Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Kaplan step 2 qbank > Internal Medicine > Flashcards

Internal Medicine Flashcards

* be a master of clinical application of concepts

1
Q

what is an indication of a diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis in regards to creatine kinase (CK) level?

A

a creatine kinase (CK) level >x5 the upper limit of normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

myoglobin is released as result of ………… ……….and is ………toxic

A

skeletal muscle damage

nephrotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the initial treatment of a crushed injury patient that presents with rhabdomyolysis?

A

IV fluids and sodium bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the purpose of the initial treatment of a crushed injury patient who presented with rhabdomyolysis?

A

diminish the impact of the myoglobin on the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

many cases of drug resistance in malignant cells are caused by …….

A

increased expression of drug efflux pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are some of the most commonly identified resistance mechanism demonstrated in vitro?

A
  • Multidrug Resistance (MDR-1) protein

* Multidrug Resistance related protein (MRP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

an elderly patient presents with microcytic anemia, what is your next two step in management?

A

fecal occult blood test and after which full colonscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the treatment for iron deficiency anemia?

A

oral iron with stool softener

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

symptoms of low or dysfunctional platelets includes:

A

easy bruising, nosebleeds, mucosal bleeding (e.g bleeding on tooth extraction), menorrhagia and occasionally GI bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a patient presents with easy bleeding and bruising with increased bleeding time and with normal response with ristocetin is highly suscipious of what

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

deficiency of glycoprotein 11b/111a complex leads to …………….

A

defective platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the dose-limiting side effect of zidovudine?

A

Hematotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most effective therapy for mitral stenosis in pregnancy

A

Percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is an important test for an elderly who presents with falls and what does the test demonstrate

A

“get up and go” test to demonstrate deficits in leg strength, balance, vestibular dysfunction and gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the empiric treatment for nosocomial infections not associated with ICU or ventilators includes:

A

levofloxacin, ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, ampicillin/sulbactam, piperacillin/tazobactam, ertapenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the first line of choice of treatment for Acinetobactam baumannii?

A

imipenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the second line of choice for A. baumanni?

A

polymyxin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis with hypertension is suggestive of …………, ……………….., ………………, ………………….

A

aldosterone excess, cushing’s syndrome, liddle syndrome, licorie toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

licorice metabolic effect is similar to ……………..

A

hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

hypokalemia in vomiting is from ……………………………

A

renal loss of K accompanying the loss of bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Chemical burn is treated initially with………

A

Massive irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most effective means of diagnosing colon cancer?

A

Colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In patients over 50 years presenting with obvious signs of chronic blood loss and positive guaiac stool the next step in management should be what and why?

A

Colonoscopy to rule out colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Muscle weakness that improves with repetitive activities suggests a diagnosis of ………….

A

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The syndrome suggestive of muscle weakness that improves with repetitive activities is high associated with ………….

A

Small-cell lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An enlarged nerve located in the foot’s third interspace, between the third and fourth toes that is extremely painful on palpating the region is known as

A

Morton neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the classic triad of pheochromocytoma?

A

Episodic headache, palpitations, diaphoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the first step in the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma?

A

24-hour urine fractionated metanephrines and catecholamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is herpes zoster treated

A

Acyclovir or famciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is used for treatment of postherpetic neuralgia?

A

TCA like desipramine, gabapentin, pregabalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most useful test for diagnosis of acute pericarditis?

A

Electrocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dubin-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a defect in ………… …………. resulting in an increase in …………… bilirubin.

A

Excretion of bilirubin

Conjugated bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Black pigmentation in hepatocytes on liver biopsy is characteristic of what syndrome?

A

Dublin-Johnson syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Papillary muscle rupture occurs …-…… days after myocardial infarction

A

2-7days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Symptoms of papillary muscle rupture includes

A

Acute mitral regurgitation and subsequently acute left heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the management of papillary muscle rupture

A

Surgical repair through valve replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Recurrent episodes of severe stabbing or lancinating pain (usually unilateral) in the distribution of one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve not due to a structural lesion is characteristic of ………. …….

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When medical therapy fails in a patient with trigeminal neuralgia, what is the next step in management?

A

Surgical decompression or stereotactic ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Symmetric descending flaccid paralysis, prominent bulbar palsies, normal sensory examination in the absence of fever is a classic presentation of ………

A

Botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

After diagnosis of Barrett esophagus, what is the recommendation for these patients and why

A

Endoscopic surveillance every 2-3 years for esophageal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the risk factors included for reactivating VZV

A

Advancing age
Recent trauma to affected site
Immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrinoma) is characterized by

A

Watery diarrhea and refractory ulcers in distal duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the first step in diagnosis of ZES

A

Gastrin level after abstaining from antisecretory therapy for 1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the most common clinical manifestation of multiple myeloma?

A

Bone pain (from lytic bone lesions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

the management of barrett esophagus without dysplasia is endoscopy …….(time interval)

A

every 3-5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

the management of barrett esophagus with low grade dysplasia is endoscopy …….. (time interval)

A

within 6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

management of barrett esophagus with high grade dysplasia is …………….. or ………………..

A

endoscopic ablation or endoscopy in 3 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

……….., …………. and ………. have been associated with Bell palsy

A

Herpes simplex virus
Epstein-Barr virus
Lyme disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How and why do you treat a new onset hyperthyroidism ?

A

Non selective beta blocker

Decrease risk of arrhythmia and death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Macrocytosis (MCV >110fl), diarrhea and neurologic symptoms strong suggest …..…

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What lung cancer is most sensitive to chemotherapy?

A

Small-cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the most sensitive test for the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma?

A

Plasma free fractionated metanephrines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Platypnea refers to …………..

A

Dyspnea with an upright posture and relief while lying down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Orthodeoxia refers to …..….…

A

Worsening hypoxia in the upright position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Platypnea and orthodeoxia in the setting of cirrhosis argues for .……… syndrome

A

Hepatopulmonary syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

……….. ….…… are ugly-appearing vascular, friable papules that form at the site of prior trauma

A

Pyogenic granulomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the treatment of pyogenic granulomas?

A
  • Surgical excision
  • Curettage
  • Electrodesiccation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the treatments that prolongs survival (decrease morbidity and mortality) in COPD patients?

A
  • Smoking cessation

- Oxygen therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the criteria for home oxygen therapy?

A
  • Resting PaO2 <55mmHg
  • O2 Sat < 88%
  • PaO2 <60mmHg with evidence of cor pulmonale or polycythemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with ……………. syndrome

A

MEN-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Achlorhydria and vitamin B12 deficiency is typical for ………..

A

Autoimmune gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How is autoimmune gastritis diagnosed?

A

Positive anti-parietal cell and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

…………. ……………… is associated with anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Anemia plus altered position and vibration sense. Suspect?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Presence of a solitary esophageal ulcer and signs of retinitis and colitis in a patient who has advanced HIV infection suggests …………………

A

Disseminated CMV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the treatment for disseminated CMV infection

A

Ganciclovir with or without foscarnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is used for the treatment of opportunistic Herpes Simplex Virus infection?

A

Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is used for cryptococcal infection which presents as ………. in immunocompromised patients?

A
  • Meningitis

- Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

………………syncope is associated with diaphoresis, lightheadedness, nausea, sweating, visual alterations and pallor

A

Vasovagal or neurocardiogenic syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What usually triggers vasovagal syncope

A

Emotional situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Apnea, bradycardia, hypotension is characteristic of ………. …………

A

Jarisch-Bezold reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Jarisch-Bezold reflex is associated with …………(3 things)

A 
- nicotine
Snake venom
Halogenated anesthesia
Serotonin 
Antihistamines 
Biguanides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the classic triad for normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A
  • dementia
  • gait disturbances
  • urinary incontinence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

…………. is the most effective treatment in near drowning episodes to improve both hypoxia and acidosis

A

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

A late complication of near drowning episode is ………

A

Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q 
Mild intermittent asthma :
Day time symptom-
Nighttime symptom-
PFTs- 
Treatment-
A
  • <2/week
  • <2/month
  • FEV1 >80%
  • Short acting beta agonist(SABA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q 
Mild persistent asthma:
Day time symptom-
Nighttime symptom-
PFTs- 
Treatment-
A
  • > 2/week
  • > 2/month
    FEV1 -80%
    SABA+Inhaled corticosteroid or cromolyn (children)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q 
Moderate asthma:
Day time symptom-
Nighttime symptom-
PFTs- 
Treatment-
A
  • daily
  • > 1/week
  • FEV1: 60-80%
  • SABA+ ICS+ long acting beta agonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q 
Severe asthma:
Day time symptom-
Nighttime symptom-
PFTs- 
Treatment-
A
  • Continuous and daily
  • Frequent
  • <60%
  • increase dose of ICS, leukotriene modifiers and of nothing else works- add oral corticosteroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Opiate intoxication may present with …………., …………., ………….. and …………….

A

Severe respiratory depression, nausea, vomiting and pinpoint pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the most rapid way of reversing the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is by ………….

A

Transfusing fresh frozen plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

When organic causes of low libido are suspected, a ………………… is useful in making the correct diagnosis

A

A morning total serum testosterone level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is a vector?

A

Am invertebrate animal capable of transmitting a pathogen to other host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Describe a pathogen

A

Microorganism that causes a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the most common vector responsible for Lyme disease

A

Ixodes scapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the pathogen responsible for Lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the effect of hypothyroidism on blood pressure and lipid profile

A

Hypertension and hypercholesterolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the first-line antibiotic choice for acute uncomplicated sinusitis?

A

Amoxicillin/clavulanate (augmentin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Atopic dermatitis is best treated with ……………….. and ………………

A

Moisturizing emollient and steroid ointment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Avoid soaps since they can predispose to worsening of symptoms of atopic dermatitis. True or false

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the clinical triad highly specific for a right ventricular infarction?

A
  • Hypotension,
  • Jugular venous distention with a clear lung examination and
  • chest pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How is RV infarct treated?

A

Treat immediately with aggressive IV fluid administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Patients who have hyperkalemia and ECG changes require treatment with ……..…… to stabilize cardiac membranes

A

Calcium gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

………..………. presents with spasms of pain, usually unilateral, often radiating to the groin

A

Renal colic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the beat initial treatment of renal colic?

A

Pain control with NSAIDs and IV hydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

CMV colitis causers …….., ………, ……….., ……….

A

Tenesmus, urgency, bloody diarrhea and LLQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Brown pigment stones are due to ……..

A

Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Management of esophageal variceal bleeding should start with ………………

A

Aggressive blood resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Pharmacologic therapies for esophageal variceal bleeding include

A

Vasopressin
Octreotide
Somatostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Patients who are severely hypothyroid do very poorly when they have surgery. True/ False

A

True

102
Q

A patient who faced a stressor such as surgery in the presence of hypothyroidism need to be treated urgently with …………..

A

Steroids

103
Q

Prostate cancer typically metastasizes to the ………….., ………. and ………..

A
  • lymph nodes
  • lungs
  • bone
104
Q

_______________ is the most common form of primary intracranial neoplasm

A

Astrocytoma

105
Q

___________ is the most common malignant tumor of the brain

A

Lung cancer

106
Q

Symptoms of brain metastases include _________, _______________ and __________

A

Weight loss

Headaches worse with recumbency and nausea

107
Q

_____________ may develop in patients with gastric ulcers of the greater curvature that lead to adjacent transverse colonic inflammation

A

Gastrocolic fistulas

108
Q

______________ on oral examination is key to the diagnosis of gastrocolic fistula

A

Feculent smell

109
Q

_____________ presents with papules after a lengthy incubation period that can last from 2 to 6 months

A

Donovanosis

110
Q

Describe the ulcers seen in donovanosis

A

The ulcers have sharply defined borders and a significant amount to velvety granulation tissue.

111
Q

Diagnosis of donovanosis is confirmed by ____________

A

Donovan bodies on microscopy

112
Q

The organism that causes donovanosis is _________

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

113
Q

What is the preferred agent for treatment of donovanosis? And how long should it be given for?

A

Azithromycin

At least 3weeks

114
Q

Adult-onset asthma, particularly in a patient with no history of stops or previous pulmonary problems, demands a search for _________ cause

A

An occupational cause

115
Q

All patients who have COPD should receive _____________ and ______________ to prevent _______, ________, __________ and ___________

A
  • an annual influenza vaccine and pneumococcal vaccine

- influenza, pneumonia, meningitis and bacteremia

116
Q

Risk factors for squamous cell carcinoid the head and neck mucosa include _________ and _______ use.

A

Excessive alcohol and nicotine use

117
Q

_______ and _______ are the most common sites for SCC of the oral mucosa

A

The palate and tongue

118
Q

Erythroplakia and leukoplakia are common precursors of ____

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

119
Q

What is a Pterygium

A

A pterygium is a benign growth of vascularized conjunctiva that extends onto the cornea

120
Q

How is a pterygium managed?

A

Topical lubricants including drops, gels and ointment.

121
Q

Thickened rugal folds and smooth ulceration in the antrum of the stomach are characteristic of either ____ or _______

A

NSAID or H.pylori-induced gastritis

122
Q

_________ usually presents with altered mental status and fever with CSF findings showing a lymphocytic pleocytosis.

A

HSV encephalitis

123
Q

Differentials of presentation with history of chronic sinusitis, unilateral proptosis and cranial nerve palsies include:(4)

A
  • cavernous sinus thrombosis
  • bacterial meningitis
  • epidural or subdural hematoma
  • cerebral abscesses
124
Q

How is cavernous sinus thrombosis diagnosed?

A

Contrast CT scan or MRI

125
Q

What is the treatment of cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A

Parenteral antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment.

126
Q

The first line treatment of animal bites particularly dogs is

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

127
Q

__________ is characterized by dilation of veins, micro aneurysm, retinal edema and retinal hemorrhages.

A

Nonproliferative Diabetic retinopathy

128
Q

Three types of drugs have been shown to reduce mortality in patients who have CHF:

A
  • ACE inhibitors/ ARBs
  • Spironolactone
  • Beta blockers
129
Q

Epinephrine can reverse both the hypotension and the bronchospasm seen in anaphylactic shock. True/False

A

True

130
Q

Both bleeding time and PTT are elevated =________

A

Von Willebrand factor deficiency

131
Q

Patients with Cushing syndrome are prone to develop deep venous thrombosis. True/False

A

True

132
Q

The findings of petechiae, alteration in mental status and refractory hypoxemia in a patient with multiple bone trauma suggest the diagnosis of ________________

A

Fat embolism

133
Q

What is the diagnosis of acromegaly confirmed?

A

100-gram oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)

134
Q

What is used for chronic management of urate stones in patients with hyperuricemia, and who fail to respond to the initial stone treatment with hydration, low purine diet, and alkalinization of urine?

A

Allopurinol

135
Q

Hemophilia A is due to deficiency of _________

A

Factor VIII

136
Q

Hemophilia B is due to deficiency of _________

A

Factor IX

137
Q

Wernicke encephalopathy presents with a triad of ________, _________ and _________

A

Confusion
Ataxia
Ophthalmoplegia

138
Q

What is the treatment of Wernicke encephalopathy?

A

Thiamine IV BEFORE glucose

139
Q

Abdominal angina, arthritis, skin changes and ulcerations on a background of constitutional symptoms strongly suggests ___________

A

Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)

140
Q

The history of normal skin at birth with gradual progression to dry scaly skin is typical of __________

A

Ichthyosis

141
Q

Dry and rough skin with horny plates over the extensor surfaces of the limbs is a hallmark of ________

A

Ichthyosis

142
Q

Any patient with more than 2-3 attacks of gout a year should be given ___________

A

Allopurinol

143
Q

A patient who has a DVT or pulmonary embolism who experiences a complication from anticoagulation therapy requires ___________ to prevent further embolism

A

IVC fliter

144
Q

Ibuprofen may cause _______, _________ or ___________

A

Acute kidney Injury
Interstitial nephritis
Secondary minimal change disease with proteinuria

145
Q

When patients who have hep C develop cirrhosis, _____________ for __________ is indicated

A

Yearly screening with ultrasound for hepatocellular carcinoma is indicated

146
Q

What is the most common infectious cause of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

147
Q

HIV associated nephropathy is due to ___________

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

148
Q

What is the treatment of HIV associated nephropathy

A

HAART drugs and ACE inhibitors

149
Q

______________ should be provided when CD4 counts decrease below 50

A

Prophylaxis for MAI

150
Q

What is the regimen of choice for prophylaxis for MAI?

A

Azithromycin weekly or clarithromycin twice daily

151
Q

Hypocellular marrow with loss of precursor cells, predominated by fat and stroma is diagnostic of __________

A

Aplastic anemia

152
Q

The diagnosis of the pheochromocytoma can best be confirmed by ______________________

A

MRI scan of the adrenals

153
Q

Melanoma is associated with _______ mutation

A

CDKN2A

154
Q

An A1C of 5.7-6.2 is considered _________

A

Prediabetes

155
Q

_____________ is indicated to prevent progression to type 2 diabetes mellitus in patients with impaired glucose tolerance

A

Metformin

156
Q

_____________ is the best initial treatment for a characteristic acute symptomatology of painful and red eyes, headache, blurred vision and halos around lights which is worse at night

A

Acetazolamide

157
Q

What are the first line treatments for Bartter syndrome?

A

NSAIDs and spironolactone

158
Q

___________ is characterized by severe hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia following partial parathyroidectomy

A

Hungry bone syndrome

159
Q

____________ followed by _______ is the best treatment strategy for an advanced inflammatory carcinoma of the breast.

A

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by modified radical mastectomy

160
Q

_______ and ________ are useful agents for breast cancer chemoprevention in women who are at an increased risk for the disease.

A

Tamoxifen and raloxifene

161
Q

The treatment of choice for tinea capitis is _______________

A

Oral griseofulvin for 6 to 12 weeks

162
Q

_____________ is the most common cause of hypertension in children

A

Reno vascular disease

163
Q

Patients at risk for tumor lysis syndrome should receive prophylaxis with _________ or ______

A

Allopurinol of rasburicase

164
Q

The classic CSF findings in GBS is _________

A

albuminocytologic association

165
Q

The most common visceral malignancy to cause migratory thrombophlebitis is _____________

A

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

166
Q

Chronic diarrhea, malabsorption and weight loss is highly suggestive of ______________

A

Celiac disease

167
Q

The recommended dosage of bupropion for smoking cessation is ________

A

300mg/day

168
Q

Live vaccine include: ________, __________, __________ and ____________

A

MMR, varicella, zoster and live attenuated intranasal influenza

169
Q

Live vaccine include: ________, __________, __________ and ____________

A

MMR, varicella, zoster and live attenuated intranasal influenza

170
Q

What is the difference between diffuse esophageal spasm and nutcracker esophagus on manometry?

A

Diffuse esophageal spasm: normal resting lower esophageal pressure

Nutcracker esophagus: increased resting lower esophageal pressure

171
Q

__________ is characterized by fever, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, neurologic symptoms

A

thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura

172
Q

one major difference between TTP and DIC is that _______

A

PT and PTT is normal in TTP but prolonged in DIC

173
Q

________ is indicated in all nontraumatic neck pain in patients older than the age 50 years

A

X-ray films of cervical spine

174
Q

________ decrease mortality in patients who have history of MI

A

beta blockers

175
Q

the most common cause of cancer among men in the US is __________

A

prostate cancer

176
Q

the most common cause of cancer among women in the US is ___________

A

breast cancer

177
Q

the most common cause of cancer deaths among both men and women in the US is ___________

A

lung cancer

178
Q

__________ causes decreased cardiac output, pulmonary congestion, hypotension and hypoperfusion

A

cardiogenic shock

179
Q

catheterization in cardiogenic shock caused by left ventricular dysfunction shows ________, _______ and ______

A

increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
normal right atrial pressure
decreased cardiac output

180
Q

_______ is a complication of erythropoietin therapy for treating anemia related to chronic renal failure

A

hypertension

181
Q

if a lower GI bleeding is >2mL/min _____ is indicated

A

angiogram

182
Q

if a lower GI bleed <0.5mL/min what is the next action of management?

