, and therefore LDH can be measured as a surrogate for tissue breakdown, e.g. hemolysis. Other disorders indicated by elevated LDH include cancer, meningitis, encephalitis, acute pancreatitis, and HIV.

210
Q

What is lemierre’s syndrome?

A

Thrombophlebitis (Anerobic infection) of the internal jugular

211
Q

What is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

A

mucocutaneous melanin deposits (small black or brown dark spots) involving lips (> 95%), buccal mucosa (83%), nose, fingers, toes, and genitalia in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

212
Q

What is the mechanism of steroids

A

Inhibits NF-kB

213
Q

What are the 5 p’s associated with compartment syndrome

A 
Pain
Palor
Poikylothermia
Parathesia
Pulseless
214
Q

What is stills disease

A

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

215
Q

What is TTKG

A

The transtubular potassium gradient (TTKG) is an index reflecting the conservation of potassium in the cortical collecting ducts of the kidneys. TTKG is considered to reflect mainly aldosterone bioactivity with regard to its kaliuretic response.

TTKG is clinically useful in diagnosis for patients suffering from hyper or hypokalemia in determining renal or non-renal cause of the condition. Expected responses are for hyperkalemia or potassium ingestion to result in excretion of potassium and a TTKG to increase (e.g. >10) and for conditions of hypokalemia, for potassium to be retained and the TTKG to decrease (e.g. <2).

216
Q

Advil

A

Ibuprofen

217
Q

Aleve

A

Naproxen sodium

218
Q

What items on an EKG are suspicious of an MI or ACS

A

Twelve-lead electrocardiography is typically the test of choice when looking for ST segment changes, new-onset left bundle branch block, presence of Q waves, and new-onset T wave inversions

The physician should consider patient characteristics and risk factors to help determine initial risk.

219
Q

What is tietze syndrome

A

Similar to costochondritis except that there is swelling in the effected joints.

A clinical diagnosis in the absence of other cardiopulmonary findings

220
Q

Define pericarditis

A

triad of

  1. pleuritic chest pain,
  2. pericardial friction rub, and
  3. diffuse electrocardiographic ST-T wave changes.

ECG usually demonstrates diffuse ST segment elevation and PR interval depression without T wave inversion.

Acute pericarditis should be considered in patients presenting with new-onset chest pain that increases with inspiration or when reclining, and is lessened by leaning forward

221
Q

What findings are suggestive of pneumonia

A

Common symptoms include fever, chills, productive cough, and pleuritic chest pain.

Fever, egophony heard during auscultation of the lungs, and dullness to percussion of the posterior thorax are suggestive of pneumonia

222
Q

What is required for diagnosis of hereditary hemochromatosis

A

Diagnosis requires confirmation of increased serum ferritin levels and transferrin saturation, with or without symptoms.

223
Q

What are the symptoms of hereditary hemochromatosis

A

symptoms may include weakness, lethargy, arthralgias, and impotence.

Later manifestations include arthralgias, osteoporosis, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, cardiomyopathy, dysrhythmia, diabetes mellitus, and hypogonadism

224
Q

What gene is associated with hereditary hemochromatosis

A

HFE gene mutation of C282Y

225
Q

Protonix

A

Pantoprazole

226
Q

What is a Stryker needle

A

Needle used to evaluate for compartment syndrome

227
Q

Plaquanil

A

Hydroxychloroquin

Internal Medicine (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions