Internal Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

acute angle-closure glaucoma

A

symptoms: headache, ocular pain, nausea, decreased visual acuity
signs: conjunctival redness, corneal opacity, fixed/mid-dilated pupil
dx: tonometry (intraocular pressure) and goniscopy (measures corneal angle)
treatment
1. topical- multidrug (timolol, pilocarpine, apraclonidine)
2. systemic- acetazolamide (consider mannitol)
3. laser iridotomy

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2
Q

what can lead to hepatorenal syndrome

A

risk factors: advanced cirrhosis with portal hypertension and edema
precipitating factors: reduced renal perfusion, GI bleed, vomiting, sepsis, excessive diuretic use, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, reduced glomerular pressure and GFR possibly by NSAIDS (constrict afferent arteriole)

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3
Q

what maneuvers increase parasympathetic tone to the heart

A

carotid sinus massage
cold water immersion or diving reflex
valsalva maneuver
eyeball pressure

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4
Q

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

A

Clinical

  • lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly
  • mild thrombocytopenia and anemia
  • could be asymptomatic

Diagnostic

  • severe lymphocytosis and smudge cells
  • flow cytometry (clonality of mature B cells)

Prognostic

  • median survival 10 years
  • worse with: multiple chain lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, anemia

Complications

  • infection
  • autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • secondary malignancies (richter transformation)
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5
Q

how to evaluate elevated alk phos

A
  1. check GGT (if normal then its likely due to bone abnormality)
  2. if elevated then its likely due to biliary problem so check RUQ ultrasound and anti-mitochondrial antibody
  3. AMA+ or abnormal hepatic parenchyma on US do liver biopsy
  4. dilated bile ducts do ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram)
  5. both normal then consider liver biopsy, ERCP, observation
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6
Q

asymptomatic patient with elevated alk phos, normal AST and ALT, normal RUQ ultrasound, and positive anti-mitochondrial antibody assay, severe hypercholesterolemia
patient might have pruritus and fatigue

A

primary biliary cholangitis (previously, primary biliary cirrhosis)

  • chronic progressive liver disease with cholestasis and autoimmune destruction of intrahepatic biliary ducts
  • give patient ursodeoxycholic acid (hydrophilic bile acid)
  • down the line most of these pts will need liver transplants
  • complications: malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins, metabolic bone diseases (osteoporosis/malacia), hepatocellular carcinoma
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7
Q

kidney problem that causes persistent activation of the alternative complement pathway

A

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, type 2

-immunofluorescence will show C3

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8
Q

patient with loss of motor and sensory function, loss of rectal tone, and urinary retention

A

acute spinal cord compression

-manage with emergency surgical consultation, neuroimaging, and possibly IV glucocorticoids

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9
Q

what is the most common cause of ascites

A

liver cirrhosis/chronic liver disease

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10
Q

next step for all patients who newly present with ascites

A

paracentesis is required to determine the cause

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11
Q

main complications after MI

A

0-24hrs: arrhythmia
1-3days: fibrinous inflammatory pericarditis
3-14days: pseudoaneurysm of inferior wall, free wall rupture, papillary muscle rupture, septal/VSD rupture
2weeks-3months: Aneurysm in anterior wall, dressler syndrome/immune pericarditis

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12
Q

intermittent claudication, diminished pulses, and abnormal (<1) ankle brachial index
-can be in one limb

A

Peripheral artery disease
-intermittent claudication = 20% 5-year risk of nonfatal MI and stroke AND 15-30% 5-year risk of death due to CV causes AND 1-2% critical limb ischemia with risk of limb amputation

-treat pt with statin and low-dose aspirin then start supervised exercise therapy

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13
Q

nonpupil sparing cranial nerve 3 palsy is concerning for what

A

aneurysmal compression (get MR or CT angiography immediately)

  • most commonly caused by microvascular ischemia
  • associated with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hyperlipidemia
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14
Q

what are the nonosmotic reasons ADH can be stimulated for release

A
nausea
pain
physical/emotional stress
hypotension
hypovolemia 
hypoxia 
hypoglycemia
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15
Q

localized pain and tenderness over the medial tibial condyle in a runner

A

pes anserinus pain syndrome

  • associated with overuse
  • risk factors: obesity, DM, knee osteoarthritis, angular deformity
  • dx: clinical
  • treatment: quad strength training and NSAIDs
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16
Q

what does a third heart sound indicate

A

decompensated heart failure
-give dobutamine which stimulates myocardial contractility leading to improved ejection fraction, reduce LVESV, and symptomatic improvement

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17
Q

most common skin malignancy in US

A

basal cell carcinoma

-slow growing papule with pearly rolled borders

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18
Q

what is primary sclerosing cholangitis associated with

A

ulcerative colitis

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19
Q

how to diagnose multiple sclerosis

A
  • T2 MRI lesion disseminated in space and time

- oligoclonal IgG bands on CSF lumbar puncture

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20
Q

patient with acute onset headache, sensation of the room spinning, nystagmus

A

stroke or hemorrhage affecting the cerebellum

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21
Q

pt with flank pain and hematuria and palpable abdominal mass
-left scrotal varicoceles

A

renal cell carcinoma

-paraneoplastic syndromes: anemia/erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, fever, hypercalcemia, cachexia

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22
Q

aquagenic pruritus

A

polycythemia vera
-treat with phlebotomy

-one major complication is budd-chiari syndrome

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23
Q

budd-chiari syndrome

A

hepatic venous outflow obstruction usually due to myeloproliferative disorders (PV), malignancy (hepatocellular carcinoma), OCP use/pregnancy

acute signs: jaundice, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, prolonged INR/PTT, elevated transaminases

chronic signs: abdominal pain, hepatosplenomegaly, ascites, elevated bilirubin and transaminases

dx: abdominal doppler ultrasound showing decreased hepatic vein flow then investigate for underlying causative disorders

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24
Q

single most important prognostic consideration for pts treatment with cancer

A

TNM staging, stage 4 is the worst

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25
Q

good and bad prognostic factors in breast cancer

A

good
ER+
PR+

bad
overexpression of HER2/neu oncogene
poorly differentiated tumors

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26
Q

endemic locations of systemic mycoses

A

histo- mississippi and ohio river valleys
blasto- eastern and central US and great lakes
coccidio- southwestern US and california
paracoccidio- latin america

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27
Q

clinical features of blasto

A

lung- acute/chronic pneumonia
skin- wart like lesions, violaceous nodules, skin ulcers
bone- osteomyelitis
genitourinary- prostatitis, epididimo-orchitis
CNS- meningitis, epidural or brain abscesses

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28
Q

what does an S4 mean?

A

-AKA atrial gallop
indicates a stiff LV (the sound is atrial contraction and blood is hitting the stiffened LV)
-restrictive cardiomyopathy
-can be heard in acute phase of myocardial infarction
OR
-LV hypertrophy from prolonged hypertension

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29
Q

acute lead toxicity vs chronic

A

GI: constipation
Neuropsych: sensorimotor neuropathy, short-term memory loss
Heme: microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling, hyperuricemia

treat with chelation therapy with calcium disodium EDTA

Chronic is the same but it can also lead to hypertension, nephropathy, hyperuricemia, and microcytic anemia

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30
Q

pronator drift

A

both arms out and palms up then one arm drifts down and palm turns toward the floor
sensitive and specific for upper motor neuron or pyramidal/corticospinal tract disease

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31
Q

how to treat secondary raynaud phenomenon

A

first the patient should get tested for autoantibodies and inflammatory markers
-CBC, metabolic panel, urinalysis, ANA antibody, rheumatoid factor, ESR, complement levels (C3 and C4)

  • evaluate and treat underlying disorder
  • CCB for persistent symptoms, aspirin for patients at risk for digital ulceration
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32
Q

patient with AIDS, progressive blurred vision, floaters, yellow-white exudates adjacent to the fovea/retinal vessels

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

  • most common end-organ complication of CMV in pts with advanced AIDS
  • treat with valganciclovir and in severe cases intravitreal infections
  • pts should start on antiretroviral treatment to prevent recurrence and progression
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33
Q

what ratio to look out for in prerenal acute kidney injury

A

BUN/creatinine ratio (>20:1)

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34
Q

three most common causes of aortic stenosis

A
  • senile calcific aortic stenosis
  • bicuspid aortic valve
  • rheumatic heart disease
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35
Q

adverse effect of antithyroid drugs

A

agranulocytosis

  • methimazole: 1st trimester teratogen, cholestasis
  • propylthiouracil: hepatic failure, ANCA-associated vasculitis
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36
Q

telogen effluvium

A
  • acute, diffuse, noninflammatory hair loss
  • scalp and hair fibers appear normal
  • hair shafts easily pulled out (hair pull test)
  • triggers: severe illness, fever, surgery, pregnancy/childbirth, emotional distress, endocrine/nutritional disorders
  • management: address underlying cause, reassurance (self-limited)
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37
Q

serum to ascites albumin gradient

A

> 1.1 = portal hypertensive etiologies (cardiac ascites, cirrhosis)

<1.1 = non-portal hypertensive etiologies (malignancy, pancreatitis, nephrotic syndrome, tuberculosis)

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38
Q

dietary recommendations about pts with renal calculi

A
  1. increased fluid intake
  2. decreased sodium intake
  3. normal dietary calcium intake
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39
Q

urine cytology

A

checks for cancer cells in the pee

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40
Q

patients with idiopathic isolated thrombocytopenia should be tested for what?
-patient may also present with large platelets

A

they likely have ITP but you have to test them for hepatitis C and HIV before cause its kinda a diagnosis of exclusion
-test for ITP with antinuclear antibody screen

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41
Q

what can trigger distal symmetric polyneuropathy

A
  • DM, long-standing HIV, uremia, toxicity
  • damage to distal sensory peripheral nerve axons
  • treat underlying cause cause and use pain management with gabapentin, tricyclic antidepressant, duloxetine, or capsaicin cream
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42
Q

how to define high grade carotid stenosis

A

70-99% occlusion

-pts should be considered for carotid endarterectomy to reduce future stroke risk

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43
Q

what is brain natriuretic peptide and what is it used for?

A

natriuretic hormone released from ventricular myocytes in pts with CHF in response to high ventricular filling pressures

-elevated BNP has high sensitivity (>90%) for dx of CHF… levels of over 400 are diagnostic (below 100 has a high negative predictive value)

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44
Q

hodgkin lymphoma

A

epidemiology: bimodal peak incidence (15-35 and over 60), associated with EBV in immunosuppressed pts
clinically: painless lymphadenopathy, mediastinal mass, B symptoms (fever, sweats, weight loss), pruritus,
labs: elevated LDH and eosinophilia
testing: PET scan with 18-fluorodeoxyglucose
dx: lymph node biopsy and reed-sternberg cells on histology

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45
Q

supraventricular tachycardia

A

regular but narrow QRS duration < 120ms with rate of 160bpm

-any tachy above bundle of His

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46
Q

paroxysmal supraventricular tachy

A

PSVTs are SVTs with abrupt onset and offset

-inclduing AVNRT, AVRT, atrial tachy, and junctional tachy

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47
Q

most common cause of cor pulmonale in united states

A

COPD

-you will hear a third heart sound

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48
Q

if youre looking at past records what two types of studies can you use and whats the difference?

A

retrospective cohort —> (looks at risk factors first) review past records and look for + and - risk factors then compare incidence

case control —> find diseased and control cases (look at outcome first) then compare risk factor frequency

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49
Q

worsened pain with alcohol and mediastinal mass

A

hodgkin lymphoma

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50
Q

tophaceous gout

A

multiple white nodules in hands with history of painful arthritis in fingers and feet
-uric acid crystals in joints –> enough urate crystals can form tophi tumors causing ulceration and chalky material

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51
Q

how does a pt with pneumocystis pneumonia present?

A

HIV with CD4 count less than 200

  • subacute dyspnea, fever, dry cough, elevated LDH, diffuse bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
  • dx with bronchoalveolar lavage
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52
Q

how to treat pneumocystis pneumonia

A

TMP-SMX and add corticosteroids for pts with PaO2 <70, A-a gradient >35, or pulse ox <92% on room air to reduce risk of respiratory decompensation
-dx with bronchoalveolar lavage

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53
Q

CREST syndrome

A
Calcinosis cutis 
Raynauds
Esophageal dysmotility 
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia 
  • anti-topoisomerase I antibodies
  • strongly associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
  • pulmonary arterial hypertension is associated with this
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54
Q

wide, fixed splitting of S2

A

ASD

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55
Q

systemic sclerosis

A

results from intimal hyperplasia of pulmonary arteries causing pulmonary hypertension

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56
Q

painless loss of monocular vision

A

central retinal artery occlusion causing ischemia of inner retina

-emergently treated with ocular massage and high-flow oxygen

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57
Q

essential tremor

A
  • action tremor
  • bilateral action tremor of hands, head is usually also involved, without leg involvement
  • possible isolated head tremor without dystonia
  • usually no other neurological signs
  • relieved with alcohol in many cases
  • treat with propranolol (first-line), primidone, or clonazepam
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58
Q

pill-rolling resting tremor that starts on one hand and progresses to other extremities, jaw, face, tongue, and lips

A

parkinsons disease

-give anticholinergic –> trihexyphenidyl

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59
Q

what improves mortality in pts with ARDS

A

lung protective strategies like low tidal volume ventilation (LTVV)
-lower pulmonary pressures decreasing likelihood of overdistending alveoli

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60
Q

acute respiratory distress syndrome

A

risk factors: infection, trauma, massive transfusion, acute pancreatitis

pathophys: lung injury leading to fluid and cytokine leakage into alveoli with impaired gas exchange, decreased lung compliance, PHTN
dx: new/worsening respiratory distress within 1 week of insult, bilateral lung opacities not due to CHF, hypoxemia with PaO2/FiO2 ratio < 300
management: mechanical ventilation (low TV, high PEEP, permissive hypercapnia)

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61
Q

parvo virus rash in adults

A

nonspecific morbilliform exanthem

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62
Q

postictal pH disturbance

A

anion gap metabolic acidosis after tonic-clonic seizure

-resolves without treatment within 90 minutes

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63
Q

normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

symptoms: gait instability, cognitive dysfunction, urinary urgency/incontinence, depressed affect (frontal lobe compression), UMN signs in lower extremity
dx: miller fisher (lumbar tap) test– marked improvement of gait with spinal fluid removal, enlarged ventricles out of proportion to sulci and underlying brain atrophy on MRI
treatment: ventriculoperitoneal shunting

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64
Q

acute interstitial nephritis

A

causes: drugs (penicillins, TMP-SMX, cephalosporins, NSAIDs)
3 main clinical features: acute renal failure, maculopapular rash, fever…. also new drug exposure, arthralgias
labs: urinary eosinophils, eosinophilia, inflammation, pyuria
treat: discontinue offending drug, systemic glucocorticoids

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65
Q

what pathology do you see in the brain of a pt with lewy body dementia?

A

eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion

-a lot of alpha-synuclein protein

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66
Q

widespread pain, fatigue, cognitive/mood disturbances

A

fibromyalgia
foundation of management: exercise
medications only really used for pts who fail initial measures —> use amitryptilline

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67
Q

unsteadiness, shock sensation in spine, atrophy/weakness in upper extremity, and increased tone/reflexes in lower extremities

A

spinal cord compression (myelopathy) in cervical spine
-these pts usually have cervical spondylosis– degenerative condition associated with spinal cord narrowing due to formation of osteophytes in lateral vertebral bodies and ossification of posterior longitudinal ligament/ligamentum flavum

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68
Q

top 3 causes of the common cough

A
  1. upper-airway cough syndrome (postnasal drip) –> give H1 blockers
  2. asthma –> give anti-inflammatory meds
  3. GERD –> give PPIs
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69
Q

myasthenic crisis

A

causes: infection, surgery, pregnancy/childbirth, tapering of immunosuppressive drugs, meds (aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, and beta blockers)
signs: increased generalized and oropharyngeal weakness, respiratory insufficiency/dyspnea
treatment: intubation for deteriorating respiratory status, plasmapheresis or IVIG as well as corticosteroids

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70
Q

2 most common causes of microcytic anemia

A

iron deficiency and thalassemia

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71
Q

how to treat MS

A

IV glucocorticoids and use plasmapheresis if they dont respond to steroids

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72
Q

how to treat alopicia areata

A

mild/moderate hair loss: topical intralesional corticosteroids
severe hair loss: topical immunotherapy or oral corticosteroids

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73
Q

explain the difference b/w spironolactone and epleronone

A

spironolactone: progesterone and androgen receptor antagonist that can cause decreased libido and gynecomastia
epleronone: very selective mineralocorticoid antagonist with very low affinity for progesterone or androgen receptors so it has very few of the same side effects

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74
Q

how to diagnose and treat carcinoid syndrome

A
  • elevated 24-hour urinary excretion of 5-HIAA
  • CT/MRI of abdomen and pelvis to localize tumor
  • octreoscan to detect metastases
  • echocardiogram if symptoms of carcinoid heart disease are present)
  • clinical features: skin flushing, diarrhea, valvular lesions, bronchospasm, niacin deficiency
  • treat with octreotide before surgery and surgery for liver metastases
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75
Q

how to treat for cyanide poisoning

A

hydroxycobalmin or sodium thiosulfate or with nitrates to induce methemoglobinemia

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76
Q

mechanism of cyanide poisoning

-presents with altered mental status, lactic acidosis, seizures, and coma

A

cyanide binds to ferric iron in cytochrome oxidase a3 in mitochondrial ETC, blocking oxidative phosphorylation and promoting anaerobic metabolism –> causing lactic acidosis

-can occur in pts treated with nitroprusside with higher doses, prolonged infusions, or renal impairment

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77
Q

three major differences b/w actinomyces and nocardia and how to treat each

A
  1. actinomyces = anaerobic / nocardia = aerobic
  2. actinomyces is not acid-fast
  3. actinomyces has sulfur granules

treat actinomyces with penicillin
treat nocardia with tmp-smx

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78
Q

most common cause of hemoptysis in adults

A

pulmonary airway disease

  • chronic bronchitis
  • bronchogenic carcinoma
  • bronchiectasis
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79
Q

bronchiectasis vs chronic bronchitis

A

both can cause hemoptysis

bronchiectasis: irreversible dilation and destruction of bronchi, resulting in chronic cough and inadequate mucus clearance… associated with chronic respiratory tract infections and chronic cough with copious amounts of mucopurulent sputum

chronic bronchitis: chronic cough for more than 3 months for 2 years… usually due to smoking

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80
Q

MEN1 vs MEN2a vs MEN2b

A

MEN1

  • pituitary adenoma
  • pancreatic/gastrointestinal tumors
  • parathyroid hyperplasia

MEN2a

  • parathyroid hyperplasia
  • medullary thyroid carcinoma
  • pheochromocytoma

MEN2b

  • medullary thyroid carcinoma
  • pheochromocytoma
  • mucosal neuroma
  • marfanoid habitus
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81
Q

fluctuating, fatigable muscle weakness that worsens with repetitive motions and improves with rest

  • weakness with proximal muscles, ocular and bulbar muscles (ptosis)
  • causes of exacerbations: medications (abx, nmb agents, cardiac meds, mgso4, penicillamine, child birth, surgery, infection)
  • dx via ice pack test (bedside) or another highly specific test
A

myasthenia gravis

-dx via AChR-Ab (highly specific) or CT scan of chest showing thymoma

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82
Q

what should be considered in a pt with molluscum contagiosum with widespread and/or facial lesions

A

HIV testing or some other reason for immunocompromise

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83
Q

patient presents with dysphagia, chest/epigastric pain, reflux/vomiting, food impaction, associated atrophy

  • throwing up immediately after drinking a cup of water
  • refractory heart burn
A

eosinophilic esophagitis

  • chronic immune mediated esophageal inflammation
  • dx via endoscopy/esophageal biopsy (>15 eosinophils per high-power field)
  • treat with dietary restriction and possible topical glucocorticoids
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84
Q

treatments for urgency incontinence

A
  1. bladder training
  2. pelvic floor exercises
  3. antimuscarinic (oxybutinin) to decrease detrusor activity
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85
Q

old lady presents with unilateral headache and jaw claudication

A

giant cell (temporal) arteritis

  • may lead to irreversible blindness due to ophthalmic artery occlusion
  • associated with polymyalgia rheumatica
  • increased ESR
  • treat with high dose corticosteroids to prevent blindness and then get temporal artery biopsy (will see focal granulomatous inflammation)
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86
Q

UC vs Crohns

A

UC- mucosal inflammation and crypt abscesses (complication is colorectal cancer)
Crohns- transmural inflammation, cobblestone mucosa, creeping fat (complication is fistulas)

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87
Q

cough, hypercalcemia, hilar lymphadenopathy

A

sarcoidosis

-lungs follow restrictive pattern

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88
Q

cluster analysis

A

grouping of different data points into similar categories

-randomization at group (not individual) level

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89
Q

parallel study

A

randomizes 1 treatment to 1 group and another to a different group
-usually just wanna see how the treatment works and nothing else is measured

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90
Q

factorial design studies

A

randomization to 2 or more groups and studying 2 or more variables

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91
Q

bartter syndrome hallmark finding

A

metabolic alkalosis with high urine chloride

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92
Q

slowly expanding, circular, itchy rash with raised border and central clearing

A

tinea corporis

-treat with topical antifungals

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93
Q

colonoscopy with melanosis coli- dark brown discoloration with pale patches of lymph follicles

A

laxative abuse

-these pts will usually have diarrhea in the middle of the night

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94
Q

acute bronchitis

A
  • preceding respiratory illness (90% viral)
  • cough for 5days – 3weeks, possibly with sputum
  • absent systemic findings
  • wheezing or rhonchi, chest wall tenderness

dx and treatment

  • only get CXR if pneumonia is suspected
  • symptomatic treatment, NSAIDs or bronchodilators
  • NO abx
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95
Q

gynecomastia and small testes in a tall male pt struggling to conceive with his wife

A

Kleinfelters (XXY)
-infertility due to testicular fibrosis with seminiferous tubule dysgenesis, azoospermia, hypogonadism, and elevated FSH and LH levels

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96
Q

what is on your differential if you have a mediastinal shift

A
  1. pleural effusion (away from effusion, if large)
  2. pneumothorax (away from tension, toward spontaneous)
  3. atelectasis (toward, if large)
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97
Q

increased tactile fremitus

A

consolidation, like lobar pneumonia

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98
Q

hyperresonance to percussion

A

pneumothorax

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99
Q

carboxyhemoglobinemia

A

carbon monoxide poisoning

  • due to smoke inhalation
  • main symptom is headache… also nausea and dizziness
  • dx via arterial blood gas: carboxyhemoglobin level
  • treatment: high flow 100% O2 // use intubation and hyperbaric O2 if severe
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100
Q

when to prophylatically treat HIV patient for and with what?

A

CD4 count < 200
-give TMP-SMX for pneumocystis jirovecii

CD4 count < 150
-give itraconazole only if youre in an endemic area for Histo

CD4 count < 100
-give TMP-SMX only if positive IgG antibody positive

*give IVIG within 4 days of exposure to pts with exposure

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101
Q

upper respiratory tract: perforation of nasal septum, chronic sinusitis, otitis media, mastoiditis, saddle-nose deformity
lower respiratory tract: lung nodules/cavitation, hemoptysis, cough, dyspnea
renal: hematuria, red cell casts, rapidly progressive GN
skin: livedo reticularis, nonhealing ulcers

A

Granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegeners)

DX
ANCA, PR3, MPO, c-anca
biopsy 
-skin (leukocytoclastic vasculitis) 
-kidney (pauci-immune GN)
-lung (granulomatous vasculitis) 

management: corticosteroids and immunomodulators

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102
Q

what is likely associated with a transudative pleural effusion

A
  • congestive heart failure
  • cirrhosis
  • nephrotic syndrome
  • peritoneal dialysis
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103
Q
  • common cause of red eye
  • localized/patchy distribution and generally mild associated pain and discharge
  • can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis and other autoimmune disorders
A

episcleritis

-usually self-limited and does not affect vision or involve the cornea

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104
Q
  • painful red eye with opacification and ulceration of cornea
  • similar to contact lens-associated keratitis
  • usually due to gram-negative (pseudomonas or serratia), but can also be positive
A

pseudomonas keratitis

  • medical emergency can lead to corneal perforation, scarring, and permanent vision loss
  • remove and discharge contact lens then use topical broad-spectrum antibiotics
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105
Q

when to start statin therapy for lipid levels

A

primary prevention in pts with 10-year ASCVD risk > 7.5-10%

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106
Q

what to look at when considering nonalcoholic fatty liver disease

A

pts usually only have hepatomegaly and…

  • steatohepatitis presents with AST/ALT ratio < 1
  • treat with diet/exercise then consider bariatric surgery if BMI > 35
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107
Q

methotrexate mechanism and adverse effects

A
  • folate antimetabolite

- hepatotoxicity, stomatitis, cytopenias

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108
Q

leflunomide mechanism of action and adverse effects

A
  • pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor

- hepatotoxicity and cytopenias

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109
Q

hydroxychloroquine mechanism of action and adverse effects

A
  • TNF and IL-1 suppressor

- retinopathy

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110
Q

sulfasalazine mechanism of action and adverse effects

A
  • TNF and IL-1 suppressor

- hepatotoxicity, tomatitis, hemolytic anemia

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111
Q
adalimumab
certolizumab
etanercept 
golimumab 
infliximab

-mechanism of action and adverse effects

A
  • TNF inhibitors

- infection, demyelination, congestive heart failure, and malignancy

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112
Q

patient with exertional dyspnea, pounding heart sensation (water hammer pulse)– made worse when lying on left side, and widened pulse pressure

A

chronic aortic regurgitation

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113
Q

if someone has low calcium what is the next step?

A

check magnesium levels

  • if its low or due to medication or due to recent blood transfusion then treat underlying cause, replete magnesium, and give IV calcium for severe symptoms
  • if magnesium is normal then measure serum PTH
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114
Q

nonallergic (vasomotor) rhinitis

A
  • usually has later age of onset
  • nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, sneezing, postnasal drainage
  • no obvious allergic trigger
  • perennial symptoms (may worsen with seasonal changes)
  • erythematous nasal mucosa
  • mild gets treated with intranasal antihistamine or glucocorticoids
  • moderate to severe gets treated with combination therapy
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115
Q

when do you start antibiotic therapy for a pt with suggested infective endocarditis

A

3 separate blood cultures should be obtained from 3 different venipuncture sites
-if pt has severe symptoms then get these 3 w/i 1 hour before beginning empiric abx therapy

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116
Q

seborrheic dermatitis

A

dandruff and greasy-looking scaly rash involving nasolabial folds.. usually on face and scalp

  • associated with CNS disorders (parkinsons) and HIV
  • treat with topical antifungal agents
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117
Q

AV nodal blocking agents

A

adenosine, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers (especially verapamil), and digoxin

-not to be used in pts with a.fib cause it can promote conduction across accessory pathway and lead to degeneration of a.fib into v.fib

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118
Q

when is lidocaine used for cardiac purposes

A

ventricular arrhythmias

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119
Q

acute treatment of pts in a.fib in pts with WPW is aimed at prompt control of ventricular response and termination of a.fib…

A

hemodynamically unstable –> electrical cardioversion

hemodynamically stable –> IV procainamide or ibutilide

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120
Q

proximal vs widespread muscle pain

A

proximal (polymyalgia rheumatica) –> pain and stiffness , often with fever, malaise, weight loss, NO WEAKNESS, women > 50, associated with giant cell (temporal) arteritis, bilateral, increased ESR/CRP/normal CK/normal strength testing, rapid response to low-dose corticosteroids

*note that proximal can also be polymyositis/dermatomyositis —> WEAKNESS

widespread (fibromyalgia) –> women 20-50, chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain associated with tender points/stiffness/paresthesias, poor sleep, fatigue, cognitive disturbance, treat with regular exercise, antidepressants, neuropathic pain agents (tricyclic antidepressants)

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121
Q

what is the heart murmur with aortic dissection

A

acute aortic regurgitation which leads to an early diastolic murmur

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122
Q
  • acute/aggressive
  • fever, nasal congestion, purulent nasal discharge, headache, sinus pain
  • necrotic invasion of palate, orbit, brain
  • dx via: sinus endoscopy with biopsy and culture
A

Rhino-orbital-cerebral mucormycosis

treatment: surgical debridement, liposomal amphotericin B, eliminate risk factors (DM with ketoacidosis, hematologic malignancy, solid organ/stem cell transplant)

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123
Q

acute intermittent porphyria vs porphyria cutanea tarda

A

AIP- porphobilinogen deaminase, 5Ps: painful abdomen/port-wine colored urine/polyneuropathy (proximal muscle weakness)/psych disturbances/precipitated by drugs alcohol or starvation, treat with hemin and glucose

PCT- uropurphorinogen decarboxylase, blisters, bullae, scarring, hypo/hyperpigmentation on sun exposed areas, scarring and calcification similar to scleroderma, associated with hep C/HIV/alcohol/estrogen use/smoking, mildly elevated liver enzymes and iron overload, elevated plasma or urine porphyrin levels, treat with phlebotomy, sun avoidance, and antimalarials

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124
Q

how to treat uric acid stones

A

oral potassium citrate

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125
Q

when to no longer give HIV pts a live vaccine

A

CD4 count below 200

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126
Q

curtain descending over visual field of the eye

A

amaurosis fugax/retinal detachment

  • painless rapid transient monocular vision loss
  • due to retinal ischemia from atherosclerotic emboli originating from ipsilateral carotid artery
  • pts with vascular factor should receive duplex ultrasound of neck
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127
Q

how to treat lyme disease in pregnant women

A
  • you cant give doxycycline cause shes pregnant and you dont want tooth/skeletal discoloration
  • give oral amoxicillin
  • if theres an allergy to that then give azithromycin
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128
Q

how to treat secondary amyloidosis

A

colchicine for prevention and treatment

-diagnose with abdominal fat pad aspiration biopsy

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129
Q

pt has subarachnoid hemorrhage, what are you concerned about and what can you give to prevent this

A

concerned about vasospasm leading to infarct

-give nimodipine to prevent this

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130
Q

what characterizes lactose intolerance

-lactase is as a brush border enzyme

A
  • positive hydrogen breath test
  • positive stool test for reducing substances
  • low stool pH
  • increased stool osmotic gap
  • no steatorrhea
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131
Q

triggers: trauma, sprain, fracture, surgery
clinical features: severe, regional, burning/stinging pain, vasomotor changes with altered skin temperature, tropic skin/hair/nail changes

A

Complex regional pain syndrome

  • dx mainly clinical but x-ray will show patchy demineralization and bone scintigraphy will show increased uptake in affected limb
  • treat with exercise/PT/OT and for meds you can use NSAIDs and antineuropathic meds (pregabalin and TCAs)
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132
Q

enthesitis

A

inflammation and pain at sites of tendon and ligament attachment to bone
-common finding in ankylosing spondylitis and other spondyloarthropathies

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133
Q

methanol intoxication

A

epigastric discomfort, vomiting, blurred vision, vision loss, coma
optic disc hyperemia
anion gap metabolic acidosis (VERY low bicarb)
increased osmolar gap

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134
Q

ondansetron mechanism of action

A

serotonin antagonist used for chemo induced nausea and vomiting

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135
Q

positive anti-U1 ribonucleoprotein antibody

A

mixed connective tissue disease

  • raynauds
  • hand/finger swelling
  • arthritis/synovitis
  • inflammatory myopathy
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136
Q

shooting jaw pain treatment

A

trigeminal neuralgia

-treat with carbamazepine (can cause n/v and leukopenia/aplastic anemia)

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137
Q

HIV patient with hematochezia

A

cytomegalovirus

-if they have this then they need to get an eye exam right away to rule out CMV retinitis

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138
Q

corrected calcium level =

A

measured total calcium + 0.8 x (4 - serum albumin)

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139
Q
  • rheumatoid arthritis (severe erosive joint disease/deformity, rheumatoid nodules, vasculitis with skin lesions)
  • neutropenia
  • splenomegaly
A

Felty syndrome

  • anti-CCP and RF positive in > 90% of pts
  • markedly elevated ESR, often > 85
  • peripheral smear and bone marrow biopsy to rule out other causes of neutropenia
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140
Q

cardiovascular drugs that shouldnt be used in pts with hypertension management

A

beta-blockers due to the side effect of increased insulin resistance/impaired glucose control and increased weight gain

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141
Q

immunocompromised pt gets indurated pustules and then punched out gangrene, what do you think of

A

ecthyma gangrenosum due to pseudomonas

-get blood cultures and give IV abx

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142
Q

if a pt is aggressively treated for an asthma attack (with beta-2 agonists) what do you worry about

A

watch for muscle weakness/arrhythmias/EKG abnormalities likely due to hypokalemia
-other common side effects are tremor, palpitations, and headache

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143
Q

patient with history of asthma or chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyposis taking aspirin

A

aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease

  • pseudoallergic reaction due to prostaglandin/leukotriene misbalance
  • treat by avoiding NSAIDs
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144
Q

when to screen for osteoporosis with dual energy x-ray absorptiometry

A

all women >65 and younger women with equivalent risk of osteoporotic fracture

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145
Q

TCA toxicity

A

Convulsions, Coma, Cardiotoxicity
-give supportive treatment, monitor ECG, give sodium bicarb to prevent arrhythmia (sodium load alleviates depressant action of myocardial sodium channels), activated charcoal

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146
Q

what is very important in the pathogenesis of MALT

A

H. pylori

-pts usually go into complete remission after abx use with quadruple therapy

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147
Q

numbness or pain b/w the 3rd and 4th toes

clicking sensation when palpating space b/w 3rd and 4th toes while squeezing metatarsal joints

A

morton neuroma

  • mechanically induced neuropathic degeneration of interdigital nerves
  • symptoms worse with walking on hard surfaces and in high-heels or tight shoes
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148
Q

differentials for thyrotoxicosis with normal or increased radioactive iodine uptake

A

graves
toxic multinodular goiter
toxic nodule

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149
Q

painless thyroiditis

A

starts with hyperthyroid phase then you go to hypothyroid and you can give beta-blockers to help with the hyperthyroid phase symptoms

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150
Q

tick from southeastern and south central united states

A

amblyomma/lone star tick

  • causes flu like illness, confusion, and rarely but sometimes a rash
  • leukopenia and thrombocytopenia
  • elevated liver enzymes and lactate dehydrogenase
  • dx via intracytoplasmic morulae in monocytes and PCR testing for E. chaffeensis and E. ewingii
  • treat with empiric doxycycline while awaiting confirmatory testing
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151
Q

how to slow down the growth of varicies and bleeding due to liver pathology only given to those with already medium or large varicies

A

beta blockers

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152
Q

octreotide

A

somatostatin agonist causing splanchnic vasoconstriction and stops variceal bleeding while its happening by inhibiting glucagon release

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153
Q

pt with tinea that becomes widespread… what do you think

A

compromised immunity

  • diabetes mellitus
  • systemic glucocorticoids
  • HIV infection
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154
Q

intermittent chest pain that radiates to interscapular area with difficulty swallowing liquids and solids during these episodes
-can be precipitated by food or emotional stress

A

diffuse esophageal spasms

  • corckscrew pattern
  • esophageal manometry for dx
  • treat with calcium channel blockers (nitrates or tricyclics can be used if needed)
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155
Q

dacryocystitis

A
  • infection of lacrimal sac
  • inflammatory changes to the medial canthal of the eye
  • usually due to staph aureus
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156
Q

patient with normal colonoscopy and painless GI bleeding

A

angiodysplasia

  • can be seen in pts with advanced renal disease and aortic stenosis
  • can be treated with cautery
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157
Q

elevated BNP

A

patient likely in cardiac heart failure

  • increased heart filling pressures
  • audible third heart sound
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158
Q

patient gets vascular procedure then has cutaneous findings (blue toes or livedo retularis), cerebral or intestinal ischemia, acute kidney injury, and hollenhorst plaques… what do you think of

A

atheroembolism (cholesterol embolism)

  • complication of cardiac catheterization and other vascular procedures
  • treat/prevent with statin therapy
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159
Q

how to prevent anginal episodes and how does it work

A

beta-blockers

-decrease myocardial contractility and heart rate

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160
Q

most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest in immediate post-infarction period in patients with acute myocardial infarction

A

reentrant ventricular arrhythmias (v. fib)

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161
Q

hemoglobin goal for nonelderly pts and why

A

A1c = 7%
-a more strict goal of 6.5% is associated with good microvascular outcomes (decreased retinopathy) but NOT good macrovascular outcomes (increased hypoglycemia and cardiovascular mortality)

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162
Q

unexplained congestive heart failure, proteinuria, left ventricular hypertrophy without history of hypertension

A

amyloidosis

-the congestive heart failure is a restrictive cardiomyopathy

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163
Q

acute respiratory distress syndrome

A

risk factors: infection, trauma, massive transfusion, acute pancreatitis

pathophysiology: lung injury causes fluid and cytokine leakage into alveoli, impaired gas exchange, decreased lung compliance, PHTN
diagnosis: new/worsening respiratory distress within 1 week of insult, bilateral lung opacities (pulmonary edema) NOT due to CHF or fluid overload, hypoxemia with PaO2/FiO2 ratio < 300mgHg
management: mechanical ventilation (low TV, high PEEP, permissive hypercapnia)

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164
Q

what is a normal urine albumin/creatinine ratio

A

less than 30

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165
Q

how to diagnose sjogrens?

A
  • decreased lacrimation
  • positive anti-Ro (SSA) and/or anti-La (SSB)
  • salivary gland (minor gland of lip) biopsy with focal lymphocytic sialoadenitis
  • classification: primary if no associated CTD, secondary if comorbid CTD (SLE, RA, scleroderma)
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166
Q

describe early septic shock

A

hyperdynamic cardiovascular state that occurs in response to peripheral vasodilation with capillary leak and intravascular hypovolemia
-leading to increased stroke volume, heart rate, and pulse pressure

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167
Q

ptosis, diplopia, down and out gaze, normal pupillary gaze

A

Ischemic ocular motor palsy

  • damage to inner somatic nerve fibers while sparing the more peripheral parasympathetic fibers
  • commonly associated with poorly controlled diabetes
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168
Q
  • acute, peaks at 2 weeks –> starts with smudge in center of eye
  • monocular vision loss
  • eye pain with movement
  • “washed out” color vision
  • afferent pupillary defect

*usually in young women, assocaited with MS, immune-mediated demyelination

A

Optic Neuritis
dx —> MRI of orbitis and brain
treatment —> IV corticosteroids
35% of cases recur

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169
Q

psych history, fever, confusion, muscle rigidity, autonomic instability

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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170
Q

extrarenal features of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

A
cerebral aneurysms 
hepatic and pancreatic cysts 
mitral valve prolapse and aortic regurgitation
colonic diverticulosis
ventral and inguinal hernias

*pts present with flank pain, hypertension, and polyuria

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171
Q

why can mixing a lot of alcohol with cocaine cause muscle weakness?

A

even just a lot of alcohol at once can cause rhabdomyolysis

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172
Q

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A
  • due to excessive collagen deposition in peri-alveolar tissues
  • decreased lung volumes with preserved or increased FEV1/FVC ratio
  • impaired gas exchange resulting in reduced diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide and increased A-a gradient
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173
Q

work up for HIV associated diarrhea

A

sending stool for culture, ova/parasites, acid-fast stain, and c.diff antigen
-CD4 count, chronicity, and presence of absence of colitis symptoms help narrow the differential

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174
Q

criteria for initiating long term oxygen therapy in pts with COPD

A
  1. resting PaO2 < 55mmHg or SaO2 < 88% on room air
  2. PaO2 < 59mmHg or SaO2 < 89% in pts with cor pulmonale or hematocrit > 55%
  • dose should be titrated so that SaO2 is maintained at >90% during sleep, normal walking, and at rest
  • survival benefits of home oxygen therapy are significant when its used for > 15hrs/day
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175
Q

who is at risk or a cholesterol emboli

A

pts with risk factors for aortic atherosclerosis (hypercholesterolemia, diabetes, PVD) who undergo cardiac catheterization or vascular procedure

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176
Q

first line therapy for postmenopausal osteoporosis

A

bisphosphonates

-treatment is usually discontinued after 5 years due to risk of atypical fracture with prolonged use

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177
Q

acute lower back pain while lifting a heavy object

  • lower extremity strength, sensation, and reflexes are intact and straight leg test is negative
  • mainly lumbar and paraspinal area pain
A

lumbosacral strain

*if it were radiating pain down the leg then it would be herniated disc (straight leg test would be positive)

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178
Q

most common cancer found in pts with asbestos exposure

A

bronchogenic carcinoma

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179
Q

indication for statin therapy

A

primary prevention

  • LDL > 190
  • age > 40 with DM
  • estimated 10-year risk 7.5-10%

secondary prevention
-established ASCVD (acute coronary syndrome, stable angina, arterial revascularization, stroke, TIA, PAD)

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180
Q

patients with primary hypoaldosteronism are more prone to waht

A

diuretic-induced hypokalemia

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181
Q

first step after any pt presents with hypertension and hypokalemia

A

likely hyperaldosteronism so the first step is to get a plasma renin and plasma aldosterone level

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182
Q

meds for alzheimers
mild to moderate —
moderate to severe —

A

mtm — donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine (cholinesterase inhibitors)

mts — memantine (NMDA receptor antagonist)

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183
Q

what does S3 sound like and what does it mean

A

kentucky

  • increased filling pressure
  • mitral regurg
  • heart failure
  • dilated ventricles
  • can also be normal
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184
Q

what does S4 sound like and what does it mean

A

tennessee

  • increased atrial pressure
  • ventricular hypertrophy and noncompliance
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185
Q

decreased active and passive motion in arm with possible stiffness with normal x-ray findings

A

adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)

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186
Q

types of cancers associated with lynch syndrome

A

colorectal cancer
endometrial carcinoma
ovarian cancer

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187
Q

familial adenomatous polyposis

A

colorectal cancer
desmoids and osteomas
brain tumors

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188
Q

von hippel-lindau syndrome

A

hemangioblastomas
clear cell renal carcinoma
pheochromocytoma

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189
Q

what happens when a pt has membranous nephropathy

A

urinary loss of several anticoagulant proteins resulting in hypercoagulability
-associated with renal vein thrombosis

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190
Q

other symptoms to reactive arthritis besides the main 3

A

mucocutaneous lesions
enthesitis (where tendon hits bone is inflamed)
asymmetric oligoarthritis
NSAIDs are first line treatment

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191
Q

what is more likely to occur after an acute MI of RCA and LAD

A

RCA- right ventricular failure, papillary muscle rupture

RCA or LAD- interventricular septum rupture (pt presents with sudden cardiogenic shock)

LAD- free wall rupture, left ventricular aneurysm

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192
Q

pts with uncontrolled diabetes and opiate use disorder are at risk of what

A

Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth (SIBO)

  • pts present with abdominal pain, bloating, flatulence, and watery diarrhea
  • dx with carbohydrate breath test
  • treat with oral antibiotics (rifaximin or neomycin)
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193
Q

what are the chemotoxicities of drugs

A
cisplatin/carboplatin- ototoxic, nephrotoxic 
vincristine- peripheral neuropathy 
bleomycin/busulfan- pulmonary fibrosis 
doxorubicin/trastuzumab- cardiotoxic 
cyclophosphamide- hemorrhagic cystitis
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194
Q

wilsons disease

A
  • presents b/w 5-35
  • liver disease
  • neuropsych problems (parkinsonism, dysarthria, choreoathetosis, ataxia, personality changes, depression)
  • low ceruloplasmin with high copper levels
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195
Q

hemochromatosis

A

hyperpigmented diabetic person

-liver disease, arthropathy, cardiac enlargement

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196
Q

adverse side effect of long term amiodarone use

A

pulmonary toxicity

  • progressive dyspnea
  • nonproductive cough
  • new reticular/ground-glass opacities on chest radiograph
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197
Q

gout triggers

A
alcohol use
surgery/trauma 
dehydration
diet with lots of meat and fat and fructose 
certain medications (diuretics)
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198
Q

how to diagnose tinea pedis

A

potassium hydroxide of skin scrapings

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199
Q

first line for rheumatoid arthritis

A

disease modifying drug —> methotrexate

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200
Q

how to treat disseminated histoplasmosis

A

IV amphotericin B then after 1-2 weeks of clinical improvement switch them to oral itraconazole for > 1 year of maintenance therapy

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201
Q

what can cause cyanide poisoning and what does it look like

A

etiologies: combustion of carbon/nitrogen compounds like wool or silk, industrial exposure like mining, and medications like sodium nitroprusside

symptoms
skin- flushing first then cyanosis
cns- headache, altered mental status, seizures, coma
cv- arrhythmia
respiratory- tachypnea followed by depression and pulmonary edema
gi- abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting
renal- metabolic acidosis (from lactic acidosis) then renal failure

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202
Q

how to treat foodborne c. botulism

A
  • check for toxin in blood
  • supportive care
  • for anyone over age 1 also give passive immunity via horse-derived antitoxin
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203
Q

when/how to treat cataracts

A

indicated when loss of vision affects daily life

lens extraction and artificial lens implantation

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204
Q

convexed nail beds

A

nail clubbing due to hypoxia and possible lung pathology

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205
Q

DHEAS is where..

A

if female pt has virilization and high testosterone with high DHEAS then you know its likely adrenal cause
if DHEAS is normal then its likely ovarian tumor or something

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206
Q
urine shows... what do think
muddy brown granular casts?
RBC casts?
WBC casts?
Fatty casts?
Broad and waxy casts?
A
muddy brown- ATN
RBC casts- glomerulonephritis 
WBC casts- interstitial nephritis and pyelonephritis 
Fatty casts- nephrotic syndrome
broad waxy casts- chronic renal failure
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207
Q

how to treat pericarditis after a pt has an MI vs viral pericarditis

A

called Dresslers syndrome and give NSAIDs

-if youre treating viral pericarditis give NSAIDS + colchicine

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208
Q

what should be on the differential if a pt has pica for ice/paper?

A

iron deficiency

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209
Q

hereditary hemorrhagic telangectasias (osler weber rendau)

A
  • autosomal dominant
  • telangectasias
  • recurrent epistaxis
  • widespread AV malformations with shunting
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210
Q

which antihypertensive medication causes peripheral edema

A

CCB (ex: amlodipine)

  • due to peripheral dilation of precapillary vessels
  • adding ACE or ARB can help with these side effects
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211
Q

ACA vs MCA infarct

A

ACA- contralateral somatosensory and motor deficit (predominantly in lower extremity), dyspraxia, emotional disturbance, urinary incontinence

MCA- contralateral somatosensory and motor deficit of face, arm, and leg, conjugate eye deviation toward infarcted side

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212
Q

unilateral neck pain that radiates to the shoulder/arm and sensory, motor, and reflex abnormalities in a dermatomal distribution

A

cervical radiculopathy due to underlying cervical spondylosis
-spine imaging (MRI) shows abnormal facet joints, including the presence of sclerosis and osteophytes

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213
Q

leukemoid reaction vs CML

A

LR

  • leukocyte count > 50,000
  • severe infection
  • high LAP (leukocyte alk phos) score
  • more metamyelocytes than myelocytes (more mature)
  • no absolute basophilia

CML

  • leukocyte count > 100,000
  • BCR-ABL fusion
  • low LAP score
  • more myelocytes than metamyelocytes (less mature)
  • absolute basophilia
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214
Q

how to diagnose cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

MRI

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215
Q

antiphospholipid syndrome

A
  • patients have lupus anticoagulant
  • prolonged PTT that stays prolonged even with a mixing study
  • higher risk of thromboembolism and recurrent miscarriages
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216
Q

common triggers of drug induced acne

A

glucocorticoids, androgens
immunomodulators
anticonvulsants, antipsychotics
antituberculosis drugs (isoniazid)

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217
Q

delayed muscle relaxation after contraction

A

myotonic dystrophy (CTG repeat)

  • starts with facial and distal muscle weakness and myotonia
  • cataracts, testicular atrophy, and sleep disturbances are also common
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218
Q

calcific uremic arteriolopathy (calciphylaxis)

A

pathophys: arteriolar and soft tissue calcification with local tissue ischemia and necrosis

risk factors: ESRD (MAINLY SEEN IN THESE PTS), hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperparathyroidism, obesity, diabetes, oral anticoagulants

clinical manifestations: painful nodules and ulcers, soft tissue calcification on imaging, skin biopsy includes arterial calcification/occlusion with subintimal fibrosis

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219
Q

fatigue, weight loss, hypotension, and hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes

A

deficiency of mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and androgens

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220
Q

where is the most common place for lung cancer to spread to

A

brain

-presents with headache

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221
Q

initial treatment of chronic venous insufficiency

A

conservative measures: leg elevation, exercise, compression therapy

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222
Q

what is a major cause of isolated systolic hypertension

A

arterial stiffness or decreased elasticity

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223
Q

metoclopramide and prochlorperazine

A

dopamine antagonists which can cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as acute dystonias, akathisia, and parkinsonism

-metoclopramide is used as promotility

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224
Q

if you get one of these 3 skin conditions what should you test for?

  1. sudden-onset severe psoriasis
  2. recurrent herpes zoster
  3. disseminated molluscum contagiosum
A

HIV infection

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225
Q

if pt gets severe seborrheic dermatitis, what do you look for?

A

HIV infection or parkinsons disease

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226
Q

if pt gets explosive onset of multiple itchy seborrheic keratoses, what do you look for?

A

GI malignancy

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227
Q

pt presents with pyoderma gangrenosum (painful pustules and nodules that ulcerate and grow- NOT INFECTIOUS), what do you look for?

A

IBD

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228
Q

pt with asymptomatic hypercalcemia with normal labs and low urinary excretion

A

familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

  • benign autosomal dominant disorder cause by mutation of calcium sensing receptor (CaSR)
  • will also have higher-normal PTH
  • potential complications: pancreatitis and chondrocalcinosis
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229
Q

headache, malaise, low-grade fever, incessant cough, and nonexudative pharyngitis
chest x-ray shows interstitial infiltrate +/- serous pleural effusion

A

atypical mycoplasma pneumonia

-give empiric azithromycin

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230
Q

how to manage hypercalcemia in each of these ranges

  1. severe/symptomatic (> 14)
  2. moderate (12-14)
  3. mild/asymptomatic (< 12)
A
  1. severe-
    short term: normal saline hydration + calcitonin and avoid loop diuretics unless pt also has fluid overload HF
    long term: bisphosphonates (zoledronic acid)
  2. moderate- nothing immediate unless symptomatic then refer to severe
  3. mild- nothing, just avoid diuretics/lithium and keep hydrated and avoid best rest
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231
Q

what are the systematic effects of exertional heat stroke

A

seizures, ARDS, DIC, hepatic/renal failure

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232
Q

pemphigus vulgaris vs bullous pemphigoid

A

PV

  • antibody against desmosomes (desmoglein 1 and 3)
  • oral lesions
  • separation of epidermis (+ Niklovkys sign)

BP

  • antibody against hemidesmosomes
  • NO oral lesions
  • separation of epidermis and dermis junction (- Niklovkys sign)
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233
Q

how to treat diabetic nephropathy (early sign is increased albuminuria)

A

ACEi or ARB

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234
Q

chronic intermittent epigastric pain with symptoms of malabsorption and diabetes mellitus
pain gets better with leaning forward

A

chronic pancreatitis

  • dx with abdominal CT
  • decreased fecal elastase is also diagnostic
  • use lipase levels in ACUTE PANCREATITIS
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235
Q

why do NSAIDs make anaphylaxis worse?

A

resulting in nonimmunologic mast cell activation

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236
Q

main causes (ranked) of acute pancreatitis

A
  1. alcohol
  2. gallstones
  3. hypertriglyceridemia
    * others include medications (valproic acid, diuretics, azathioprine, metranidazole, tetracyclines), infections, and trauma
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237
Q

what does an echo show in viral myocarditis

A

4-chamber dilation

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238
Q

when do pick defibrillation vs cardioversion

A

fibrillation or tachycardia –> defibrillation

that + hemodynamic instability –> cardioversion

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239
Q

diagnosis via renal biopsy showing lymphocytic infiltration of the intima

A

T-cell mediated acute renal allograft rejection

-treat with high-dose IV glucocorticosteroids

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240
Q

patient with vision changes, headaches, vertigo, dizziness, ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, cryoglobulinemia, and/or renal insufficiency

A

waldenstrom macroglobulinemia (B-cell neoplasm)

  • associated with elevated monoclonal IgM
  • high IgM can cause hyperviscosity syndrome
  • dx requires serum protein electrophoresis and bone marrow biopsy
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241
Q
patient with hypercalcemia, anemia, renal insufficiency, bone/back pain, protein gap (diff b/w total protein and albumin > 4)
C- hyperCalcemia
Renal involvement 
Anemia
Bone lytic lesions and Back pain
A

possible multiple myeloma

  • plasma cell neoplasm which can cause hypogammaglobulinemia
  • will see rouleax formation on blood smear and clonal plasma proliferation in bone marrow
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242
Q

patient with nausea, vomiting, constipation, polyuria, polydispsia, and neuropsychiatric symptoms

lab findings: hypercalcemia, metabolic alkalosis, acute kidney injury, suppressed PTH

A

Milk-alkali syndrome

  • excessive intake of calcium and absorbable alkali (usually in the form of calcium carbonate)
  • renal vasoconstriction and decreased GFR
  • renal loss of sodium and water, reabsorption of bicarbonate

treat with discontinuation of causative agent and isotonic saline followed by furosemide

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243
Q

panacinar emphysema causing more lower lobe destruction leads to what possible diagnosis

A

alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

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244
Q

erythema multiforme

A

acute inflammatory disorder of skin that causes targetoid lesions

  • if severe can affect oral mucosa
  • associated with infections like HSV as well as medications, malignancies, and connective tissue diseases
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245
Q

what is ascorbic acid

A

vitamin c

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246
Q

how does parvo b19 present in adults

A

multiple joints with arthralgias

-may present like RA but with normal ESR

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247
Q

stenosis or occlusion of proximal subclavian artery

A

subclavian steal syndrome

  • reversal of blood flow in ipsilateral vertebral artery
  • may have symptoms of upper extremity ischemia (fatigue, paresthesias) or vertebrobasilar insufficiency (dizziness, ataxia, disequilibrium) that are worsened by upper extremity exercise
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248
Q

atypical presentation of acute coronary syndrome

A

more common in women and patients with diabetes

  • chest pain
  • dyspnea
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • epigastric pain
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249
Q

euthyroid sick syndrome

A
  • aka low T3 syndrome
  • any pt with acute/severe illness
  • fall in total and free T3 due to decreased peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
  • normal T4 and TSH levels
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250
Q

riedels thyroiditis

A

inflammatory disorder characterized by fibrosclerosis of the thyroid, surrounding tissues, and remote nonthyroid structures

  • subclinical or overt hypothyroidism may be seen
  • patients usually have a hard goiter
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251
Q

subclinical hypothyroidism

A

elevated TSH with normal T4

-T3 is usually normal until very late stages

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252
Q

multiple system atrophy (Shy-Drager syndrome)

A

degenerative disease w/

  1. parkinsonism
  2. autonomic dysfunction
  3. widespread neurological signs
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253
Q

familial dysautonomia (Riley-Day syndrome)

A
  • AR, Ashkenazi jew population
  • present at birth with feeding problems and low muscle tone
  • gross dysfunction of autonomic nervous system (no tears)
  • severe orthostatic hypotension (severe hypertension to postural hypotension)
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254
Q

dark/black hepatocytes on biopsy

A

dubin-johnson syndrome

  • defect in hepatic excretion of conjugated bilirubin
  • benign hereditary condition resulting in chronic or fluctuating hyperbilirubinemia and intermittent jaundice
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255
Q

shooting eye pain headache and how to treat it

A

cluster headache

  • acutely: subq sumatriptan and 100% O2
  • prophylaxis: verapamil
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256
Q

tension headache and how to treat it

A

bilateral stead “band-like” pain

  • acutely: analgesics, NSAIDs, acetaminophen
  • prophylaxis: TCAs and behavioral therapy
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257
Q

essential elements when evaluating brain death

A
  1. evaluating cortical and brain stem functions
  2. proving the irreversibility of brain activity loss

-spinal cord may still function so deep tendon reflexes may occur

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258
Q

behcet syndrome

A

multisystem inflammatory condition (mainly with recurrent oral and genital ulcers)

epidemiology: young adults, turkish/middle eastern/asian

clinical findings: recurrent painful aphthous ulcers, genital ulcers, uveitis, skin lesions (erythema nodosum, acniform lesions), thrombosis

evaluation:
pathergy- exaggerated skin ulceration with minor trauma (needlestick)
biopsy- nonspecific vasculitis of different sized vessels

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259
Q

major symptoms in a patient with sarcoidosis

A

significant respiratory symptoms

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260
Q

commonly used drugs with photosensitivity reactions

A

abx- tetracyclines
antipsychotics- chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine
diuretics- furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide
others- amiodarone, promethazine, piroxicam

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261
Q

what can be assumed in a case-control study if the outcome is uncommon in the population

A

that the odds ratio is a close approximation of the relative risk (rare disease assumption)

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262
Q

injury to nerve at elbow vs wrist?

A

elbow- decreased grip strength

wrist- numbness and paresthesia called clumsiness of medial hand

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263
Q

to add anaerobic coverage for pneumonia what meds should you consider

A

metronidazole + amoxicillin
amoxicillin + clavulanate
clindamycin

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264
Q

if pt has hypercalcemia and youve done the test twice to check then what do you look at…

A

measure PTH levels

if HIGH (PTH-dependent)

  • primary hyperparathyroidism
  • familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
  • lithium

if LOW (PTH-independent)

  • malignancy
  • vitamin D toxicity
  • granulomatous disease
  • drug induced (thiazides)
  • milk-alkali syndrome
  • thyrotoxicosis
  • vitamin A toxicity
  • immobilization
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265
Q

grid lines appear wavy on visual test

A

macular degeneration

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266
Q

when someone has a stroke of this area it can lead to sudden onset contralateral burning pain exacerbated by touch

A

thalamic pain syndrome

-thalamus

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267
Q

beta blocker overdose treatment

A

first-line: IV fluids and atropine

if that doesnt work: glucagon

268
Q

tenosynovitis

A

inflammation of the tendon and its synovial sheath

  • usually in hands and wrists due to overuse or bite or puncture wound
  • pts have pain and tenderness along the tendon sheath, particularly with flexion and extension movements
269
Q

hypertension + high calcium

A

hyperparathyroidism

  • pts also have renal stones, abdominal pain, neuropsych symptoms
  • also LV hypertrophy, arrhythmias, vascular and valvular calcification
270
Q

what medications can trigger G6PD deficiency symptoms

A

infection or medications (dapsone, tmp-smx, nitrofurantoin, antimalarials)

271
Q

acute coronary syndrome due to unstable angina or NSTEMI… what do you give the patient?

A

antiplatelet, antithrombotic, beta-blockers, nitrates, high-intensity statins
*note that no fibrinolytic therapy is used

272
Q

watery diarrhea (secretory)
hypokalemia
weakness and muscle cramps
mass in pancreas

A

VIPoma

  • watery diarrhea with VIP level > 75
  • abdominal CT or MRI to localize tumor in pancreatic tail usually
273
Q

flushing
diarrhea
bronchospasm
mass in small intestine

A

carcinoid syndrome

274
Q

what are the risk factors and how to tell if a pt is likely to get another foot ulcer

A

risk factors: diabetic neuropathy most important, previous foot ulceration, vascular disease, foot deformity

monofilament testing predicts risk of future foot ulcers

275
Q

what lab value is most important in patients with beta cell tumors (insulinoma)

A

elevated c-peptide levels and proinsulin levels > 5

276
Q

how to manage colonoscopy in pts with IBD with colonic involvement

A
  • 8-10 year postdiagnosis (12-15 if only in left colon)

- repeat every 1-3 years

277
Q

when do you decide to intubate

A

pH < 7.1

hemodynamic instability

278
Q

how to treat pts with CHADVASC score > 2

A

warfarin or specific oral anticoagulants (rivaroxiban, apixaban, dabigatran)

-pts with score 0 need no therapy

279
Q

classic triad of spinal epidural abscess

A
  1. fever
  2. focal/severe back pain
  3. neurologic findings (motor/sensory change, bowel/bladder dysfunction, paralysis)
  • dx via spinal MRI
  • treat with vanc + ceftriaxone along with spinal aspiration and decompression
280
Q

hepatic hydorthorax

A
  • pts present with dyspnea, cough, pleuritic chest pain, and hypoxemia
  • due to liver cirrhosis
  • results in transudative pleural effusions and is thought to occur due to small defects in the diaphragm
  • more common on the right side due to a less muscular hemidiaphragm
  • dx involves documentation of the effusion and testing to occlude other causes
  • definitive treatment is liver transplant
281
Q

brief (< 1min) episodic vertigo triggered by head position changes (looking up)

A

BPPV
-crystalline debris in semicircular canal

-if pt had lightheadedness or syncope then it would be true vertigo due to some cardiac problem or something

282
Q

extraintestinal manifestations of IBD

A

arthritis (spondyloarthritis, sacroileitis, etc)
eye (uveitis, episcleritis)
skin (pyoderma gangrenosum)
hepatobiliary disease (psc)

283
Q

fibromuscular dysplasia

A
  • noninflammatory and nonatherosclerotic condition caused by abnormal cell development in the arterial wall
  • can lead to vessel stenosis, aneurysm, or dissection
  • can involve any artery but commonly the renal, carotid, and vertebral arteries
  • pts can present with resistant hypertension (if renal artery involvement)
  • headache, pulsatile tinnitus, and dizziness (if carotid or vertebral involvement)
  • dx with computed tomography angiography or duplex ultrasound
  • do f/u bp and creatinine every 3-4 months and renal ultrasound every 6-12 months
284
Q

what happens to the kidney in diabetic nephropathy and what do you see clinically

A

glomerular hyperfiltration, basement membrane thickening, and mesangial nodules (KW-nodules)
-pt will present with persistent proteinuria and poorly controlled hypertension

285
Q

what type of study is best to determine the incidence of a disease

A

cohort study design

  • comparing incidence of disease in 2 populations (with and w/o a given risk factor)
  • allows for relative risk calculation
286
Q

how can you tell bells palsy from central nervous system problems?

A
  • upper face receives input from bilateral motor cortices
  • CNS lesions typically cause unilateral facial weakness that spares the muscles of the forehead
  • bells palsy affects the entire side of the face
287
Q

how to differentiate AIHA and hereditary spherocytosis

A

AIHA- positive coombs test and negative family history
HS- negative coombs test and positive family history

blood smear of both can cause spherocytes with central pallor

288
Q

what to suspect when patient placed on ACEi or ARB then gets diffuse atherosclerosis, asymmetric kidney size, recurrent flash pulmonary edema, or elevated serum creatinine > 30% from baseline

A

renovascular hypertension

-continuous periumbilical bruit

289
Q

first-line treatments for uncomplicated cystitis then complicated cystitis

A

nitrofurantoin 5 days
bactrim 3 days
fosfomycin single dose

if complicated… give floroquinolones 5-14 days

290
Q

fomepizole

A

competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase

-used in ethylene glycol poisoning (associated with hypocalcemia and and calcium oxalate crystal deposition in kidneys)

291
Q

prolonged, profuse, and watery diarrhea after traveling (10-14 days)

A

think of something parasitic

  • cryptosporidium parvum (due to ingestion of contaminated water via drinking or swimming)
  • cyclospora
  • giardia

*immunocompromised pts are at risk of chronic infection

292
Q

when should you NOT give a pt sildenafil (or another PDE-5 inhibitor)

A

when they are also taking an alpha-blocker (-zosin) or a nitrate because that can cause severe hypotension

293
Q

what is your main concern if patients hypercapnia gets to around 70-80

A

delirium, confusion, lethargy, and eventually coma (CO2 narcosis) or seizures
-can test for this with arterial blood gas

294
Q

diabetic retinopathy patient with sudden loss of vision and onset of floaters

A

vitreous hemorrhage

295
Q

what meds improve long term survival of pts with LV systolic dysfunction

A

ACEi –> reduces cardiac remodeling and improves survival of pts with MI and low ejection fraction
ARBs
beta-blockers
mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists

*hydralazine and nitrates combo used in black patients

296
Q

theophylline toxicity

A
CNS stimulation (headache, insomnia, seizures) 
GI disturbances (nausea, vomiting) 
cardiac toxicity (arrhythmia)

-inhibits cytochrome oxidase by other meds, diet, or underlying disease due to the small therapeutic window

297
Q

how to test for/diagnose infectious mononucleosis (prolonged fever, fatigue, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy)

A
  1. positive heterophile antibody test (monospot)- note that this is negative in 25% of patients early on
  2. atypical lymphocytosis
  3. transient hepatitis
298
Q

which CN controls corneal sensation

A

V1 of trigeminal nerve

299
Q

normocytic MCV, what do you think of?

A

look at reticulocyte count

IF LOW

  • leukemia
  • aplastic anemia
  • anemia of chronic disease

IF HIGH

  • hemorrhage
  • hemolysis
  • -spherocytosis
  • -G6PD deficiency
  • -autoimmune
  • -microangiopathic
300
Q

how to define asthma

A

reversible airway obstruction (> 12% increase in FEV1)

normal CO diffusion capacity

301
Q

what type of gait is seen in parkinsonism

A

hypokinetic/shuffling gait

302
Q

how to treat premature atrial complexes

A

only needed when symptoms cause distress or supraventricular tachycardia
-precipitating factors —> tobacco, alcohol, caffeine, stress

303
Q

when to give packed RBCs

A

less than 7 for stable patients

less than 9 for unstable patients

304
Q

what diabetic medication has positive effects on patients cardiac and weight-related problems

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors (-flozin)

  • blocks proximal tubule glucose reabsorption
  • causes increased urinary glucose excretion
  • less nephropathy, albuminuria, CV mortality/morbidity, and can help with weight loss
  • can put pts at risk for euglycemic ketoacidosis, increased risk of genitourinary infections
  • contraindicated in pts with T1DM, history of DKA, impaired renal function

GLP-1 agonists do the same thing (-tide)

305
Q

how does acute colonic ischemia present

A
  • due to hypoperfusion
  • affects watershed areas
  • presents with crampy, left-sided abdominal pain and overt hematochezia during or shortly after (<24hrs) episodes of hypotension
306
Q

pt in ICU and can cause occult or gross GI bleeding
-risk factors: shock, sepsis, coagulopathy, mechanical ventilation, traumatic spinal cord/brain injury, burns, and high-dose corticosteroids

A

stress ulceration

307
Q

blepharospasm

A
  • form of focal dystonia where eyelids (bilateral and symmetric)
  • bright lights may trigger muscle contraction

-tx: botulinum toxin may be used for very bad cases otherwise just try to block bright lights for mild cases

308
Q

when are live vaccines contraindicated in pts with HIV

A

MMR, zoster, and varicella are contraindicated if CD4 count is < 200

309
Q

who should get the Hepatitis A vaccine

A

people at increased risk

  • men who have sex with men
  • travelers to areas of increased incidence
  • adults with chronic liver disease
310
Q

chikungunya fever

A

viral illness via aedes mosquito

  • flulike illness (3-7 day incubation period)
  • symmetric severe polyarthralgias
  • macular/maculopapular rash on limbs and trunk
  • peripheral edema
  • cervical lymphadenopathy
  • lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, transaminitis
  • treat with supportive care (usually resolves in 7-10 days)
  • chronic arthralias/arthritis in 50% of pts that may require methotrexate
311
Q

tender, indurated, erythematous nodules on anterior legs

-usually after an infection, IBD, sarcoid, or certain meds (abx or OCPs)

A

erythema nodosum

  • septal panniculitis without vasculitis
  • spontaneous resolution (weeks) with residual hyperpigmentation
312
Q

serum sickness

A
  • immune reaction against blood products or antigens from nonhuman species
  • fever, joint pain, urticarial or vasculitis like rash
313
Q

thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

PENTAD: petechial rash w/ fever, renal failure, abdominal pain, and neurological manifestations
-decreased ADAMTS13 level, uncleaved vWF multimers causing platelet trapping and activation

manage with plasma exchange, glucocorticoids, and rituximab

314
Q

HIV patient with multiple ring enhancing lesions on brain imaging

A

TMP-SMX couldve been used for prophylaxis

315
Q

primary adrenal insufficiency

A

due to: autoimmune, infection, metastatic infiltration

clinical features: fatigue, weakness, anorexia/weight loss, n/v, abdominal pain, salt craving, postural hypotension, hyperpigmentation
acute adrenal crisis –> confusion, hypotension, shock

lab findings: hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, eosinophilia, low morning cortisol, high ACTH

dx with cosyntropin stimulation testing

treatment: glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

316
Q

what spinal problems are most likely in pts with degenerative joint disease

A

lumbar spinal stenosis

  • neuropathic claudication
  • worse when walking
  • pain relieved by spinal flexion
  • dx via spinal MRI
317
Q

how often should you screen lipids in average risk patients

A

every 5 years

318
Q

when to start steroids for pts with pneumocystis pneumonia

A

pulse ox < 92%
PaO2 < 70
A-a gradient > 35 on room air

-meant to reduce risk of worsened hypoxia with treatment initiation

319
Q

whatre two meds when used together that can cause rhabdo

A

statins and colchicine

320
Q

if patient has persistent bradycardia with one of the following then whats the next step?

  • hypotension/signs of shock
  • acute mental status changes
  • chest discomfort concerning for cardiac ischemia
  • acute heart failure
A

if none of those then just observe

if at least one of those then give IV atropine 0.5mg bolus and repeat every 3-5 mins up to 3.0mg max

321
Q

strep bovis

A

used to be strep gallolyticus

322
Q

strep sanguins

A

part of strep viridins family

323
Q

if someone has trigeminal neuralgia bilaterally what do you think?

A

they likely have MS (demyelination of nerve axon)

324
Q

how to treat sporotrichosis

A

itraconazole

325
Q

classic triad for pheochromocytoma

A

episodic headache
sweating
tachycardia

  • pts have resistent hypertension and unexplained increase in blood glucose with possible family history
  • check urine or plasma metanephrines
326
Q

myelofibrosis

A

collagen or reticulin deposition in bone marrow

  • presents with fatigue, fever, and hepatosplenomegaly from extramedullary hematopoiesis
  • peripheral blood cell counts may be either elevated or decreased
327
Q

causes of aplastic anemia

A

pathogenesis: bone marrow failure due to hematopoietic stem cell deficiency (CD34) – can be acquired
causes: autoimmune, infections (parvo, ebv), drugs (carbamazepine, chloramphenicol, sulfonamides), exposure to radiation or toxins (benzene, solvents)

pancytopenia and hypocellular bone marrow with fat and stomal cells seen on biopsy, no splenomegaly seen

328
Q

triad of acute liver failure

A
elevated aminotransferases (often > 1000)
hepatic encephalopathy (confusion/asterixis)
synthetic liver dysfunction (increased INR)

*no cirrhosis or underlying liver disease

  • acetaminophen toxicity is a common cause due to build up of NAPQI
  • pts with this need to get a liver transplant (only 50% without the transplant with survive)
329
Q

what type of medication is chlorthalidone

A

thiazide diuretic

  • can cause hyperglycemia, increased LDL, increased triglycerides, and hyperuricemia
  • also hypo-everything except hypercalcemia
  • glucose intolerance is a side effect in pts with metabolic syndrome or diabetes mellitus
330
Q

you diagnose someone with alcoholic liver cirrhosis, next steps?

A

get upper GI to make sure they dont have esophageal varices to indicate strategies to prevent future hemorrhage

-primary prophylaxis is either endoscopic variceal ligation or nonselective beta-blocker like nadolol

331
Q

what virus is progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy associated with?

A

reactivation of JC virus

332
Q

erysipelas

A

skin infection of the upper dermis and superficial lymphatic system

  • most common caused by group A strep pyogenes
  • manifests with fever and chills, regional lymphadenitis, warm tender erythematous rash with raised sharply demarcated borders
333
Q

what type of urine is seen in DM vs DI

A

DM –> high urine osmolaltiy and high urine specific gravity (osmotic diuresis)

DI –> low urine osmolality and low urine specific gravity (< 1.006), dilute urine

334
Q

diabetes insipidus

A

central- ADH deficiency

nephrogenic- ADH resistance (renal disease), can be due to longterm lithium use

335
Q

triad of aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease

A
  • asthma (often severe and presenting in adulthood)
  • bronchospasm or nasal congestion following ingestion of aspirin or NSAIDs
  • chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyposis
336
Q

why is norepi used as first line treatment for septic shock

A

acts on a1 and b1 receptors to cause vasoconstriction, increase MAP so that you can optimize blood flow to critical organs like the brain but as a result it decreases blood flow to distal digits

337
Q

what parts of the eye changes vision

A

cornea- astigmatism
lens elasticity- near/far sightedness
lens opacity- cataracts

338
Q

painless hematuria

A

think likely bladder cancer

339
Q

how to tell the difference b/w vasovagal syncope and orthostatic hypotension

A

vasovagal (aka neurocardiogenic)- starts with nausea, diaphoresis, and pallor before passing out (usually in response to stress)… bradycardia with sinus arrest
orthostatic- usually when you go from lying or sitting to standing

340
Q

most common site of metastasis for colon cancer
-patient will have abdominal pain, microcytic anemia, positive fecal occult blood, and hepatomegaly with a hard liver edge

A

goes to the liver

  • presents as RUQ pain, mildly elevated liver enzymes, firm hepatomegaly
  • confirm with CT
341
Q

vascular dementia

A
  • stepwise decline
  • early executive dysfunction
  • cerebral infarction and/or deep white matter changes on neuroimaging
342
Q

upper motor neuron problems distal to the site of compression

A

spinal cord compression

  • weakness, hyperreflexia, and extensor plantar response
  • medical emergency and requires prompt diagnosis by spinal MRI
343
Q

patient with chondrocalcinosis, pseudogout, chronic arthropathy, diabetes, and liver disease

A

hereditary hemochromatosis

344
Q

patient with any of the following…
-crush injury or prolonged immobilization
-intense muscle activity (seizure, exertion)
-drug/med toxicity (opioids, colchicine, statins)
what do you think of?

A

clinical features: muscle pain, weakness, dark urine, blood on urinalysis and no RBCs on microscopy, increased serum K and PO4, decreased serum Ca, increased AST/ALT, acute kidney injury

dx: serum creatinine kinase > 1000
management: aggressive IV fluid resuscitation, sodium bicarb in some cases

345
Q

patient has a history of difficulty initiating swallowing with cough, choking, or nasal regurgitation… next step?

A

likely oropharyngeal dysphagia- video fluoroscopic modified barium swallow

if they dont have that hx then likely esophageal dysphagia…

  • if solids and liquids at onset –> motility disorder (do barium swallow followed by manometry)
  • if solids then liquids –> mechanical obstruction (either barium swallow or upper endoscopy)
346
Q

euvolemic hypotonic hyponatremia, what do you think of

A

SIADH

  • can be caused by carbamazepine, SSRIs, NSAIDs
  • is associated with small cell lung cancer
  • serum osmolality < 275 // urine osmolality > 100 // urine sodium > 40
  • manage with fluid restriction +/- salt tablets and hypertonic 3% saline for severe hyponatremia
347
Q

risk factors for MS

A
  • female, caucasian, HLA-DRB1
  • environmental factors: location (US and Europe), colder climates
  • low vitamin D levels
  • smoking
348
Q

patients with long standing RA are at higher risk of what

A

amyloidosis

349
Q

what ligament can cause compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

A

inguinal ligament

350
Q

most common cause of elderly pt with anemia

A

GI blood loss

-endoscopy and colonoscopy

351
Q

first line treatment in pt with aortic dissection

A

IV beta blockers

352
Q

myasthenia gravis vs lambert-eaton

A

MG

  • autoantibodies to postsynaptic ACh receptor, ligand gated
  • ptosis, diplopia, weakness with respiratory muscles
  • worsens with muscle use
  • associated with: thymoma, thymic hyperplasia
  • AChEi reverses symptoms, so give pyridostigmine

LE

  • autoantibodies to presynaptic Ca2+ channel leads to decreased ACh release, voltage gated
  • proximal muscle weakness (difficulty walking, risking in chair, combing hair), autonomic symptoms (dry mouth, impotence)
  • improves with muscle use
  • associated with: small cell lung cancer
  • AChEi have minimal effect
353
Q

triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus and what it makes the brain look like

A

wet, wobbly, wacky
-urinary incontinence, gait dysfunction, dementia

  • also presents with UMN signs
  • neuroimaging/CT presents with large ventricles with normal sulci
354
Q
  • patient with distinct P waves with > 3 different morphologeis
  • atrial rate > 100
  • irregular rhythm
A

Multifocal atrial tachycardia

  • precipitated by acute respiratory illness with underlying lung disease
  • treatment directed at correcting underlying inciting disturbance
355
Q

most common cause of abnormal hemostasis in pt with chronic renal failure (uremic coagulopathy)

A

platelet dysfunction

  • all labs are normal but bleeding time is prolonged
  • DDAVP is treatment of choice (not platelet transfusion cause they quickly become inactive anyways)
356
Q

risk factors below are risk factors for what…

  • acyclovir
  • sulfonamides
  • methotrexate
  • ethylene glycol
  • protease inhibitors
  • uric acid (tumor lysis syndrome)
A

crystal-induced acute kidney injury

  • usually asymptomatic
  • aki < 7 days of starting drug
  • UA: hematuria, pyuria, and crystals
  • increased risk with volume depletion, CKD

mangement

  • discontinuation of drug
  • volume repletion
  • loop diuretic
357
Q

most common cardiac problem in pts with lupus

A

pericarditis

358
Q

cardiac tamponade (Becks) triad

A
  • hypotension
  • distended neck veins
  • muffled heart sounds

*exaggerated shift of intraventricular septum toward left ventricle (reduces LV preload, SV, and CO)

359
Q

ototoxic medications

A

aminoglycosides
cysplatin/carboplatin
salicylates
loop-diuretics

360
Q

patient with hyperviscosity syndrome (diplopia, tinnitus, headache, dilated/segmented funduscopic findings), neuropathy, and infiltrative disease (hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia)

A

waldenstorms macroglobulinemia

-lymphoplasmocytic neoplasm with excessive IgM, end-organ damage, and > 10% clonal lymphocytes by bone marrow biopsy

361
Q

how to treat prolactinoma

A

asymptomatic- no treatment

symptomatic- dopamine agonists (cabergoline, bromocriptine) or resection if > 3cm or still growing on treatment

362
Q

how to treat hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state

A

IV fluids with normal saline

363
Q

what should be the follow up for pts with syncope and possible structural heart disease

A

echocardiogram

364
Q

undiagnosed pleural effusion (excess quantity of fluid in the pleural space) is best evaluated how

A

thoracentesis

  • except in pts with clear-cut evidence of congestive heart failure
  • diagnostic can be done at bedside and provides decision making info (if exudative then you need to do more)
365
Q

patient with lung infiltrate, coughing up blood, and nothing found on gram stain… what should be on your differential

A

invasive aspergillosis

  • immunocompromised (neutropenia, steroids, HIV)
  • triad (fever, chest pain, hemoptysis)
  • pulmonary nodules with halo sign
  • positive cultures and cell wall biomarkers
  • give voriconazole +/- caspofungin

chronic pulmonary aspergillosis

  • look above but for > 3 months and with likely tb or other cavitary lesion
  • cavitary lesion with possible fungus ball
  • positive IgG serology
  • resect, give voriconazole and embolize if severe hemoptysis
366
Q

first-line medication treatment for idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

acetazolamide +/- furosemide

-optic nerve sheath decompression or lumboperitoneal shunting for pts refractory to medication

367
Q

costochondritis

A

musculoskeletal chest pain

  • tenderness of > 1 sternochondral joint
  • sharp, localized chest pain that is reproducible with palpation
  • treatment: reassurance and symptomatic pain management
368
Q

what is the likely etiology of the following back pain

  • insidious onset
  • symptoms > 3 months
  • relieved with exercise but not rest
  • nocturnal pain
A

inflammatory back pain

  • ankylosing spondylitis
  • dx with x-ray of sacroiliac joints
369
Q

what causes condyloma acuminata

A

anogenital warts caused by Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

-associated with increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma

370
Q

normal blood pressure readings in clinic but elevated bp throughout the day and at night
-pts have left ventricular hypertrophy

A

masked hypertension

-dx made by ambulatory bp monitoring in pts with clinical evidence of hypertension

371
Q

most common complication of influenza

A

secondary bacterial pneumonia due to staph aureus or strep pneumo

  • MRSA can cause multilobar cavitary infiltrates
  • if due to staph it can cause rapid-onset, severe, necrotizing pneumonia with high risk of death
372
Q

if someone has complications months after an MI what is on your differential

A

pericarditis or left ventricular aneurysm

373
Q

what underlying mechanism causes the following in pts with liver cirrhosis

  • gynecomastia
  • testicular atrophy
  • decreased body hair
  • spider angiomas
  • palmar erythema
A

hyperestrinism

-liver cant remove estrogens

374
Q

inheritance pattern of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

AD

375
Q

initial evaluation of hypertension

A

identifying complications and comorbid conditions

  • serum chemistry panel (lipid panel, fasting serum glucose, hemoglobin A1c)
  • hemoglobin/hematocrit
  • urinalysis
376
Q

explain the difference b/w 13 and 23 valent pneumococcal vaccines

A

23: T-cell independent B-cell response (IgM)
13: T-cell dependent B-cell response (IgG)

377
Q

pt with dermatomyositis, what do you screen them for?

A

occult malignancy, they are at an increased risk

378
Q

what are patients at risk for with untreated hyperthyroidism

A

rapid bone loss and osteoporosis

-increased thyroid hormones leads to increased osteoclast bone resorption

379
Q

acute persistent vertigo that can last days

  • often follows viral syndrome
  • abnormal head thrust test
A
vestibular neuritis (labyrinthitis)
-associated with unilateral hearing loss
380
Q

patient with painless lymphadenopathy and B symptoms

A

non-hodgkin lymphoma
-pts with chronic autoimmune diseases are at increased risk due to chronic b-cell stimulation, immune dysregulation, and use of immunosuppressive medications

if they have no B symptoms then consider follicular lymphoma which has an indolent course and presents with waxing and waning lymphadenopathy

381
Q

common medication that can cause iron deficiency anemia

A

NSAIDs because they can cause chronic blood loss from the GI tract

382
Q

male patient presents with severe LLQ pain radiating to groin, vomiting… what do you think of if abdominal exam is normal?

A

obstructive ureterolithiasis

-get ultrasound or non-contrast spiral CT

383
Q

if a patient has hyperplastic polyps on colonoscopy how often should they get checked

A

every 10 years like normal, those dont increase the risk of cancer

-if it were adenomatous then it would require more frequent checks

384
Q

what do you see on ECG if someone has taken too much digoxin

A
  • increased ectopy (adds extra heartbeat) and increased vagal tone
  • atrial tachycardia with AV block

side effects:
CV- life-threatening arrhythmias
GI- anorexia, n/v, abdominal pain
Neuro- fatigue, confusion, weakness, visual color changes

385
Q

how to workup a possible aortic dissection

A

if chest x-ray and ECG suggest something else then fix that

  • if they lead to likely aortic dissection then check serum creatinine and see if they have a contrast allergy
  • if they cant take contrast dye then do TEE
  • if they can take contrast dye then do one of these, whichever is available (TEE, chest CT with contrast, MRI only if non-emergent and pt can still lie still)
386
Q

if you have severe liver cirrhosis and systemic/renal hypoperfusion… what do you think of?

A

hepatorenal syndrome

387
Q

post-op complication of a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass

A

stomal (anastimotic) stenosis

  • nausea
  • postprandial vomiting
  • GERD
  • dysphagia

Treatment: EDG is both diagnostic and treatment for these pts

388
Q

how to treat lichen planus

A

high potency glucocorticoids

-disorder is self-limited and usually resolves w/i 2 years

389
Q

ventilation is defined as a product of what two things

A

respiratory rate and tidal volume

390
Q

how long is a typical gout flare

A

abrupt onset with maximal symptoms within 12-24 hours

391
Q

patient with super rapidly progressive nonspecific infection, myalgias, and poor perfusion

A

early meningococcal infection

-dx with lumbar puncture

392
Q

what is a synthetic cathinone

A

bath salts (amphetamine analogues)

  • norepi, dopamine, serotoinin
  • agitation, combativeness, psychosis, delirium, myoclonus, seizures
  • you can tell its this because it can take days to a week o subside*
393
Q

what do leafy green vegetables and grapefruit do to warfarin

A

vegetables decrease warfarin

grapefruit increases warfarin (ginseng also does but much less)

394
Q

when you see that someone has a metabolic acidosis, next step?

A

calculate plasma anion gap

395
Q

how to diagnose perforated peptic ulcer

A

chest x-ray will allow you to see the perforation via subdiaphragmatic free air

396
Q

if pt has primary hyperthyroidism (low TSH and high free T4) but no signs of graves (goiter or ophthalmopathy) then…

A

radioactive iodine uptake and scan

HIGH

  • diffuse pattern: graves
  • nodular pattern: toxic adenoma or multinodular goiter

LOW then measure serum thyroglobulin

  • high: thyroiditis or iodide exposure
  • low: exogenous hormone
397
Q

if pt has high TSH and high free T4 and T3 then…

A

secondary hyperthyroidism

-do MRI of pituitary

398
Q

lung and kidney problems without a fever, what do you think of

A

anti-GBM disease (Goodpasture syndrome)
kidney- nephritic proteinuria, acute renal failure, urine sediment with dysmorphic red cells and red cell casts
pulm- shortness of breath, cough, hemoptysis caused by pulmonary hemorrhage

-dx made via linear IgG seen on renal biopsy

399
Q

definition of status epilepticus

A

seizure lasting > 5 mins or > 2 seizures where the pt does NOT regain consciousness

  • usually due to pts with structural brain abnormality (tumor or stroke), metabolic abnormality (hyponatremia, hypoglycemia), infection (meningitis), or drug withdrawal (alcohol or benzo)
  • give lorazepam or diazepam to stop the seizure then give a non-benzo seizure med to prevent future seizures
400
Q

when is pituitary imaging indicated

A

elevated prolactin
mass-effect symptoms
very low testosterone levels
disruptions in other pituitary hormone levels

401
Q

what is the most common adverse transfusion reaction

A

febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

  • transient fever, chills, malaise
  • caused by release of cytokines from leukocytes in stored blood product
  • symptoms develop w/i 1-6hrs
  • leukoreduction of donor blood
402
Q

next step for a pt with torsades de pointes (TdP)

A

type of polymorphic v. tach usually due to QT prolongation

  • if pt is hemodynamically unstable then do immediate defibrillation
  • if pt is hemodynamically stable then give magnesium
403
Q

when to give pts adenosine

A

used for acute termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

404
Q

how does clostridium tetani work

A

(toxin mediated) blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitters glycine and GABA across synaptic cleft
-leading to fever, painful muscle spasms, and trismus (lockjaw)

405
Q

empiric treatment for community-acquired pneumonia

A

OUTPATIENT
healthy- macrolide or doxycycline
comorbidities- fluoroquinolone or beta-lactam + macrolide

GENERAL INPATIENT
fluoroquinolone
beta-lactam + macrolide

ICU
beta-lactam + macrolide
beta-lactam + fluoroquinolone

*you can give moxi or levo as a fluoroquinolone cause they are respiratory specific

406
Q

how to determine if a patient should be hospitalized

A

CURB-65

Confusion
Urea > 20 mg/dL
Respirations > 30/min
Blood pressure (systolic < 90 or diastolic < 60 mmHg)
age over 65

1 point for each of the following
0- low mortality - outpt treatment
1-2- intermediate mortality - likely inpatient treatment
3-4- high mortality - urgent inpt admit, possible ICU if score > 4

407
Q

scleroderma renal crisis

A

presents with: acute renal failure, malignant htn, mild proteinuria, MAHA with schistocytes and thrombocytopenia

408
Q

rapidly progressive myelopathy

  • motor weakness
  • autonomic dysfunction (bowel/bladder incontinence/retention and sexual dysfunction)
  • sensory deficits with distinct sensory level
A

transverse myelitis
-immune mediated disorder with infiltration of inflammatory cells into a segment of the spinal cord leading to cells death and demyelination

409
Q

tetanus prophylaxis rules

A

if they had the 3 vaccine series as a child

  • clean wound: give vaccine if been > 10 years
  • dirty wound: give vaccine if been > 5 years

if they didnt have all 3 vaccines

  • clean wound: give vaccine only
  • dirty wound: give both vaccine and TIG
410
Q

what is diabetic gastroparesis

A

delayed gastric emptying

-pt presents with anorexia, n/v, early satiety, postprandial fullness, and impaired glycemic control

411
Q

how does mixed cryoglobulinemia present

A

fatigue, palpable purpura (that do not blanch with pressure), arthralgias, renal disease, peripheral neuropathies

with positive rheumatoid factor, hypocomplementemia, elevated transaminases, and kidney injury

-associated with Hep C, HIV, and SLE

412
Q

which medications interfere with digoxin metabolism

A

amiodarone, verapamil, quinidine, and propafenone

  • increases serum level of digoxin
  • if they need to be on one of these meds then decrease the digoxin dose by 25-50%
413
Q

causes of myoclonus (involuntary muscle contraction)

A

genetic disorder
seizures
medications
prolonged hypoxia (usually occurs after cardiac arrest)

414
Q

Lance-adams syndrome

A

chronic form of posthypolxic myoclonus

  • presents days to weeks after initial insult once pt has regained consciousness
  • typically focal in nature and exacerbated by action leading pts to drop objects or fall
415
Q

giving a pt estrogen can cause what

A

increase in TBG, so if they are on thyroid replacement therapy then they will need more to make up for the extra TBG

416
Q

obese pt with increased hematocrit

A

likely has increase in EPO due to OSA

  • pt may also complain of erectile dysfunction and arterial hypertension
  • fat and tired patient with hypertension think OSA
417
Q

what acid-base disturbance do pts have in DKA

A

metabolic acidosis due to rapid accumulation of ketoacids (beta-hydroxybutarate and acetoacetate)
-pH can be brought close to normal but never fully corrects

418
Q

patients gets admitted to hospital then 6-24hrs later has hallucinations of bugs on them

A

alcoholic hallucinations

give them a benzo

419
Q

if they give you total protein and albumin labs when what do you think of

A

subtract them and if its > 4 then they likely have a monoclonal gammopathy due to multiple myeloma
-get serum protein electrophoresis

420
Q

complications of radioactive iodine treatments for graves disease

A
  • permanent hypothyroidism
  • worsening ophthalmopathy
  • possible radiation side effects
421
Q

risks of surgery for graves disease

A
  • permanent hypothyroidism
  • risk of recurrent laryngeal nerve damage
  • risk of hypoparathyroidism
422
Q

bacilliary angiomatosis

A
  • occurs when an immunocompromised pt presents with bartonella (gram - bacillus)
  • bright red, firm, friable, exophytic nodules
  • systemic b symptoms
  • rarely includes organ involvement
  • give oral erythromycin or doxycycline
423
Q

how to treat papulopustular rosacea (super red face that gets worse after sun exposure)

A

first-line: topical metronidazole, azelaic acid, ivermectin

second-line: oral tetracyclines

424
Q
  • pt under 50
  • possible smoker
  • recurrent chest discomfort
  • -occurs at rest or during sleep
  • -spontaneous resolution in < 15mins
A

vasospastic angina

  • hyperactivity of coronary smooth muscle
  • dx by ambulatory ECG showing ST elevation and coronary angiography shows no CAD
  • prevent with CCB
  • abort with sublingual nitroglycerin
425
Q

if a pt has clostridum septicum/group D strep/strep bovis, what is your next step

A

colonoscopy cause theyre associated with colon cancer

426
Q

what vaccinations do you give to pts going to north africa

A

hep A
hep B
typhoid
polio booster

427
Q

patient with severe onset thats the worst of their life and has neck stiffness, what do you think of

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

  • thunderclap headache
  • get urgent noncontrast CT and if negative then get lumbar puncture (high RBC count that does not decrease with each tube collected)
428
Q

what do you see on peripheral blood smear for pts with CLL

A

leukocytosis
mature lymphocytes
smudge cells

429
Q

patient has a firm thyroid nodule with no other symptoms, next step?

A

get serum TSH and ultrasound

  • if normal or elevated TSH: consider fine needle aspiration given other findings
  • if low TSH: radioactive iodine scintigraphy
  • -if hypofunctional node then do FNA
  • -if hyperfunctional node then treat hyperthyroidism
430
Q

patient presents with some form of optic neuropathy, elevated intraocular pressure, abnormal (increased) cup/disc ratio

A

open-angle glaucoma

  • pts will eventually lose peripheral vision
  • vision loss is irreversible
  • first-line is topical prostaglandin (latanoprost, bimatoprost) –> acts by increasing drainage through aqueous humor through uveosclerar pathway
  • -if needed you can also topical beta blockers (timolol)
431
Q

HIV patient presents with headache, fever, and malaise that develops within a week or two

  • normal MRI
  • bilateral papilledema
A

cryptococcal meningitis

LP findings

  • high opening pressure
  • low glucose, high protein
  • wbc < 50/uL w/ mononuclear predominance
  • transparent capsule seen with india ink stain
  • cryptococcal antigen positive
  • culture on sabouraud

treatment

  • initial: amphotericin b with flucytosine
  • maintenance: fluconazole
432
Q

which medications cause acute angle glaucoma

A

can be due to anticholinergics for parkinson disease

  • pts present with sudden onset of severe eye pain, n/v, unilateral conjunctival injection, dilated pupil with poor light response
  • untreated can develop blindness within 2-5 years
433
Q

how does leprosy present and what do you do

  • due to mycobacterium leprae
  • primary developing world (asia, africa, south america)
  • due to respiratory droplets/nine-banded armadillo
  • low infectivity
A

clinically

  • macular, anesthetic skin lesions with raised borders
  • nodular, painful nearby nerves with loss of sensory/motor function

diagnosis

  • full-thickness biopsy of skin lesion (active edge)
  • cannot be cultured

treatment

  • dapsone + rifampin
  • add clofazimine if severe (multibacillary)
434
Q

patient has damage and vision loss in one eye then develops spots in their other eye… what do you think?

A

sympathetic ophthalmia

  • immunologic mechanism involving recognition of ‘hidden’ antigens because natural barriers are broken
  • can manifest as anterior uveitis, panuveitis, papillary edema, and even vision loss
  • autoantibodies and cell-mediated
435
Q

in a UTI what do nitrates mean and what do leukocyte esterases mean

A

nitrates- presence of enterobacteriaceae

leukocyte esterases- pyuria (pus in urine)

436
Q

when to use synthetic cannabinoids vs progesterone analogues to increase appetite in pts

A

synthetic cannabinoids- advanced HIV cachexia
progesterone analogues- cancer related cachexia
(megestrol acetate and medroxyprogesterone acetate)- can also use corticosteroids but they have worse side effects

437
Q

herpes zoster ophthalmicus vs herpes simplex keratitis

A

HZO- by vzv infection, in elderly, fever, malaise, burning, itching in periorbital region, vesicular rash in cutaneous region of V1 branch of trigeminal nerve. eye has conjunctivitis and dendriform corneal ulcers

HSK- pain, photophobia, blurred vision, tearing, possible history of same thing in past, corneal vesicles and dendritic ulcers. can occur more in pts with excessive sun exposure, outdoor occupation, or immunodeficiency

438
Q

when to screen for abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

man
age 65-75
ANY smoking history (even if they quit a while ago)
-do 1 time abdominal duplex ultrasound

439
Q

differentiate the following 4 causes of diarrhea in HIV patient

  1. severe watery diarrhea, low-grade fever, weight loss
  2. watery diarrhea, cramping abd pain, weight loss, NO FEVER
  3. watery diarrhea, weight loss, HIGH FEVER > 102.2
  4. frequent small volume diarrhea, hematochezia, abd pain, low-grade fever, weight loss
A
  1. cryptosporidium
  2. mircosporidium/isosporidium
  3. mycobacterium avium complex
  4. CMV
440
Q

how to interpret relative risk

A

if over 1 is positive association

if less than 1 its negative association

441
Q

super high ESR, normocytic anemia, glomerulonephritis, fatigue, arthralgias, dyspnea, possible embolisms

A

infective endocarditis

442
Q

pts presents with fatigue/dyspnea upon exertion, peripheral edema/ascites, increased JVP, pericardial knock (mid-diastolic sound), pulsus paradoxus, kussmal breathing
-nonspecific ECG

A

constrictive pericarditis

-pericardial thickening and calcification

443
Q

when do pts with aortic stenosis start to experience symptoms

A

when it becomes severe

-valve area < 1cm2

444
Q

most common type of megaloblastic anemia in pts with chronic alcoholism

A

folate deficiency

445
Q

patients presents with fall in blood pressure ( > 10 mmHg) during inspiration, what is this called and what does it mean

A

pulses paradoxus

-ddx: severe asthma, COPD, cardiac tamponade

446
Q

why do you have to worry when you give O2 to a COPD patient

A
  • can worsen hypercapnia due to combo to increased dead space perfusion causing v-p mismatch and decreased affinity for oxyhemoglobin for CO2 and reduced alveolar ventilation
  • o2 sat goal is 90-93%
447
Q

what are pts with nephrotic syndrome at risk for

A
  • atherosclerosis due to hyperlipidemia

- av thrombosis due to loss of antithrombin III –> also increases risk for MI and stroke

448
Q

what type of medication is escitalopram

A

ssri

449
Q

how to diagnose cushings

A
  • 24hr urinary cortisol excretion
  • late-night salivary cortisol assay
  • low-dose dexamethasone suppression test

if hypercortisolism is confirmed then check ACTH to see if its dependent (cushing, ectopic ACTH) or independent (adrenal adenoma)

450
Q

pt with alcoholic history

  • temp 100
  • abdominal pain/tenderness
  • altered mental status
  • hypotension, hypothermia, paralytic ileus with severe infection
A

spontaneous bacterial pneumonitis

  • do paracentesis (PMNs > 250, positive culture, gram - like ecoli or klebsiella, protein < 1, SAAG > 1)
  • give empiric abx: third gen cephalosporin, then use fluoroquinolones for prophylaxis
451
Q

describe CMV retinitis

A

painless
no keratitis or conjunctivitis
fundoscopically you will see hemorrhages/fluffy or granular lesions around retinal vessels

452
Q

most common signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism

A
dyspnea 
pleuritic chest pain
tachypnea
tachycardia 
*chest radiograph usually isnt but CAN be normal
453
Q

main opportunistic infections in solid organ transplant pts

A

pneumocystis and CMV

-pts with systemic illness affecting a ton of organs should get tested for CMV viremia

454
Q

what is present in a pt with aortic regurg

A

bounding pulses

455
Q

pts who just had an anterior STEMI are at high risk for what to form even after stent placement
-what you think of if they present with acute limb ischemia

A

LV aneurysm formation especially when reperfusion therapy is unavailable or delayed

  • muscle then fails to contract and balloons up
  • this can lead to LV thrombus that can embolize

all pts who present with ALI should undergo a transthoracic echo

456
Q

explain malaria prophylaxis

A
note: choloroquine resistance is common 
use one of these for > 2 weeks before travel and continue for 4 weeks after you get back 
atovaquone-proquanil 
doxycycline 
mefloquine
457
Q

prolonged PR with normal QRS

A

first degree AV block

  • just do observation
  • get electrophys testing if they also have prolonged QRS
458
Q

how does arsenic poisoning present

A

mechanism: binds to sulfhydryl groups, disrupts cellular respiration and gluconeogenesis
sources: pesticides/insecticides, contaminated water from wells, pressure-treated wood

clinically
acute- garlic breath, vomiting, watery diarrhea, QTc prolongation
chronic- hypo/hyperpigmentation, hyperkeratosis, stocking-glove neuropathy

treatment: dimercaprol or DMSA

459
Q

where is TBG produced

A

by the liver so pts with liver failure have normal TSH and high T3 and T4

460
Q

what is the problem if the pt had a stroke and now has one sided hemineglect

A

parietal lobe of the nondominant side

-responsible for spatial organization

461
Q

if pt has bloody diarrhea what do you think of

A

e.coli
shigella
campylobacter

462
Q

truncal coordination impaired

A

likely cerebellar problem

463
Q

how to reverse warfarin

A

IV vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate (contains factors 2, 7, 9, 10)

464
Q

tranexamic acid

A

antifibrinolytic that can help with heavy menstrual bleeding and prevent excessive blood loss during surgery

465
Q

explain the following terms:

  1. breast cyst
  2. fibrocystic changes
  3. fibroadenoma
  4. fat necrosis
A
  1. solitary, well-circumscribed, mobile mass +/- tenderness
  2. multiple, diffuse nodulocystic masses with cyclic premenstrual tenderness
  3. solitary, well-circumscribed, mobile mass with cyclic premenstrual tenderness
  4. post trauma/surgery, firm, irregular mass +/- ecchymosis, skin/nipple retraction
466
Q

most common form of drug-induced chronic renal failure

A

analgesic nephropathy
-most common pathologies: papillary necrosis and chronic tubulointerstitial nephritis

*patients with chronic analgesic abuse are more likely to develop premature aging, atherosclerotic vascular disease, and urinary tract cancer

467
Q

when to use the following tests
Chi-squred
ANOVA

A

chi-squred: compares proportions and uses categorical data

ANOVA: used to compare means of 3 or more variables

468
Q

how does riluzole work

A

glutamate inhibitor approved for ALS

469
Q

what is included in initial workup for pt with suspected dementia

A

neuropsych: montreal cognitive assessment
labs: CBC, CMP, TSH, vitamin B12
neuroimaging: MRI or CT scan

if pt has specific risk factors then you can do the following labs: folate, syphilis, vitamin D

470
Q

patient presents with sensory ataxia, lancinating/stabbing pains, neurogenic urinary incontinence, and small irregular pupils that poorly constrict to light but constrict normally with accomodation

A

those are argyll robinson pupils and pt has tabes dorsalis (neurosyphilis) –> develops more rapidly in HIV pts

  • syphilitic damage to dorsal sensory roots and damage to dorsal columns
  • give IV penicillin
471
Q

3 main categories of diabetic retinopathy

A

*leading cause of blindness in USA

  1. background or simple retinopathy: consists of microaneurysms, hemorrhages, exudates, and retinal edema
  2. pre-proliferative retinopathy: with cotton wool spots
  3. proliferative or malignant retinopathy: consists of newly formed vessels

*argon laser photocoagulation is preformed for proliferative complications

472
Q

diabetic sensory polyneuropathy… how do you know its small vs large fibers

A

small fibers cause positive symptoms —> pain, paresthesia, allodynia
large fibers cause negative symptoms —> numbness, loss of proprioception and vibration sense, diminished ankle reflex

473
Q

expected lab abnormalities in pts with pagets

A

high alk phos and urine hydroxyproline due to increased bone turnover
serum calcium and phosphorous are normal as long as there are no other complications

474
Q

how to reduce recurrent MI and cardiovascular death in pts after heart attack

A

dual antiplatelet therapy —> aspirin + P2y12 receptor blocker

475
Q

how does thyrotoxicosis cause increased sensitivity to catecholamines

A

due to increased expression of beta-1-adrenergic receptors as well as changes in proteins controlling post beta-1-adrenergic receptor activity

476
Q

pt (age 50-70) presents with slowly progressive dyspnea, dry cough, and fine crackles

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

477
Q

what organs are most affected in GVHD

A

skin, liver, intestines

478
Q

what diabetes med is known to help with weight loss and have shown mortality benefits in pts with cardiovascular disease

A

GLP-1 agonists

479
Q

sodium levels can indicate what about heart failure

A

severity and its an independent predictor of adverse clinical outcomes
-more hyponatremic = more severe heart failure

480
Q

pt is an obese woman presenting with headache, vision changes (blurriness and diplopia), CN 6 palsy, papilledema

A

idiopathic intracranial hypertension

-dx confirmed by lumbar puncture with elevated opening pressure and normal cell counts

481
Q

how does tympanic membrane fibrosis present

A

asymptomatic, usually an incidental finding on ear exam due to otitis media or barotrauma

482
Q

what can cause cochlea ossification and how does it present

A
  • due to severe otosclerosis, meningitis, temporal bone fracture
  • presents with permanent high frequency hearing loss
483
Q

how to treat acute DVT/pulmonary embolism

A

oral Xa inhibitors or warfarin (if they are currently on one then give the other one)

  • Xa inhibitors work w/i 2-4 hours
  • warfarin works w/i 5-7 days and with warfarin you need to give some form of heparin for 5ish days
484
Q

how to approach wide-complex tachycardia

A

if its ventricular tachycardia

  • if pt is stable give IV amiodarone
  • if pt is not stable (hypotension, altered mental status, respiratory distress) give synchronized cardioversion

if its an SVT with aberrancy

  • if pt is stable do carotid massage, rate control, treat
  • if pt is unstable give cardioversion
485
Q

HIV pt with infective endocarditis in pt with IVDU, what is the most common bug

A

staph aureus

486
Q

what are patients with heparin induced thrombocytopenia at increased risk of

A

arterial and venous clots

-need to be on alternate forms of anticoagulation

487
Q

what do you have to watch for in a pt with an acute asthma exacerbation that means they are getting worse

A

they should have a respiratory alkalosis (due to hyperventilation) but if their pH and PCO2 starts to normalize then they are no longer able to compensate anymore and that is suggestive for impending respiratory collapse

488
Q

side effect of hyperparathyroidism

A

pseudogout (CPPD)

489
Q

pt presents with psych symptoms, cognitive impairment, and chorea

A

huntingtons

  • AD, CAG trinucleotide repeat
  • preferential atrophy of caudate and putamen (neostriatum)
490
Q

when to think of secretory diarrhea

A

due to toxins, hormones, congenital disorders, or after bowel resection/cholycystectomy due to bile acids reaching bowel
-pt has low stool osmotic gap (< 50) and nighttime awakenings

*osmotic diarrhea will present after ingestion of a causative source

491
Q

what D-dimer level excludes PE

A

< 500

-if its more than do a CT pulmonary angiography

492
Q

what type of bias occurs when you dont have follow up from pts in a study

A

attrition bias –> a subset of selection bias

493
Q

epidermolysis bullosa

A
  • group of inherited disorders characterized by epithelial fragility (mutations in epidermal/dermal proteins in basement membranes)
  • bullae, erosions, ulcers on palms, soles, oral
  • triggered by minor trauma
  • dx via biopsy with immunofluorescence microscopy and genetic testing
  • treatment is supportive
494
Q

main symptoms for strep pneumo meningitis

A

headache
fever (> 100.4)
nuchal rigidity
altered mental status

495
Q

how to treat tinea versicolor

A

give topical selenium sulfide or ketoconazole or terbinafine

  • fungal skin infection with hyper/hypo/salmon-pigmented macules on upper trunk and extremities
  • more common in summer months
496
Q

if someone is given heparin for DVT but then they have heparin induced thrombocytopenia and the DVT gets worse what is happening

A

heparin platelet factor 4 + antibody immune complex causes 2 things

  • splenic sequestration and thrombus formation causing thrombocytopenia
  • platelet activation –> making thrombus symptoms worse due to platelet aggregation and procoagulant microparticle release
497
Q

underlying pathology to a lacunar stroke and major risk factors

A

microatheroma formation and lipohyalinosis leading to thrombotic small-vessel vasculitis

major risk factors

  • hypertension
  • hyperlipidemia
  • diabetes
  • smoking
498
Q

uremic pericarditis

A

BUN > 60 + symptoms of pericarditis

499
Q

adverse effect of TMP

A

Treats Marrow Poorly

  • megaloblastic anemia
  • leukopenia
  • granulocytopenia
  • may be avoided with leucovorin (folinic acid)
500
Q

patient presents with progressive peripheral edema, elevated JVP, hepatomegaly, and ascites
-possible etiologies: idiopathic or viral pericarditis, cardiac surgery or radiation therapy, tuberculous pericarditis in endemic areas

A

Constrictive Pericarditis

  • complication of mediastinal irradiation and an important cause of right heart failure
  • other findings include: hepatojugular reflux, kussmauls sign (increase or no change in JVP on inspiration), and pericardial knock (mid-diastolic sound)
501
Q

echocardiograph on patients with viral myocarditis

A

dilated ventricles with diffuse hypokinesis

502
Q

why is there increased incidence of orthostatic hypotension in elderly

A

progressively decreasing baroreceptor sensitivity and defects in myocardial response to this reflex

503
Q

what is recommended for infants with MEN2B

A

thyroidectomy cause of possible medullary thyroid cancer

504
Q

patient with transient chest pain who smokes and randomly gets transient ST elevation as well

A

vasospastic/prinzmetal/variant angina

  • smoking is a risk factor
  • triggers are cocaine, alcohol, and triptans
  • prevention: CCB and smoking cessation
  • abortive: nitrates
505
Q

hammer and claw toe deformities

A
  • reflect imbalance in strength and flexibility b/w flexor and extensor muscle groups
  • sign of diabetic peripheral neuropathy
506
Q

discoid lupus erythematosus (chronic cutaneous lupus)

A

scaly, erythematous plaques, leading to atrophy, hypopigmentation, and scarring
-most commonly affects sun-exposed areas of the head and neck

507
Q

necrobiosis lipoidica

A

confluent annular lesions with yellowish-brown hue, dilated blood vessels, and epidermal atrophy
-typically affects pretibial skin and is most common in pts with DM

508
Q

where does porphyria cutanea tarda usually occur

A

blistering and skin fragility in sun-exposed areas

FACE AND DORSUM OF HANDS

509
Q

how to manage COPD exacerbation

A
  • target O2 = 88-92%
  • bronchodilators
  • glucocorticoids
  • abx if 2 cardinal symptoms
  • oseltamivir if influenza
  • NPPV if vent failure
  • trach if NPPV failed or contraindicated
510
Q

what do cannon A waves represent

  • jugular venous pulsation waveform
  • regular, wide complex tachycardia
A
  • occurs due to right atrial contraction against closed tricuspid valve (atrioventricular dissociation)
  • right atrial hemodynamics throughout the cardiac cycle
511
Q

what urine osmolality should lead you to think of diabetes insipidus

A

urine osmolality < 300

serum osmolality will be increased

512
Q

patient clearly has pyelonephritis, when do you get a CT

A

if they show no clinical improvement within first 48-72 hours on treatment, have a history of nephrolithiasis, or have unusual urinary findings (gross hematuria or thoughts of a stone)

513
Q

patient has lingering cough and wheezing after a viral prodrome

A

acute bronchitis

  • give NSAIDs and/or bronchodilators
  • NO abx
514
Q

patient presents with burning or itching of the lids, discharge (could lead to crusty eyes in the morning), and foreign body sensation in the eye

A

blepharitis
-common contributors: seborrheic dermatitis, rosacea, allergic disorders, bacterial infection, viral infection, and demodex mite infestation

515
Q

normal distribution standard deviations

A

1 sd: 68%
2 sd: 95%
3 sd: 99.7%

516
Q

at what glucose level are you worried about hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state symptoms

A

> 600 (but usually its over 1000)

517
Q

when would a celiac patient have a negative anti-tissue transglutaminase

A

if they have a concurrent selective IgA deficiency

-confirm with biopsy: villous atrophy

518
Q

what non diabetes drugs can cause hypoglycemia

A

quinolones
quinine
beta-blockers

519
Q

how to treat SIADH

A

fluid restriction (< 800mL/day) or salt tablets for asymptomatic or mildly symptomatic patients

520
Q

how to treat subacute thyroiditis

A
  • same as de quervian (painful)
  • usually after URI
  • hyper then hypothyroid then normal once inflammation goes away
  • treat symptomatically with beta-blockers with NSAIDs
521
Q

patient gets CT with contrast then gets high fever, tachy, n/v, hypertension, agitation… what do you think of

A

possible thyrotoxicosis from thyroid storm triggered by contrast in CT

522
Q

patient with pericarditis within 2-4 days after MI…

A

peri-infarction pericarditis

-best prevented by early coronary reperfusion to minimize myocardial necrosis

523
Q

what pathology to think of in hyperpigmented patients

A

look at symptoms too but it could be due to increased pituitary release of ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (they are made with the same larger precursor molecule)

524
Q

how to test for obstructive sleep apnea

A

nocturnal polysomnography

525
Q

what are some of the clinical symptoms of tuberculous meningitis

A

possible cranial nerve palsy and stroke due to inflammation and exudative pressure

526
Q

most common cause of constrictive pericarditis in developing countries and what are the expected findings

A

TB
-nonspecific afib, low voltage QRS complexes, pericardial thickening and calcifications, and JVP tracing showing prominent x and y descents

527
Q

when to consider surgery in pts with infective endocarditis

A
  • stroke
  • significant valve dysfunction
  • persistent/difficult to treat infection
  • recurrent embolism
528
Q

what does an increased gamma gap (total protein - albumin) mean

A

high levels of autoantibodies

529
Q

patient with heart failure has acute kidney injury, what do you think of

A

cardiorenal syndrome

  • elevated central venous pressure leading to reduction in renal perfusion
  • decreased renal perfusion due to reduced cardiac output plays a small role as well
530
Q

dyshidrotic eczema

A

aka acute palmoplantar eczema

  • recurrent, acute episodes with deep-seated pruitic vesicles and bullae at hands and feet
  • complications can be desquamation, chronic dermatitis, secondary infection
  • treat with topical emollients and super high potency topical corticosteroids
531
Q

someone with both upper and lower motor neuron degeneration signs with widespread fibrillations and positive sharp waves (reflecting spontaneous depolarization) on electrophysiologic studies

A

ALS

  • progressive, fatal neurodegeneration disease
  • UMN: corticospinal neurons in primary motor cortex
  • LMN: cranial nerves, anterior horn cells
532
Q

female with recurrent rectal pain unrelated to anything and randomly occurs for up to 30 minutes at a time with no pain b/w episodes and normal physical exam/labs

A

proctalgia fugax

  • spastic contraction of anal sphincter due to pudendal nerve compression
  • manage with reassurance and possibly nitroglycerin cream +/- biofeedback therapy for refractory symptoms
533
Q

If someone has high-altitude illness, what do you do

-the body’s first response will be to hyperventilate

A

give acetazolamide

  • prevents and treats it by increasing renal HCO3- excretion to reduce blood pH and alleviate central chemoreceptor inhibition of hypoxic ventilatory response
  • increases the ventilatory ceiling placed by the chemoreceptors
534
Q

how to treat syphilis pt with severe penicillin allergy

A

give doxycycline for all stages except if they have cardiovascular problems or gummas then give ceftriaxone

-give penicillin G IV for neurosyphilis and desensitize them if they are allergic

535
Q

when to be concerned about giving PEEP to a pt

A

patients with any sort of underlying lung disease (ARDS, pneumonia, or obstructive airway diseases) are more likely to have barotrauma cause the lung is already messed up
Possible complications: alveolar damage, pneumothorax, and hypotension

536
Q

elderly pt with bradycardia presenting with fatigue, dyspnea, dizziness, syncope, afib, palpitations

A

Sick Sinus Syndrome

  • most commonly due to degeneration of sinus node and replacement with fibrous tissue
  • ECG will show sinus brady, pauses, and dropped P waves
  • treat with pacemaker and possible rate-controlling meds if tachyarrhythmias
537
Q

patient with skin that kinda looks like less severe (no bleeding with picking of skin) atopic dermatitis/eczema but its more diffuse

A

ichthyosis vulgaris

  • chronic inherited skin disorder characterized by diffuse dermal scaling
  • caused by mutations in filaggrin gene and much worse in homozygotes
  • treat with emollients, keratolysis, and topical retinoids
538
Q

most common cause of spontaneous lobar hemorrhage in elderly

A

cerebral amyloid angiopathy

  • due to beta-amyloid deposition in walls of small to medium sized cerebral arteries
  • associated with Alzheimers
539
Q

what is the next best step after confirming likely cholestasis

A

anti-AMA

-to test for primary biliary cholangitis

540
Q

whipple disease

A
  • rare multisystem illness due to infectious Trophyrma whippelii
  • GI: abdominal pain, weight loss, diarrhea, malabsorption, distension, flatulance, steatorrhea
  • extra-intestinal problems: migratory polyarthropathy, chronic cough, myocardial/valvular involvement
  • later stages include: dementia, supranuclear ophthalmoplegia, myoclonus, intermittent low-grade fever, pigmentation, lymphadenopathy

-PAS POSITIVE IN LAMINA PROPRIA OF SMALL INTESTINE IS CLASSIC BIOPSY FINDING

541
Q

how to treat hyperkalemia

A

rapid calcium gluconate

542
Q

possible stroke pt, what is the FIRST TEST you do

A

head CT without contrast to look for hemorrhage

  • you can do MRI but its more expensive, takes longer, and is less available
  • if normal you can do a CT angiography of head and neck
543
Q

physostigmine

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

544
Q

most reliable and predictive sign of opioid intoxication

A

decreased respiratory rate

545
Q

preferred imaging modality in pt with possible multiple sclerosis

A

MRI T2-weighted

546
Q

what do you think of when you see anemia with reticulocytosis

A

acute bleeding or hemolysis

-make sure to also look at iron and B12 levels

547
Q

what hemolytic disease is associated with CLL

A

warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

548
Q

what class of immunosuppressants are used after solid organ transplants and what are the side effects

A

tacrolimus and cyclosporine –> calcineurin inhibitors
-adverse effects: nephrotoxic (hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia, increased gout), hypertension, neurotoxicity (tremor), glucose intolerance (needing more insulin), gingival hypertrophy, hirsutism, alopecia, and some GI disturbances

549
Q

key value to confirm primary polydipsia or malnutrition (beer drinkers potomania)

A

urine sodium < 100 mOsm/kg

550
Q

which electrolyte abnormality coincides with poor oral intake and hypokalemia

A

hypomagnesemia

551
Q

what should be on your differential if you see a pt with low hemoglobin and MCV and with a low reticulocyte count

A

anemia of chronic disease

something in the bone marrow disrupting a proper response

552
Q

what is Conn’s syndrome

A

primary hyperaldosteronism (adrenal mass)

  • secretes aldosterone so you’ll have a low renin and high aldosterone
  • this also causes a metabolic alkalosis
553
Q

complication of sjogrens syndrome that causes metabolic acidosis

A

renal tubular acidosis

554
Q

electrical alternans with sinus tachycardia, what do you think of

A

specific sign for pericardial effusion (can start from pericarditis)

  • can confirm with echo
  • if pt has hemodynamic instability/cardiac tamponade or it seems bad then do emergency pericardiocentesis
555
Q

common cause of stroke in young patients

A

internal carotid artery dissection

  • causes unilateral headache/neck pain/transient vision loss with ptosis and miosis along with focal weakness
  • dx with CT angiography
  • tx with thombolysis or antiplatelet therapy/anticoagulation
556
Q

initial criteria for extubation

-first they should undergo spontaneous breathing trial to help confirm candidacy for successful extubation

A
  • pH > 7.25
  • adequate oxygenation on minimal support (FiO2 < 40% and PEEP < 5)
  • intact inspiratory effort and sufficient mental alertness to protect the airway
557
Q

amiloride

A

potassium-sparing diuretic

558
Q

hypertrophic osteoarthopathy

A

digital clubbing along with painful joint enlargement

559
Q

pseudotumor cereri

A

idiopathic intracranial hypertension common in obese women < 45 and presents with headache, transient vision symptoms, and pulsatile tinnitus
-also papilledema, and 6th nerve palsy

560
Q

patient has recent T2DM diagnosis then has weight loss, necrolytic migratory erythema (erythematous papules that coalesce to form large indurated plaques with central clearing), hyperglycemia, anemia, and diarrhea/anorexia/abdominal pain

A

Glucagonoma

  • pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor characterized by unregulated release of glucagon
  • necrolytic migratory erythema due to amino acid deficiency (painful/pruritic papules that end up having central clearing)
  • serum glucagon > 500 confirms dx
  • abdominal imaging can localize tumor and evaluate for mets
561
Q

patient who is either pregnant, obese, has DM, wears tight clothes/belts, or does abdominal straining movements has localized pain and paresthesia in the lateral thigh

A

Meralgia Paresthetica

  • caused by compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve where it passes under the inguinal ligament into the thigh
  • NO weakness cause nerve has no motor fibers
  • conservative treatment by avoiding tight garments and weight loss
562
Q

patient with internuclear ophthalmoplegia (disorder of horizontal gaze)… what is damaged?

A

medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)
-this is what happens in pts with MS (bilateral) or can indicate a lacunar stroke in pontine artery distribution if unilateral

563
Q

pt tests positive for neisseria gonorrhoeae, what else should you test for

A

chlamydia
HIV
syphilis
Hep B

564
Q

what is miller fisher syndrome

A

variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome

  • group of immune-mediated polyneuropathies caused by molecular mimicry
  • characterized by ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, areflexia, strength often preserved
  • high associated with anti-GQ1b antibody
565
Q

what can be the cause of a pt having JUST bells palsy

A

thought to be reactivation of herpes simplex virus

  • give glucocorticoids (prednisone)
  • acyclovir or valacylovir may also help
566
Q

what are the HACEK organisms

A
  • Haemophilus aphrophilus
  • Aggregatibacter actinomycetmcomitans
  • Cardiobacterium hominis
  • Eikenella corrodens (usually due to poor dentition/periodontal infection)
  • Kingella Kingae

*these make up 3% of infective endocarditis cases

567
Q

side effect of aminoglycoside medications (gentamicin)

A

hearing loss, imbalance, sensation of objects moving (oscillopsia)
-treat by discontinuing drug immediately

568
Q

inflammatory back pain in pt < 40 that could be chronic or insidious in onset and might get worse or better with activity
-positive spinal tenderness

A

ankylosing spondylitis

  • treat with exercise, NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors
  • if those dont work then try TNF inhibitors or anti-IL-17 antibodies
569
Q

when pt places hand on top of head and their arm/neck symptoms get better what is this dx and tx of?

A

cervical radiculopathy

-if symptoms get worse when bringing arm up think of thoracic outlet syndrome

570
Q

torticollis in adults

A

focal dystonia of sternocleidomastoid muscle (sustained muscle contraction resulting in twisting, repetitive movements, or abnormal postures)
-can be idiopathic but is very often medication related

571
Q

athetosis

A

slow, writhing movements affecting hands and feet

-think of huntingtons when you hear this

572
Q

hemiballismus

A

unilateral violent arm flinging caused by damange to contralateral subthalamic nucleus
-disruptive and self limited usually

573
Q

classic triad for disseminated gonococcal infection

A
  1. polyarthralgia
  2. tenosynovitis
  3. painless vesiculopustular skin lesions
574
Q

what is amiodarone and what are its side effects

A

class 3 antiarrhythmic- K channel blocker

  • increase AP duration, ERP, and QT interval
  • side effects: pulm fibrosis, hepatotoxic, hypo/hyperthyroidism, corneal deposits, blue/grey skin, neurologic effects, constipation, cv effects like bradycardia/heart block/heart failure
  • check PFT, LFT, and TFT when using this drug
575
Q

D-xylose test

A

its a monosaccharide that can be absorbed in proximal small intestine and is excreted in the urine
-if they dont pee a lot out then you know they have an absorption problem/some intestinal problem

576
Q

square envelope shaped crystals

A

ethylene glycol poisoning

577
Q

if patient gets a partial or total gastrectomy what is the FIRST thing on your differential

A

vitamin B12 deficiency due to intrinsic factor losses

  • vitamin B12 is necessary for purine synthesis (so DNA synthesis will also be impaired)
  • results in ineffective erythropoiesis presenting as megaloblastic anemia
578
Q

what is one of the most common risk factors for lower extremity cellulitis

A

tinea pedis

-causing fissures, erosions, and ulceration that allow bacterial entry into the tissue

579
Q

transverse myelitis

A
  • immune mediated destruction. of the spinal cord (can be post-infectious)
  • bilateral motor weakness that can become spastic
  • unlike G-B it has a DISTINCT sensory level
  • autonomic dysfunction with bowel/bladder dysfunction
  • dx with MRI (no compression lesion) and Lumbar puncture will show increased WBCs and IgG index
  • treat with high dose IV steroids and plasmapheresis
580
Q

normal looking colon but then you end up with biopsy showing mononuclear infiltrate within lamina propria and subepithelial collagen band

A

microscopic colitis

581
Q

what to be concerned about if a pt with chronic pancreatitis or pancreatic resection is having hypoglycemic episodes?

A

-they might be having a glucagon deficiency cause they lost glucagon-secreting alpha cells as well

582
Q

what medical therapy to you use for ascites management in cirrhosis

A

medical therapy

  • spironolactone and furosemide
  • alcohol abstinence and sodium restriction
  • avoid ACE inhibitors, ARBs, and NSAIDs

if refractory

  • large-volume paracentesis
  • transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
583
Q

first-line treatment for shingles for postherpetic neuralgia

A

this is the pain from shingles after the rash is already gone
-give anticonvulsants like gabapentin or tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline

584
Q

pt is on phenytoin or they tell you they have a seizure disorder thats being treated
-and pt has megaloblastic anemia

A

THINK FOLIC ACID DEFICIENCY
-pt will also have gingival overgrowth/hyperplasia

-if pt on phenytoin PUT THEM ON FOLATE AS WELL

585
Q

patient presents with hypopituitarism/hypogonadism and a large liver… what do you think of

A

hereditary hemochromatosis

586
Q

three common causes of esophagitis in pts with HIV

A
  1. candida (white lesions)
  2. HSV (round lesions with multinucleated giant cells)
  3. CMV (linear uclcers with intranuclear/cytoplasmic inclusions)
587
Q

hypothyroidism most common pathology

A

antithyroid peroxidase antibodies with high titers and over hypothyroidism with increased risk of miscarriages

588
Q

normal values for ejection fraction

A
normal = above 55
boarderline = 50-55
decreased = less than 50
589
Q

heart failure with preserved ejection fraction

A

diastolic dysfunction

590
Q

MULTIPLE ring enhancing lesions (dont think of this if there is just one)

A

toxoplasma gondii

591
Q

antibiotic therapy for pts with infective endocarditis

A

DO NOT USE ORAL FOR IE (pick IV answer)

  • look at susceptibilities and if penicillin then…
  • IV aqueous penicillin G (every 4-6hrs or continuous) or IV ceftriaxone (once daily) for 4 weeks
592
Q

bilateral abdominal masses in 30-40 year old with hypertension

A

ADPKD

-get ultrasound to see multiple renal cysts

593
Q

how does HIV-nephropathy present

A

heavy proteinuria, rapidly progressive renal failure, and edema
-most common in pts of sub-Saharan African descent with advanced HIV infection

594
Q

immediate postprandial epigastric pain (intestinal angina), food aversion, and weight loss

A

chronic mesenteric ischemia

  • due to atherosclerosis of mesenteric arteries
  • get CT angiography (preferred), or doppler ultrasound
  • smoking and dyslipidemia are risk factors
595
Q

patient on chronic metformin therapy, what do you think of after >5 years of treatment

A

about 30% of these pts will develop vitamin B12 deficiency

596
Q

if a pt clearly has HIV but they also have cryptococcal meningoencephalitis how do you treat them

A
  • treat cryptococcus first with amphotericin B and flucytosine followed by fluconazole for consolidation and maintenance therapy
  • then at least 2 weeks later you can consider HIV treatment and HAART
597
Q

what to think of if a pt has a medullary thyroid cancer and a family history of it…

A

MEN 2A or 2B

-look for a pheochromocytoma by looking for plasma fractionated metanephrine assay

598
Q

how to approach a pt with febrile neutropenia (especially if they are getting chemotherapy)

A
  • these pts are at a higher risk of overwhelming bacterial infection due to absent or blunted PMN-mediated inflammatory response
  • usually infection caused by bacterial infection (pseudomonas)
  • treat empirically for pseudomonas
599
Q

person with chronic, poorly localized anterior knee pain (usually young women)

A

patellofemoral pain syndrome

  • pain with isometric contraction of the quadriceps
  • treatment: strengthening quads and hip abductors
600
Q

ototoxic medications

A

aminoglycosides
loop diuretics
carbo and cis-platin

601
Q

metabolic syndrome criteria

A
  1. abdominal obesity (waist >40in in men and >35in in women)
  2. fasting glucose >100-110
  3. blood pressure > 130/80
  4. Triglycerides > 150
  5. HDL cholesterol <40 men <50 women
602
Q

why would someone on high-dose niacin get itchy

A

prostaglandin-related reaction causing vasodilation
-also histamine gets released as well

-can be reduced by aspirin

603
Q
  • woman over 40
  • pelvic mass, ascites, or abdominal pain
  • thyroid gland not enlarged
A

struma ovarii

very rare cause of thyrotoxicosis due to production of thyroid hormone by ovarian teratoma

604
Q

how to distinguish b.w graves disease and painless thyroiditis

A

both have hyperthyroidism and suppressed TSH
-at this point you need to get a thyroid radioiodine scintigraphy

painless thyroiditis –> decreased radioiodine uptake suggesting the release of preformed thyroid hormone

graves –> hyperthyroidism due to increased synthesis of thyroid hormone

605
Q

what medications can cause male secondary hypogonadism (low libido, ED, low testosterone, low or normal LH)

A

opioids, glucocorticoids, exogenous androgens (withdrawal phase)

-opioids suppress GnRH and LH secretion leading to reduced Leydig cell testosterone synthesis

606
Q

most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency in developed countries

A

autoimmune adrenalitis

607
Q

how to differentiate primary adrenal insufficiency vs central adrenal insufficiency

A

PAI have hyperpigmentation and hyperkalemia

608
Q

what drugs can cause vitamin D deficiency

A

phenytoin, carbamazepine, and rifampin

-via p450 system in liver which degrades vitamin D to inactive metabolites

609
Q

how to tell the difference b/w decreased PTH and decreased vitamin D intake

A

serum phosphorous is low in vitamin D deficiency

610
Q

what serum prolactin level is diagnostic for. aprolactinoma

A

> 200

611
Q

transient foot drop and sensory changes over dorsal foot and lateral shin

A

common fibular neuropathy

-impaired ankle dorsiflexion and great toe extension with preserved plantar flexion and reflexes

612
Q

what is the one word to associate with each of these
polymyalgia rheumatica
fibromyalgia
polymyositis

A

PR- stiffness
fibromyalgia- pain
polymyositis- weakness

613
Q

how does seborrheic keratosis work

A
  • benign epidermal tumor
  • tan/brown/black round lesion with stuck-on appearance
  • dx made on clinical appearance only
614
Q
  • pt over 60

- back pain radiating to thighs worse with lumbar extension and persists while standing still

A

lumbar spinal stenosis

615
Q

what do you think of if you see multiple erythema migrans

A

erythema migrans- ring of red with dot in the middle
if someone has multiple this is pathognomonic for early disseminated lyme disease
-treat with doxycycline

616
Q

when to look for secondary causes of hypertension

A

resistant htn

  • > 3 antihypertensive agents rom different classes
  • <30 years old
  • neither obese nor black pt
617
Q

when and why is leucovorin given

A

given to pts recieving methotrexate or another folic acid antagonist
-prevents adverse events from damage to rapidly dividing cells in the GI system and liver

618
Q

if pt is about to get chemotherapy what do you do to prevent renal injury

A

give lots of NS to avoid tumor lysis syndrome which can cause precipitation of uric acid and calcium-phosphate
-NS will flush out the kidneys

619
Q

when antivenom is indicated after a snake bite

A
  • unstable vital signs (hypotension, tachypnea)
  • rapidly progressing changes in wound
  • abnormal coagulation studies

*only give for these reasons due to risk of life-threatening allergic reaction

620
Q

if a pt with pyelo has been hospitalized what do you do if they are feeling better after 2 days

A

switch them to an oral abx if susceptible and send them home

621
Q

how to deal with a.fib with rapid ventricular response in hemodynamically stable pt

A

rate control with beta blockers or CCB

622
Q

pt has chronic cough and lung infections, what do you dx with

A

chest CT with high resolution to see bronchial dilation, lack of airway tapering, and bronchial wall thickening

623
Q

pt has chronic cough and lung infections, what do you dx with

A

chest CT with high resolution

624
Q

how to treat ankylosing spondylitis

A

start with nonpharm options like exercise and PT

then try NSAIDs and COX-2 inhibitors

then if that doesnt work try TNF-alpha inhibitors and anti-IL-17 antibodies (secukinumab)

625
Q

manifestations of tumor lysis syndrome

A

electrolytes: increased Ph, K, uric acid // decreased calcium

AKI: due to acid,calcium phosporous stones

cardiac arrhythmias

626
Q

what commonly used medication should be discontinued if a pt becomes acutely ill with renal/liver failure or sepsis

A

metformin due to the increased risk of lactic acidosis

627
Q

what commonly used medication should be discontinued if a pt becomes acutely ill with renal/liver failure or sepsis

A

metformin due to the increased risk of lactic acidosis

628
Q

what antibiotics do you have to be concerned about due to nephrotoxicity

A

aminoglycosides

-amikacin

629
Q

how to treat trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

630
Q

pt with subacture gi symptoms (diarrhea, nausea, cramps) and systemic manifestations (fever, weight loss, night sweats), lymphadenopathy, and transient rash

A

acute HIV infection

  • usually causes a mono-like syndrome
  • oral ulcerations and transient rash
631
Q

pt with subacture gi symptoms (diarrhea, nausea, cramps) and systemic manifestations (fever, weight loss, night sweats), lymphadenopathy, and traniet rash

A

acute HIV infection

632
Q

what to think of if a pt has hyperkalemia and low bicarb

A

Renal tubular acidosis

-think of metabolic acidosis nonanion gap

633
Q

pt overdoses on something that causes tinnitus, fever, tachypnea, nausea, gi irrtation.. what do you think of

A

aspirin overdose
-primary respiratory alkalosis

followed by….

-primary anion gap metabolic acidosis

634
Q

what to be concerned about when a pt has one or more blood transfusions or packed red blood cells over 24 hours

A

pt presents with low calcium

may develop elevated plasma levels of citrate (a substance added to stored blood)
-citrate chelates calcium and magnesium and may reduce their plasma levels causing parethesias

635
Q

how to manage caustic ingestion

A
  • secure ABCs
  • decontamination to remove clothes, chemicals, and irrigate exposed skin
  • chest x-ray if respiratory symptoms
  • endoscopy within 24hrs
636
Q

patient with infective endocarditis then develops AV block

A

perivalvular abscess

637
Q

if pt has muscle weakness and diplopia randomly then what should you think of

A

myasthenia gravis

  • great with AChE inhibitors (pyridostigmine) with/out immunotherapy
  • thymectomy
638
Q

how to deal with a recurrent tinea cruris infection

A

suggests reexposure to external source or autoinfection from concurrent dermatophyte infection elsewhere (search the body for it) and treat everywhere with topical antifungals like miconazole or tolnaftate

639
Q

what is essential for renal excretion of bicarb

A

chloride is essential and will be low in serum and urine if the pt is vomiting a lot or has diuretic overuse

640
Q

how to manage guillain-barre syndrome

A
  • monitoring of autonomic and respiratory infection

- IVIG or plasmapheresis

641
Q

what do you see on imaging of pts with tuberculous meningitis

A

basilar meningeal enhancement, hydrocephalus, and stroke due to vasculitis
-risk increases with immunocompromise

642
Q

patient with erythema nodosum (red/pink bumps on legs that kinda look like mosquito bites)
-subcutaneous nodules

A

check for sarcoidosis with CXR

643
Q

how to treat lichen planus

A

associated with hep C, ACEi, beta blockers, hydroxychloroquine, and thiazides

644
Q

meniere disease

A

disorder of inner ear with increased volume/pressure of endolymph

  • recurrent episodes lasting 20 minutes to 3 hours
  • sensorineural hearing loss
  • tinnitus and feeling of fullness in the ear
645
Q

what do target cells mean on blood smear

A

HbC disease
Anemia
Liver disease
Thalassemia

646
Q

what antiarrhythmic drug can cause pulmonary toxicity after longterm use

A

amiodarone

  • chronic interstitial pneumonitis (cough, fever, dyspnea, pulmonary infiltrates,)
  • most common*
647
Q

pt presents with HTN, tachycardia, dilated pupils, and chest pain

A

cocaine use

  • chest pain is due to coronary vasocontriction –> treat with benzos
  • psychomotor agitation and seizures as well
648
Q

up to 90% of pts with REM sleep behavior disorder develop what
-characterized by dream reenactment

A

alpha-synuclein neurodegenerative disorders

  • parkinsons
  • dementia with lewy body
  • multiple system atrophy
649
Q

how to empirically treat native-valve endocarditis

A

geared toward MRSA, strep, and enterococci

-use Vancomycin

650
Q

what to lookout for in pts taking isoniazid

A

associated with hepatotoxicity so check LFTs

-can look like viral hepatitis with aminotransferases >10x upper limit of normal or it can be mild and self limiting

651
Q

macrocytic anemia with thrombocytopena/leukopenia, and glossitis (smooth shiny tongue)

A

vitamin B12 deficiency

  • leading cause is pernicious anemia (antibodies against intrinsic factor)
  • glossitis is due to impaired replication of GI epithelium
652
Q

what medication should be given upon discharge of a pt with an asthma exacerbation

A

give albuterol and prednisone

-prednisone will help prevent relapse of symptoms

653
Q

besides blindness whats another complication (less commonly seen) in pts with giant cell arteritis

A

aortic aneurysm due to large vessel involvement

654
Q

EEG findings show sharp, triphasic, synchronous discharges… what do you think

A

prion disease aka creutzfeldt-jakob disease

  • pts will also have rapidly progressive dementia and myoclonus
  • most pts die within a year of onset
655
Q

pt presents with weakness and numbness (maybe upper and lower motor neuron problems) and possible bowel or bladder dysfunction but there is nothing found on imaging besides increased T2 signal in cervical spinal cord

A

idiopathic transverse myelitis

  • lumbar puncture shows increased WBCs and IgG index
  • treat first line with high dose IV steroids and then plasmapheresis if needed
656
Q

what will you see on imaging of a pt with acute cholangitis

A

dilation of the intrahepatic and common bile ducts

657
Q

fever, back pain, FOCAL spinal tenderness

A

vertebral osteomyelitis

-get blood cultures and inflammatory markers (ESR and CRP)

658
Q

progressive sensory loss in distal symmetric stocking and glove distribution… what to think of if it occurs acutely

A

toxin or medication mediated

  • metronidazole
  • fluoroquinolones
  • chemo
  • toxicity: alcohol abuse or heavy metal exposure
659
Q

pt with anemia related to chronic kidney disease what do you do

A

give erythropoietin

  • htn is a common side effect when they receive large doses
  • these pts need close bp monitoring
660
Q

vaccinatio for yellow fever is recommended prior to travel to central Africa but who should not get this live attenuated vaccine and should get a waiver instead?

A
  • allergy to vaccine components (eggs)
  • AIDS CD4<200, immunodeficiency (like a thymus disorder), recent stem cell transplant
  • immunosuppressive therapy (TNFantagonist, high dose steroids)
661
Q

what is the routine for meningitis vaccines

A

11-12: primary vaccination

16: booster

662
Q

what ends up killing most people with ALS

A

respiratory failure

  • inspiratory muscle (diaphragm) atrophy and weakness
  • expiratory weakness so an ineffective cough to clear out lungs/bronchi
  • bulbar muscle weakness leading to dysphagia and chronic aspiration

Note: it kinda looks like obstructive sleep apnea so you can treat it will noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation

663
Q

if someones ferritin level is over 1000 what do you do

-may also have hepatomegaly, elevated liver transaminases, and transferrin saturation

A

they probs have hereditary hemochromatosis and you wanna do a phlebotomy asap

664
Q

increased levels of homocysteine indicate what

A

its a highly reactive amino acid and increased levels predispose to venous thrombosis and atherosclerosis likely due to vascular damage
-give pyridoxine (B6) to these pts

665
Q

narrow-complex tachycardia

A

supraventricular tachycardia

-if pt has this and is hemodynamically unstable then do synchronized cardioversion

666
Q

rounded swelling at the posterior elbow with a fluctuant mass on palpation

A

olecranon bursitis

  • can be due to chronic overuse/microtrauma
  • just rest and use NSAIDs
667
Q

overuse of crystalloids and the “lethal triad”

A

hypothermia, acidosis, coagulopathy