A

wait till bleeding stops and then do colonoscopy

183
Q

lower GI bleed 0.5-2.0mL/min ________ is indicated

A

tagged red blood cell study

184
Q

anal cancer metastasizes to the __________

A

inguinal lymph node basin

185
Q

adenocarcinoma of the rectum metastasizes to the _____

A

mesorectal ingunal nodes

186
Q

mitral valve area less than 1.5cmsquare indicates need for

A

valvotomy

187
Q

for patients who have systolic dysfunction and who have received optimal initial management but are still symptomatic should be given ___________ to ______

A

dobutamine

enhance cardiac contractility

188
Q

_________ is the treatment of choice in a patient with pleuritic chest pain that improves with sitting up / leaning forward.

A

NSAIDs

189
Q

Treatments of essential tremor include: ___________, _________ and ___________

A

Propranolol
Alcohol
Primidone

190
Q

________ is an invasive infection of the external auditory canal, which typically affects elderly with diabetes mellitus and AIDS patients

A

Malignant external canal

191
Q

_______ is the most common organism involved in malignant otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

192
Q

Best time to treat thrombosed external hemorrhoids =

A

First 3 days of symptoms

193
Q

Rubber band ligation is only usss in the treatment of ____________

A

Internal hemorrhoids

194
Q

Pneumonia is characterized by _________, ____________, _________ and ___________

A

Fever, productive cough, SOB and chest pain

195
Q

Antiglutamic acid decarboxlase antibodies is mostly associated with ___________

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

196
Q

What is the most appropriate long-term therapy for patients with anti phospholipid syndrome?

A

Lifelong anticoagulation with warfarin to a target INR 2.0-3.0

197
Q

What is the treatment of keloids?

A

Intralesional steriod injection

198
Q

What is the most specific marker for diagnosis of acute hepatitis B?

A

IgM anti-HBc

199
Q

Patients with HIV are prone to developing adrenal insufficiency. T/F

A

True

200
Q

when is steroid indicated in a HIV patient with pneumocystic pneumonia

A

PaO2 <70mmHg or AA gradient >35mmHg

201
Q

Zenker’s diverticulum is best seen on ______ view of _____________

A

a lateral view of a pharyngeal barium swallow

202
Q

ACE inhibitors are used in management of hypertensiob in patient with the following comorbities: _______, _______, __________ or ____________

A

diabetes, post-MI, heart failure with systolic dysfunction or chronic kidney disease

203
Q

first line treatment for animal bites is ___________

A

amoxicilllin/clavulanic acid

204
Q

2nd line treatment for animal bites is

A

clindamycin and doxycyline/fluoroquinolone

205
Q

The drug of choice for WPW in hemodynamically stable patients is ________

A

Procainamide

206
Q

____________ is a strong indicator for the development of diabetic nephropathy

A

The presence of microalbuminemia (30-300mg/dL)

207
Q

What are the recommended drugs for malaria prophylaxis for those traveling to chloroquine-sensitive areas?

A

Chloroquine

208
Q

Chloroquine-sensitive endemic malaria areas include:

A 
Countries of Central America 
Paraguay
Argentina 
The Caribbean 
Mexico
209
Q

___________ is recommended for prophylaxis against chloroquine-resistance malaria

A

Mefloquine
Atovaquone/proguanil
Doxycycline

210
Q

________________ is the standard of care for diagnosing Cushing syndrome

A

24-hour urinary-free cortisol

211
Q

________ is considered the first-line drug for acute hepatic encephalopathy.

A

Lactulose

212
Q

_________ seen on radiograph is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis

A

bone erosion

213
Q

fever, “hot- potato” voice, deviation of uvula to the contralateral side and cervical adenopathy is characteristic of __________

A

peritonsillar abscess

214
Q

the first step in any patient who presents with suspected acute coronary syndrome is to ___________

A

give 325mg chewable aspirin

215
Q

an acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis in a patient who has COPD that results from Strep pneumonia and M. catarhhalis should be treated with ________

A

amoxicillin/clavulanate

216
Q

_________ is the most accurate test to confirm CSF leakage

A

beta-2-transferrin

217
Q

The treatment of choice for prostatitis is _____________

A

Fluoroquinolones for 4-6 wks

218
Q

Aortic dissection that extend all the way to the aortic root may present with a _____________ which is a classic finding of aortic insufficiency

A

Diastolic murmur

219
Q

Treatment of syphilis in a pregnant woman who is allergic to penicillin?

