Internal Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

45 yoM with brief periods of chest pain when climbing up the four flights of stairs to his ailing mother’s apartment. Pain starts gradually and feels like a squeezing feeling “under my breastbone” and seems to go away with rest. It doesn’t change with breathing or with different positioning. What is going on?

A

Stable angina, due to increased myocardial O2 demand with narrowed coronary arteries leading to an imbalance between blood supply and O2 demand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

45 yoM with history of occasional substernal chest pressure and a normal resting ECG. Otherwise healthy except for T2DM, and says he can walk around his neighborhood without difficulty. What test should you use to make the diagnosis of CAD?

A

Exercise stress test - could do stress ECG or stress echo. He is able to exercise so he can do the exercise stress test on a treadmill. This information could be enhanced by doing perfusion imaging with a radioisotope during exercise. Perfusion imaging can help determine if there are areas of reversible ischemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

62 yoF has a positive cardiac stress test. What are your recommendations?

A

Do cardiac catheterization! This should also be done in a patient with nondiagnostic noninvasive tests in angina, angina soon after MI, severely symptomatic angina, or any other situation with a need for revascularization, valvular disease, or a potential need for surgical intervention, or to revascularize with PCI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

70 yoM presents with unstable angina. Due to severe arthritis and COPD, he does not tolerate exercise well. What medications can you use to perform a cardiac stress test, and how do they work?

A

Adenosine or dipyridamole: coronary vasodilation. Diseased arteries are maximally dilated at rest, so they will receive less flow when the rest of the system is vasodilated.

Dobutamine: increases HR, BP, contractility, and therefore increases myocardial O2 demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What lifestyle modifications might you recommend to your patients to reduce their risk of CAD?

A

Smoking cessation; management of HTN; reduce serum cholesterol; glycemic control in T2DM; weight loss; exercise; reduced saturated fat and cholesterol in diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mr. Jones is about to be discharged from the hospital after an MI. He does not have CHF. His diabetes is already optimally controlled. His acute MI was due to an occluded LAD, and so he underwent PCI and stenting. What new medications will he go home on, and why?

A

ASA - indicated in all CAD patients, reduces risk of MI, decreases morbidity.

Beta-blocker (metoprolol, atenolol) - reduces HR, BP, contractility, so decreases cardiac work, and decreases frequency of coronary events

Nitrates (nitroglycerin) - vasodilatory, so can relieve angina, reduce preload, reduce myocardial O2 demand

Clopidogrel - initiated in all patients who receive stenting via PCI. Dual antiplatelets (ASA+plavix) needs to continue for 30 days if a bare metal stent, and 12 months if a drug-eluting stent.

Statin: reduces risk of further coronary events

ACE inhibitor: reduces mortality and should be a part of long-term maintenance therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mrs. Stone has a history of MI, and coronary angiogram shows that she has three-vessel disease with 70%, 75%, and 90% stenosis, respectively. What intervention is indicated?

A

CABG: indicated for three-vessel disease with >70% stenosis in each vessel, or for left main coronary disease with >50% stenosis and LV dysfunction, or for high-risk patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A patient with a long history of right heart failure and pulmonary HTN presents to the ED with worsening symptoms, complaining of severe swelling in her legs. On exam you note ascites, hepatomegaly, JVD, and severe pitting edema. You also hear a blowing holosystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border that is more intense with inspiration. The patient is in Afib. What does this murmur signify? What treatment is most likely going to help?

A

This is a tricuspid regurgitation murmur in the setting of RHF/pulmonary HTN. It should be treated by treating the underlying cause, in this case his pulmonary HTN and RHF, as well as by treating his volume overload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

69yoF has chest pressure at rest, and presents to the ED for a workup. Troponin is normal. ECG does not show ST elevation or Q waves. What is going on, and how should she be initially managed?

A

Unstable angina - reduced resting coronary flow leads to decreased supply of O2 to myocardium. Medical management is required before stress testing.

Admission with cardiac monitoring, give O2, IV access.

Medical management - ASA, plavix, beta-blockers (first-line therapy), LMWH to prevent progression or development of clot, nitrates, oxygen if hypoxic, electrolyte repletion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Patient with stable angina gets a lipid panel drawn, and has hyperlipidemia. What should their goal LDL be for reducing CAD morbidity/mortality?

A

LDL <100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

55yoM presents with chief complaint of nocturnal chest pain. He is admitted and ECG on admission, when he is asymptomatic, is normal. In the middle of the night on his first night in the hospital, he complains of chest pain again, and ECG shows ST segment elevation that resolves on repeat ECG. What is likely to be going on, and how can you definitively show that?

A

Prinzmetal’s angina - transient coronary vasospasm, usually with angina at rest and occasionally with ventricular dysrhythmias. Usually occurs at night. Transient ST elevation on ECG during the pain, representing transmural ischemia.

Definitive test is angiography, with vasospasm when the patient is given IV ergonovine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A patient presents to the ED with dizziness, fatigue, and syncope. She has a history of CHF. On ECG there is a sinus bradycardia. What could this be called?

A

Sick sinus syndrome - may require pacemaker implantation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A patient has hypotension, elevated JVP, hepatomegaly. Her lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. You see ST segment changes in II, III, and aVF. Where is the pathology?

A

Likely a right ventricular infarct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

61 yoF, presenting to the ED with chest pain. He has had one prior MI 4 years ago. What ECG finding will you expect to find that reflects his PMH?

A

Q waves, which indicate prior MI. If there are new ST or T abnormalities, that suggests unstable angina or new MI may also be going on. Compare to a previous ECG to tease out what are actually new findings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You see ST depression on an ECG. What does that suggest, compared to ST elevation?

A

ST depression suggests subendocardial injury whereas ST elevation suggests transmural infarct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

You are treating a patient for acute MI. What agents have been shown to reduce mortality in MI?

A

ASA, beta blockers, ACE inhibitors - should be used in long-term maintenance therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A 75yoM presents to the emergency department for dizziness following three days of nausea and vomiting. You place him on telemetry and vitals monitoring, noting that he is hemodynamically stable. You notice a few brief, self-limited runs of V-tach while he is in the emergency department. His dizziness resolves with IV fluids, Zofran, and PO fluids over the course of a few hours, and you determine that it was most likely due to volume depletion. What should you do about his findings on telemetry?

A

Nonsustained V-tach is usually asymptomatic but could be due to CAD and LV dysfunction, which are independent risk factors for sudden death. This patient needs to be evaluated for cardiac disease, as his nonsustained V-tach suggests that an underlying disease process might be present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A patient who has had an anterior MI develops third-degree heart block. How should this be managed emergently?

A

This patient requires placement of a temporary pacemaker because new second-degree type II and third degree heart block in a patient with anterior MI have very poor prognosis. If the MI were inferior, then IV atropine can be used initially.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A patient has been admitted for GI bleeding and is found to have non-sustained V-tach on telemetry. The patient has a history of CHF. You determine that the V-tach is not likely related to the GI bleeding, which is mild bleeding from diverticulosis. What is the most effective treatment for this patient’s nonsustained V-tach?

A

ICD has been shown to be the most effective treatment for non-sustained V-tach in a patient with underlying heart disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A patient with a history of poor healthcare utilization presents to the ED with a multiple-year history of dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, with palpitations that are worse when lying down, because the symptoms are finally bad enough that the patient thinks he needs care. On exam you note that the blood pressure is 180/65, and you hear a diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left eternal border. The murmur increases in intensity with sustained handgrip. What is your diagnosis? What treatments should you consider? What other evaluation might you want, and what would it show? What are possible causes?

A

Aortic regurgitation.

Further evaluation with CXR (shows LVH, aortic dilation), ECG (shows LVH), echocardiogram (dilated aortic root, LVH, reversal of blood flow in the aorta), and possibly cardiac catheterization.

Treat with conservative management if stable and asymptomatic (salt restriction, diuretics, vasodilators, digoxin, afterload reduction with ACEis or arterial dilators, and restrictions on strenuous activity). Treat with surgery for valve replacement if symptomatic or having significant LV dysfunction.

Possible causes: primary valvular (Rheumatic fever, bicuspid valve, Marfan, EDS, ankylosing spondylitis, SLE) and aortic root disease (syphilitic aortitis, osteogenesis imperfecta, aortic dissection, Behcet’s disease, Reiter’s syndrome, systemic HTN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

4 days after an acute MI, a patient experiences chest pain. On exam, the patient is hypotensive and has distended neck veins. Heart tones are muffled. An emergent bedside ultrasound shows free fluid within the pericardium. What event most likely occurred, and what treatment is needed?

A

This is likely to be a free wall rupture, producing cardiac tamponade. Pericarditis can also lead to tamponade after an MI, but the free fluid on US is concerning for hemopericardium. This is most often fatal. Tx with hemodynamic stabilization and resuscitation, pericardiocentesis, and then emergent surgical repair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Your patient has an ECG with early P waves that differ in morphology. The patient has been experiencing palpitations. What is this arrhythmia called, and is any treatment indicated?

A

Premature atrial complexes. Often asymptomatic and do not require treatment. If symptomatic (palpitations), beta blockers may help.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

You are assessing a patient who complains of orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and overall shortness of breath. What physical exam findings might you find, and what does that indicate?

A

These are symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Exam may show displaced PMI due to cardiomegaly, pathologic S3 heard best at the apex with the bell (rapid filling into a non-compliant LV), S4 gallop heard best at the left sternal border with the bell (atrial systole, with blood ejected into a stiff/non-compliant LV), and crackles/rales at lung bases due to pulmonary edema (rales suggests at least moderate severity of LV heart failure). Increased intensity of the pulmonic component of the second heart sound suggests pulmonary HTN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

You’re reading an ECG and see a large R wave and ST depression in V1 and V2, as well as prominent upright T waves in V1 and V2. What does that indicate?

A

Posterior MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A 69 yoM presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. On history he endorses orthopnea. He has a history of HTN and previous MI. On exam he has an S3 and some crackles at the bases of his lungs, as well as pedal edema. What tests will you order on this patient, and what would you be looking for to support the diagnosis at the top of your differential?

A

This is a picture consistent with CHF.

CXR: look for cardiomegaly, Kerley B lines (short horizontal lines near the periphery of the lung and near the costophrenic angles indicating pulmonary congestion and dilation of pulmonary lymphatics), pleural effusion

TTE (initial test of choice): evaluate for systolic vs diastolic dysfunction and see if a pericardial, myocardial, or valvular process is involved. Also estimates EF.

ECG: rule out MI, may help detect chamber enlargement

Labs - cardiac enzymes and CBC to rule out MI and see if there is anemia, BNP to evaluate atrial stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

You are reviewing an ECG and see that the P wave progressively gets longer and longer until you see a dropped beat, with a P wave but no QRS. What is this and what treatment is needed?

A

2nd degree AV block, Mobitz type I (Wenckebach). P wave progressively prolongs. AV nodal block. Usually does not require treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

You have a patient with HFrEF, with an ejection fraction of 35%. Her BMI is 40, and she smokes 1 pack/day and drinks alcohol about 5 times a week. Her current medication list includes a baby aspirin daily and a statin. She is also on metoprolol following an MI that she had three years ago. What lifestyle modifications will you recommend, and what medications will you add for management of her heart failure?

A

Lifestyle mods: sodium restriction, weight loss, smoking cessation, restricting alcohol use, exercise, monitoring weight to detect fluid accumulation.

Medications: Add a diuretic (symptom control) like furosemide (loop) or hydrochlorothiazide (thiazide, modest potency), and an ACE inhibitor (reduces mortality). She is already on a beta blocker.

Other meds can be added as needed - spironolactone or eplerenone (doesn’t cause gynecomastia), digitalis, hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate. The aldosterone antags prolong survival in classes III and IV, but you need to monitor K and renal function. Digitalis/digoxin is an inotrope, which can provide symptomatic relief in patients who are symptomatic despite being on all other medication options. Hydralazine/isosorbide is used in patients who don’t tolerate ACEis/ARBs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A patient presents with a CHF exacerbation. You place the patient on telemetry and notice a heart rate around 150, with an atrial rate around 300. What finding do you expect to see on ECG?

A

Sawtooth flutter waves, best seen in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) - atrial flutter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A patient presents with HFpEF. She is in volume overload. What medications are indicated?

A

Beta blockers are indicated for reducing HTN, and they have a clear benefit. Diuretics are used for volume overload. DO NOT use digoxin and spironolactone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A 70 yoM presents to the ED with the acute onset of respiratory distress. He has no history of asthma or COPD. He has a medical history significant for an MI 5 years ago and for prostate cancer treated with radical prostatectomy 3 years ago. He is afebrile and hypertensive. On exam he has crackles at the bases of his lungs and pedal edema. What is most likely going on? What else is on your differential? What tests will you order? Should he be admitted?

A

This is most likely acute decompensated heart failure, with acute dyspnea due to elevated left-sided filling pressures. DDx includes PE and pneumonia, as well as asthma (less likely). Diagnostic tests should include ECG, CXR, ABG, BNP, TTE. He should be admitted.

31
Q

While watching a patient’s telemetry in the ED, you notice occasional wide and weird-looking QRS complexes followed by a pause. The patient presented for management of a leg ulcer, and has no palpitations, dyspnea, or lightheadedness. What would be a reason to further assess this?

A

These are PVCs. They may be found in patients without structural heart disease. If they are frequent and repetitive, and the patient has underlying heart disease, that patient may be at risk of Vfib, so further studies should be conducted.

32
Q

An 80 year old woman presents to your ED with atrial fibrillation, with a heart rate averaging in the 130s-140s. Her blood pressure is 134/78. She has a history of an MI 15 years ago. What is your first step in treatment? What will you do if that fails?

A

Start treating acute a-fib in a hemodynamically stable patient with rate control. Beta blockers are preferred, so give IV metoprolol 5 mg every 5 minutes for three doses. If that does not work to attain rate control, consider a calcium channel blocker like verapamil. Cardioversion should be done immediately in unstable patients, and should be done electrically rather than pharmacologically if possible. This patient should also be anticoagulated with warfarin in the long term if a-fib persists, because she is over age 60/has other cardiovascular risk factors.

33
Q

A patient with COPD is admitted for poor O2 saturation. You obtain an ECG that shows variable P wave morphology, with at least 3 different shapes of P waves. The patient has preserved LV function. What should you use to resolve these ECG findings?

A

This is multifocal atrial tachycardia. It has a strong association with pulmonary disease. Start with improving oxygenation and ventilation. If needed, may use CCBs, beta blockers, digoxin, amiodarone, flecainide since this patient has preserved LV function.

34
Q

You’re reading an ECG and see ST segment elevation in V1-V4. What’s going on?

A

Acute anterior MI

35
Q

You are reviewing an ECG and notice the P waves and QRS complexes do not match up. The ventricular rate is 32 bpm, but the atrial rate seems different. What is going on, and what treatment is required?

A

This is 3rd degree (complete) AV block, due to absence of conduction of atrial impulses to the ventricles. There is AV dissociation. Pacemaker implantation is necessary.

36
Q

A patient presents to the ED with chief complaint of chest pain. What is the first test that you order?

A

ECG

37
Q

You are reviewing an ECG and notice that on every fourth P wave, there is no QRS. The PR interval is normal length. What is this, and what treatment does it require?

A

This is second degree AV block, Mobitz type II. The P wave suddenly fails to conduct, usually in a pattern (2:1, 3:1, 4:1). This is due to block in the His-Purkinje system, and often progresses to complete AV block. Treatment with pacemaker implantation is necessary.

38
Q

A patient presents to the ED with severe pleuritic chest pain in a retrosternal location. She feels better when she is sitting up and leaning forward. Her history is significant for a recent flu-like illness, but she is already healthy. Labs are obtained, and there is leukocytosis. ECG shows diffuse ST elevation and PR depression. On exam, she is febrile. When auscultating her chest you hear a scratching high-pitched sound during ventricular systole when the patient is sitting up. An echocardiogram shows pericardial effusion. What is your diagnosis, and what will you do for treatment?

A

Acute pericarditis: chest pain, pericardial friction rub, ECG changes, and pericardial effusion. PR depression on ECG is a SPECIFIC finding for acute pericarditis, as is a friction rub on exam.

Most likely cause in this patient is idiopathic, possibly post-viral. Other causes include infection, acute MI, uremia, collagen vascular diseases, neoplasm (HL, breast, lung), drug-induced lupus syndrome with procainamide or hydralazine, long after MI, after surgery, amyloidosis, radiation, or trauma.

Patients usually recover within a few weeks. Treat underlying cause if known. NSAIDS for pain are the mainstay of therapy. Colchicine may also be used. Glucocorticoids should be avoided but may be tried if needed. If febrile or with a pericardial effusion, should be hospitalized.

39
Q

A 44 year old woman presents to her primary care clinic with dyspnea and exercise intolerance. On history, you learn that she has diabetes. Her skin is very tan, although she does not use a tanning both. On exam she has swollen ankles and hepatomegaly. You obtain a TTE to evaluate her dyspnea, showing increased atrial size and normal ventricular size, as well as thickened myocardium. On ECG she has a-fib. What do you suspect is going on? What caused it? How can you confirm your diagnosis? How should you treat it?

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy, in this patient likely due to hemochromatosis (bronze diabetes) leading to infiltration of the myocardium. Endomyocardial biopsy may be diagnostic. Echo will show possible systolic ventricular dysfunction as well as the above findings. Treat the underlying disorder (phlebotomy or chelation with deferoxime for hemochromatosis) and be cautious with drugs like diuretics and vasodilators that may decrease preload, because these patients may be more preload-dependent.

40
Q

A patient in cardiogenic shock is hemodynamically unstable and has electrical alternans on ECG. There is no history of trauma. What is indicated for management?

A

Other than appropriate resuscitation, this patient needs pericardiocentesis.

41
Q

A patient has mildly symptomatic mitral regurgitation. How do you manage their disease? What if they were asymptomatic? What if they had severe disease?

A

Asymptomatic: no therapy required
Mildly symptomatic: diuretics, maybe beta blockers, infective endocarditis prophylaxis, warfarin anticoagulant if they have a-fib
Severe: all of the above plus usually do surgery (percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty)

42
Q

In the cardiac ICU, you have two patients with complications of MI. One patient has a ventricular pseudoaneurysm. The other patient has a ventricular aneurysm. Which patient needs emergent surgery, and which patient is more likely to have a ventricular tachyarrhythmia?

A

The pseudoaneurysm is highly likely to rupture, so that patient needs emergent surgery. The aneurysm is less likely to rupture but is associated with tachyarrhythmias.

43
Q

A critical patient in the ICU has an ECG with QRS complexes of varying amplitudes. What is this, and what is it concerning for?

A

Electrical alternans - concerning for massive pericardial effusion and tamponade

44
Q

Your patient had an acute RV infarct 6 days ago and has been recovering well, but all of a sudden today he has new chest pain of sudden onset. He is tachycardic and hypotensive. Crackles are evident on lung exam bilaterally, and he is tachypneic. There is a new holosystolic murmur, 3/6, loudest at the apex. What do you suspect, what should you do immediately to confirm your suspicions, and what treatment is likely required?

A

Papillary muscle rupture, leading to new mitral regurgitation (holosystolic murmur at the apex). Obtain an echocardiogram immediately to confirm. Treatment with emergent mitral valve replacement is needed, and patient probably also needs afterload reduction, either with nitroprusside or intraaortic balloon pump.

45
Q

A patient presents with palpitations and tachycardia. ECG shows narrow QRS complex tachycardia with a short PR interval and a delta wave. What is this arrhythmia, and how can you treat it?

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, caused by an accessory conduction pathway between the atria and the ventricles. The delta wave shows that conduction occurs retrograde. Treat with radiofrequency ablation (although you could use procainamide or quinidine).

46
Q

A patient who is a 49 year old woman presents to clinic with a chief complaint of dyspnea on exertion. She is hypertensive to the 150s, and at rest does not have any dyspnea. The rest of her vitals are normal. On exam she has a third heart sound, and so you perform a TTE. Her ejection fraction is 55%. What is your diagnosis, and what kinds of etiology are you going to look for?

A

HFpEF - diastolic dysfunction. Treat based on etiology and symptoms. Etiology could include infiltrative cardiomyopathy (amyloid, sarcoid), hypertension, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, etc. This patient clearly has hypertension, so start by treating her with a beta blocker, and then work from there. She is stable, so she probably can be treated outpatient. Her NYHA class is II.

47
Q

You are following Mrs. Smith, a 69 year old lady who is newly diagnosed with a-fib. She has a history of T2DM and has had one previous MI. She is nervous about taking blood thinners and wants to know why they are recommended. What do you tell her?

A

There is a 1%/year risk of CVA in patients with Afib without underlying heart disease, and a 4%/year risk of CVA in patients with Afib and underlying heart disease. Her CHADS-VASC score suggests that she would benefit from anticoagulation to reduce her risk of CVA.

48
Q

You perform a CXR on a patient who presents with exertional dyspnea. You see left atrial enlargement and some pulmonary edema. What would you expect to see on echo?

A

Mitral stenosis leading to LA enlargement, with a thickened and calcified mitral valve with a fish-mouth appearance. If advanced disease may see signs of RV failure.

49
Q

A patient presents to the ED with wide complex tachycardia. He is awake, talking, and hemodynamically stable, although he is feeling some palpitations. His blood pressure is 110/72. How should he be treated?

A

Most concerning for V-tach. Since he is hemodynamically stable he can get IV amiodarone, IV procainamide, or IV sotalol. If he were hemodynamically unstable, he would need immediate synchronized cardioversion, followed by amiodarone.

50
Q

You’re reading an ECG and see Q waves in II, III, and aVF. What does that indicate?

A

Late change associated with inferior MI.

51
Q

A patient is driven to the ED due to chest pain for the past several hours. On arrival to the ED, the patient is roomed, and placed on monitors. Suddenly the patient collapses. Telemetry shows ventricular fibrillation, and there is no measurable BP or pulse. What should you do for management?

A

V-fib is a medical emergency: do immediate unsynchronized DC cardioversion, and if it takes any time to get that set up, do CPR until ready to defibrillate.

If Vfib persists: continue CPR, intubate, give epinephrine 1 mg IV bolus and then every 3-5 min, and then attempt to defibrillate again 30-60 seconds later.

52
Q

A patient has a small pericardial effusion detected on a TTE obtained to evaluate the patient’s ischemic cardiomyopathy. The patient is otherwise asymptomatic and is clinically stable. There are no abnormal findings other than the patient’s stable and unchanged cardiomyopathy. What should you do for treatment/follow-up?

A

Small clinically insignificant pericardial effusions can be followed up with a repeat echo in 1-2 weeks.

53
Q

You are reviewing an ECG and see a PR interval of 250 ms. The rhythm is regular and the rate is within normal limits. There are no other abnormalities. What is this, and what treatment does it require?

A

1st degree AV block - prolonged PR interval >200 ms due to AV nodal delay. This is benign and does not require treatment.

54
Q

You are treating a patient with acute decompensated heart failure. Vitals are as follows: T 98.6, HR 104, RR 30, BP 141/78, SpO2 78%. What interventions are indicated?

A

Oxygenation - NRB, noninvasive positive pressure ventilation, or even intubation as needed.
Diuretics - most important! Decreases preload. Start with furosemide at 2x home dose (IV furosemide also is 2x as bioavailable as oral).
Sodium restriction
Nitrates - since he is not hypotensive, you can give IV nitroglycerin to vasodilate and decrease afterload
If pulm edema persists, may need an inotrope such as dobutamine in the acute setting.

55
Q

A patient presents to clinic with exertional dyspnea and orthopnea. On exam you hear an opening snap, followed by a low-pitched diastolic rumble, heard best at the apex. S1 is also loud. What does this finding suggest? What is the most common cause?

A

Murmur suggest mitral stenosis. Most common cause is rheumatic heart disease, even if patient doesn’t recall having rheumatic fever. Caused by immune-mediated damage to mitral valve from cross-reactivity between strep antigen and valve tissue. Patients become symptomatic once the valve area is reduced to 1.5 cm^2 (normal is 4-5).

56
Q

A patient suddenly becomes unresponsive after complaining of shortness of breath and leg pain. Telemetry shows some electrical activity, but there is no pulse. What is going on, and how should it be treated?

A

This is pulseless electrical activity, probably due to a massive PE. PEA can also be caused by hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypotension, hyperkalemia, tamponade, tension pneumothorax, etc. Start CPR. It is not responsive to defibrillation. Treat possible underlying causes and medicate according to ACLS guidelines.

56
Q

An 18 year old patient has a TTE that shows diastolic dysfunction and elevated diastolic filling pressures in the LV. The patient presented initially with dyspnea and syncope while playing soccer. On exam the patient has a systolic ejection murmur that increases in intensity with Valsalva and standing, and decreases with sustained hand grip. It is best heard at the left lower eternal border. The patient’s much older brother died 7 years ago suddenly while out for a run. What is your diagnosis, and what treatment should you start with?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy - most often autosomal dominant. Diastolic dysfunction occurs due to stiffness and hypertrophy of the LV. If the interventricular septum is also hypertrophied patients may have a dynamic outflow obstruction. It may present as sudden death in a young person. Treat with avoidance of strenuous exercise, as well as prescribing a beta blocker to improve diastolic filling by decreasing HR, and to reduce contractility. Verapamil (CCB) can be used if no response to beta blocker. Can use diuretics if there is fluid retention.

57
Q

A young patient presents with palpitations. ECG shows narrow QRS tachycardia with no discernible P waves. What arrhythmia is this?

A

AV nodal reentrant tachycardia

58
Q

A patient presents to the ED with new onset of left and right side CHF symptoms. The patient has a history of alcohol use and CAD with prior MI. CXR shows cardiomegaly, and the patient has new atrial fibrillation. You order a TTE and it shows dilation of the left ventricle and impaired L ventricular contractility. What is your diagnosis? What is the prognosis?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy, likely ischemic in origin. Prognosis is often poor, and many patients die within 5 years of the onset of symptoms. Treat with digoxin, diuretics, vasodilators, and ultimately cardiac transplant.

RFs/etiology of dilated cardiomyopathy:
50% of cases are idiopathic. Many are caused by CAD, but also toxic (EtOH, anthracyclines), metabolic (thiamine or selenium deficiency, uremia, hypophosphatemia), infectious (viral, Chagas, Lyme, HIV), thyroid disease, peripartum cardiomyopathy, SLE/scleroderma/other collagen vascular disease, prolonged uncontrolled tachycardia, pheochromocytoma, cocaine, genetic causes.

60
Q

A 62-year-old African American woman with PMH significant for sarcoidosis presents to the ED with dyspnea and exercise intolerance. Echocardiogram shows thickened myocardium and increased size of the RA and LA, with normal LV and RV size. There is no systolic ventricular dysfunction. What is the most likely diagnosis, and how will you treat it?

A

Most likely restrictive cardiomyopathy due to sarcoidosis. Infiltration of myocardium leads to decreased ventricular compliance and impaired diastolic filling. Systolic dysfunction is present in advanced disease sometimes.

Treat underlying disorder: sarcoidosis -> glucocorticoids. If systolic dysfunction is present, digoxin may be given (unless the patient has amyloidosis).

60
Q

A patient presents to the ED with ascites, peripheral edema, and pleural effusions, as well as dyspnea and fatigue. He has a history of Hodgkin lymphoma recently treated with radiation. ECG shows low QRS voltages and generalized T wave flattening. On exam he has JVD, and his JVP fails to decrease during inspiration. A pericardial knock can be heard on auscultation. On echocardiogram, there is increased pericardial thickness and there is a sharp halt in ventricular diastolic filling. What is the diagnosis, and what will be seen on cardiac catheterization? What is the pathology leading to these findings?

A

This is constrictive pericarditis. Classic high-yield exam findings include the elevated JVP and Kussmaul sign (JVP does not decrease on inspiration).

On cardiac catheterization, diastolic pressures in all chambers are elevated and equal. Ventricular pressure tracing shows “square root sign”, which is a rapid y descent with a dip and plateau.

These findings are due to the rigid pericardium restricting diastolic filling. In early diastole the ventricles fill rapidly but then when volume reaches the limit of the constricted pericardium, ventricular filling halts abruptly.

In contrast, in cardiac tamponade, ventricular filling is impeded throughout all of diastole.

61
Q

An 18 year old male who works as a summer camp counselor presents to the ED with a 2-day history of fever, fatigue, and chest pain. You order some labs: WBC 15, Hgb 14.6, PLT 225. His troponin is elevated. His ESR is also elevated. A CXR shows no evidence of pneumonia but does show some pleural effusion. On exam he has a rash on his palms, soles, and on the inside of his mouth. What could be going on?

A

This patient likely has myocarditis, possibly caused by Coxsackie virus (thus the rash, and he probably got it from kids at the camp where he works). Myocarditis is caused by viruses (also parvo B19, HHV-6, etc), bacteria (group A strep, Lyme, mycoplasma), SLE, meds, or can be idiopathic. May present with fever, fatigue, chest pain, CHF, arrhythmia, or death. Cardiac enzymes and ESR may be elevated. Treat supportively and treat underlying causes.

63
Q

Mr. Jones is a patient with NYHA class III heart failure who presents to the ED with chief complaint of confusion. He has been experiencing nausea and vomiting, and endorses palpitations. His medication list includes furosemide, lisinopril, carvedilol, digoxin, and eplerenone. You obtain an ECG and it shows a new AV block. What is the likely cause of his symptoms?

A

These symptoms are characteristic of digoxin toxicity. Measuring a digoxin level can confirm the diagnosis. Treat with digibind (anti-digitalis Fab). Given the use of an aldosterone antagonist and a loop diuretic, it is probably a good idea to check electrolytes as well.

64
Q

A 28yoF patient presents to the ED in torsades de pointes. She is hypotensive and unresponsive. You give IV magnesium and defibrillate, and she returns to normal sinus rhythm. When she is awake and more stable, she is able to give you more of a history. She has an aunt who died at a young age from an unknown cause. What other factors might be related to her presentation?

A

This patient most likely had a prolonged QT interval. Her family history suggests that she may have a congenital long QT syndrome. Other things that may prolong the QT interval include TCAs, various other medications, anticholinergics, electrolyte abnormalities, ischemia.

65
Q

Two patients are found to have a bottle-shaped heart on CXR. One has a known lung malignancy and has been symptomatic from that cancer for a few months. The other is presenting with sudden sharp chest pain radiating to the back and is hemodynamically unstable. Which patient is more likely to have cardiac tamponade? How will that patient present?

A

Trauma patient with aortic dissection at the most proximal portion of the aorta > long-term chronic malignant pericardial effusion for causing cardiac tamponade because of the rate of fluid accumulation.

Tamponade is impaired diastolic filling due to pericardial effusion. All intracardiac chambers’ pressures equalize during diastole, and ventricular filling is impaired in diastole, leading to decreased stroke volume and decreased cardiac output. This patient will present with elevated JVP, narrowed pulse pressure, pulsus paradoxus (decreased arterial pressure >10 mmHg during inspiration), muffled heart sounds, tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypotension. The patient will be in cardiogenic shock.

66
Q

You are assessing a patient who presents to clinic with bilateral pitting pedal edema and a history of left-sided heart failure. What exam findings might accompany the pedal edema, and what has happened with this patient’s disease progression?

A

Pedal edema is often seen in right-sided heart failure. L heart failure will always end up progressing to R heart failure given enough time (and vice versa). Exam findings may also include JVD, hepatomegaly, positive hepatojugular reflex, ascites, and a right ventricular heave. You may also see signs of L heart failure (displaced PMI, pathologic S3 and S4, and crackles/rales at lung bases).

67
Q

An elderly patient presents to the emergency room following a syncopal event. She has no cardiac history. On exam you note that she has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur radiating to the carotids, heard best in the second right intercostal space. She also has diminished and delayed carotid upstrokes. What is this condition, is it new or old, and what is her prognosis? What treatment is indicated?

A

Aortic stenosis - likely has been there for a while, and she has been asymptomatic for years. The development of symptoms (angina, syncope, heart failure) demonstrates a poor prognosis, and surgical aortic valve replacement is indicated.

68
Q

A patient presents with really bad CHF and chest pain. The pain is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward. On exam you also notice muffled heart sounds. What is the imaging procedure of choice to work up this nonspecific exam finding?

A

TTE! Echocardiogram is the imaging procedure of choice for pericardial effusion and is the most sensitive and specific method of determining if pericardial fluid is present. It should also be performed in all patients with acute pericarditis to rule out an effusion.

69
Q

A patient has had mitral stenosis for almost a decade, and has not been particularly compliant with therapy. What complications might you see?

A

Mitral stenosis leads to elevated left atrial pressure, so it can lead long-term to pulmonary HTN and also to right ventricular failure. It can also lead to AFib due to increased L atrial pressure and size.

70
Q

A patient has new chest pain two days after admission to the hospital for an MI. What needs to be done immediately?

A

New ECG and check CK-MB (CK-MB will return to normal faster than troponin, which remains elevated for a week or more, so checking a repeat CK-MB will be a better indicator of a new MI). Repeat ST elevation is also suggestive of recurrent infarct.

72
Q

You see Q waves in I and aVL on an ECG. What does that indicate?

A

Lateral MI.

72
Q

A young patient presents to your cardiology clinic because his PCP heard a murmur on exam. The patient is tall and skinny with big hands and feet. He has not had any symptoms of CHF. On exam you hear a holosystolic murmur most pronounced at the apex, radiating to the back. PMI is laterally displaced. On CXR you see cardiomegaly with a dilated LV. What does this patient have? What kind of treatment does he need?

A

Mitral regurgitation, chronic form. In him it’s likely in the setting of Marfan syndrome. Afterload reduction is only recommended in symptomatic patients because in asymptomatic patients it could mask disease progression. He may need surgery down the road to repair his valve before his LV function is too severely compromised.

73
Q

A patient with an acute MI is hemodynamically unstable. What additional monitoring besides telemetry, vitals, and physical exam might be beneficial?

A

Pulmonary artery catheter for monitoring of CVP, PCWP, SVR, and cardiac index.

74
Q

A young woman with Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome comes to your clinic to establish care. She is otherwise healthy. On physical exam you note that you hear a mid-systolic murmur that increases on standing and decreases on squatting. What condition is this likely to be? She is completely asymptomatic.

A

Mitral valve prolapse, which is common in patients with genetic connective tissue disorders, leading to mitral regurgitation. Confirm the diagnosis with echocardiogram. Since she is asymptomatic, treat with reassurance. The condition is often benign.