A

Desensitize patient and then administer penicillin

220
Q

Milk- alkali syndrome consist of the triad of __________, ___________ and __________ in the setting of large amount of calcium and absorbable alkali

A

Hypercalcemia
Metabolic alkalosis
Renal insufficiency

221
Q

_________ is the best drug for ALL anaerobic infections above the diaphragm

A

Clindamycin

222
Q

__________ compresses the oculomotor nerve causing an ipsilateral dilated pupil.

A

Lateral (uncal) herniation

223
Q

Lamivudine and peginterferon is used in the treatment of ____________

A

Chronic hepatitis B

224
Q

Ledipasvir and sofosbuvir is the treatment for ______________

A

Chronic Hepatitis C

225
Q

____________ is characterized by palatal ulcers, hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia

A

Disseminated histoplasmosis

226
Q

Angiodysplasia is most often located in the _________ or _________

A

Cecum or ascending colon

227
Q

what is the induction therapy for cryptococcal meningitis ?

A

amphotericin B and high dose flucytosine for 10-14 days

228
Q

what is the maintenance therapy for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

fluconazole 400mg od for first 2-3 months then 200mg od until CD4>100 continuously for one year

229
Q

_____________ is an autosomal dominant defect in profilaggrin characterized clinically as a white scale in a linear distribution on the palms and soles.

A

Ichthyosis vulgaris

230
Q

What regions are spared in ichthyosis vulgaris?

A

The flexural and intertriginous areas

231
Q

USPSTF recommends lupus profile screening starting at age _______ in men and age _______ in women

A

Age 35 years in men

Age 45 years in women

232
Q

Diabetes screening begins at age __________

A

45 years

233
Q

________ is required to diagnose spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

Paracentesis

234
Q

An ascitic fluid of PMN leukocyte count of >269 cells/mm3 is diagnostic of ______

A

Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis

235
Q

the treatment of choice for angiodysplasia is ______

A

endoscopic ablation

236
Q

_______ and _______ antibodies are positive in autoimmune hepatitis

A

ANA and anti-smooth muscle antibodies

237
Q

Treatment for autoimmune hepatitis _________

A

corticosteriods and/or Azathioprine

238
Q

suspect _________ in IV drug users of black-tar heroin preparation

A

clostridium

239
Q

what metabolic abnormalities are not corrected by dialysis?

A

hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia

240
Q

In patients presenting with hypertensive emergency and coexisting signs of ischemic heart disease________ is the treatment of choice

A

IV nitroglycerin

241
Q

Felty syndrome is the triad of ________, ________ and ____________

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis
Splenomegaly
Neutropenia

242
Q

What is the drug of choice in Felty syndrome?

A

Gold or methotrexate

243
Q

Alcoholism leads to _________ because of its direct myotoxic effect on muscle

A

Rhabdomyolysis

244
Q

The first symptom of _______ is the appearance of a painless, ulcerated nodule or a flat ulcer at the tip of the penis that does not heal but enlarges progressively.

A

Penile cancer

245
Q

What is the treatment of organophosphates poisoning?

A

Atropine and pralidoxime

246
Q

____________ should be considered in a patient who presents with muscle weakness and who is receiving statins, preventive gout medications and corticosteroids.

A

Drug-induced myopathy

247
Q

Symptoms of Charcot joint ( neuropathic arthropathy) include:
_______, _______ _________ _______

A

Leg swelling
Erythema
Warmth
Joint effusion

248
Q

What are the classic underlying diseases of Charcot joint

A

Diabetes
Syphilis
Syringomyelia

249
Q

What is the drug of choice in treating CML?

A

Imatinib mesylate

250
Q

What is the gold standard in diagnosing CML

A

Detection of the bcr-abl gene in the peripheral blood by FISH
Cytogenetic studies for the Philadelphia chromosome

Kaplan step 2 qbank (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions