Internal Med- Endo + Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

25-year-old man concerned about some “bizarre symptoms” that he has been. He tells you that approximately 6 months ago, he began to experience the following symptoms: headaches, visual defects, weight gain, an appearance of his forehead growing, enlarging hands and feet (he could no longer get his gloves and shoes on), and increased sweating. On examination, mental status is normal, and the apical impulse is felt in the fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. His blood pressure is 170/ 105 mm Hg. He does have a protruding brow, and three discrete visual field defects are noted (two in the left eye and one in the right eye). His tongue appears enlarged, and he is sweating profusely.

A

Acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Etiology of acromegaly

A

pituitary adenoma that secretes excessive amounts of Growth Hormone; rarely, they are caused by non-pituitary tumors that secrete GHRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

occurs if growth hormone (GH) hypersecretion begins in childhood, before the closure of the epiphyses

A

Gigantism

Acromegaly involves growth hormone GH hypersecretion beginning in adulthood; a variety of bony and soft tissue abnormalities develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Whats the difference in Acromegaly vs Gigantism

A
  • Gigantism occurs if growth hormone (GH) hypersecretion begins in childhood, before the closure of the epiphyses
  • Acromegaly involves growth hormone GH hypersecretion beginning in adulthood; a variety of bony and soft tissue abnormalities develop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dx studies for acromegaly

A
  • GH test 2 hour after glucose load
  • Increased IGF-1
  • MRI/CT shows a pituitary tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tx of acromegaly

A

Pituitary tumor removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a 25-year-old male presents complaining of extreme weakness, 20-lb weight loss, lightheadedness, and dizziness. On physical exam, he appears ill, and his blood pressure is 90/70 mm Hg. He has dark skin and hyperpigmented creases on his palms. Serum sodium is low, potassium is elevated; urea level and serum calcium are both elevated as well.

A

Addisons dz (adrenal insufficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What causes addisons disease

A

autoimmune factors (70% of cases), infections, or disease within the adrenal gland. This causes a decrease in cortisol secretion and increased ACTH

ADDison’s disease = ADrenal Down or “ADD” hormone to treat ADDison’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the electrolyte findings of primary adrenal insufficiency

A

HYPERkalemia and HYPOnatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the secondary causes of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Deficient secretion of ACTH by the pituitary gland which may be isolated or occur in conjunction with other pituitary hormone deficiencies. ACTH and cortisol levels both are low.

  • Secondary factors include a pituitary adenoma or discontinuation of steroid use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Primary or secondary

PITUITARY FAILURE which results in ↓ Cortisol, ↓ ACTH (from pituitary failure), and normal aldosterone with little or no ACTH response with the administration of CRH

A

Secondary adrenocortical insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Initial dx for chronic adrenal insufficiency

A

8 AM serum cortisol + plasma ACTH along with an ACTH stimulation test (should be high dose)

  • Elevated ACTH with low cortisol is diagnostic of primary adrenal insufficiency, particularly in patients who are severely stressed or in shock
  • Low ACTH and low cortisol suggest secondary or tertiary adrenal insufficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are common lab findings associated with adrenocortical insufficiency

A
  • WBC count with moderate neutropenia, lymphocytosis, and total eosinophil count over 300/μL
  • Low serum Na+ (aldosterone causes sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion => low aldosterone = sodium excretion and potassium reabsorption)
  • Elevated K+ (aldosterone causes sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion => low aldosterone = sodium excretion and potassium reabsorption)
  • Low fasting blood glucose (due to lack of cortisol => cortisol stimulates gluconeogenesis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is expected of cortisol levels after giving cosyntropin in a pt with suspected adrenocortical insufficiency

A
  • Cortisol levels are low or fail to rise after giving cosyntropin (ACTH1-24) stimulation test (confirmatory)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Addisons aka primary adrenal insufficiency tx

A

Steroids + mineralcorticoids

Hydrocortisone or Prednisone + fludrocortison (mineral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tx for adrenal crisis

A

Emergent IV saline, glucose, steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cushing syndrome is caused by

A

Cushy = too much cortisol→ d/t ACTH excess → Pituitary adenoma

High cortisol, low K+, high BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why does cushing disease cause a decrease in potassium?

A

Cortisol, at high levels, acts like a mineralocorticoid (aldosterone), stimulating the absorption of sodium and excretion of potassium at the collecting tubules. Hence, any disorder involving an excess of mineralocorticoids will cause hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sx of cushings

A
  • Fat redistribution (buffalo hump, moon facies), pigmented striae, obesity, skin atrophy, weight gain, easy bruising, elevated glucose, infections, cataracts, and hirsutism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why do people gain weight with Cushings?

A

Cortisol stimulates fat and carbohydrate metabolism for fast energy and stimulates insulin release and maintenance of blood sugar levels. The end result of these actions can be an increase in appetite”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dx of cushings

A
  • Gold standard test → Twenty-four-hour urine test: A test in which urine is collected for 24 hours to measure the amounts of cortisol. A higher than normal amount in the urine may be a sign of disease in the adrenal cortex
  • Dexamethasone suppression test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tx of cushings

A

Cushing’s disease (pituitary/secondary) is treated with transsphenoidal surgery

  • Cushing syndrome (primary) ectopic or adrenal tumors: the tumor is removed - ketoconazole is given in inoperable patients
  • Iatrogenic steroid therapy - begin gradual steroid withdrawal to prevent Addisonian crisis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

5-year-old male complaining of an unabated thirst that began three weeks ago. He is constantly drinking and goes to the bathroom around five times a night. He has lost five pounds over the last few weeks. The patient is on lithium for bipolar disorder. His BP is 115/70. The patient’s labs are significant for serum Na of 145 mEq/L (normal: 135-145). Urine osmolality is 185 mOsm/kg, and urine specific gravity is 1.004 (normal: 1.012 to 1.030).

A

Diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What causes diabetes insipidus

A

deficiency of or resistance to vasopressin (ADH), which decreases the kidneys’ ability to reabsorb water, resulting in massive polyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

2 types of diabetes insipidus

A

Central → no ADH PRODUCTION

Nephrogenic → ADH produced, but kidney doesnt RECOGNIZE it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

MCC for central diabetes insipidus

A
  • No ADH production most common type: idiopathic, autoimmune destruction of posterior pituitary from head trauma, brain tumor, infection, or sarcoidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MCC for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A
  • Partial or complete insensitivity to ADH: caused by drugs (Lithium, Amphoterrible), hypercalcemia and hypokalemia affect the kidney’s ability to concentrate urine, acute tubular necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Dx of diabetes inspidius

A

Serum osmolality (concentration) is high (unable to stop the secretion of water into the kidneys so blood becomes more concentrated) and urine osmolality is low because it is so dilute

  • Water deprivation test – simplest/most reliable method - continued production of dilute urine despite water deprivation
  • Desmopressin stimulation test:
    • Central: reduction in urine output indicating a response to ADH
    • Nephrogenic: continued production of dilute urine (no response to ADH) because kidneys can’t respond
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tx of diabetes inspidius

A
  • Central = desmopressin/DDAVP
  • Nephrogenic = sodium and protein restriction, HCTZ, indomethacin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

11-y/o girl brought to you by her mother who reports weight loss along with increased thirst and urination. The patient has felt tired and nauseous. On examination her weight is below the 5th percentile, she looks thin, and her skin is pale. her blood pressure is 100/70 and her pulse is 104 bpm. Her respirations are deep at a rate of 28 breaths/minute. Her breath smells fruity.

A

DM type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Etiology of DM type I

A

Autoimmune- HLA-DR3/4/O antibodies. Islet cell antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sx of DM I

A
  • Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, fatigue, and weight loss
  • Often first recognized as diabetic ketoacidosis:
    • Symptoms: Fruity breath, nausea, vomiting, dehydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tx of DM type I

A

Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the Dawn phenomenon

A

Normal glucose until 2-8 am when it rises. Results from decreased insulin sensitivity and a nightly surge of counter-regulatory hormones during nighttime fasting

  • Treat with bedtime injection of NPH to blunt morning hyperglycemia, avoiding carbohydrate snack late at night
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the somogyi effect

A

Nocturnal hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia due to a surge in growth hormone

  • Treat with decreased nighttime NPH dose or give bedtime snack
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

DKA tx

A
  • Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) should always be handled in a hospitalized setting, usually an intensive care unit, and often with an endocrinologist’s consultation, if appropriate.
  • TREAT WITH FLUIDS! Patients with DKA are always dehydrated and need large-volume IV fluid resuscitation, usually isotonic fluids such as normal saline. If the corrected serum sodium level is high, this can be reduced to half-normal saline. Insulin should always be administered by an IV pump to guard against accidental overdose.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dx of DM

A
  • Random blood glucose level of > 200 mg/dL + diabetic symptoms
  • 2 separate fasting (8 hours) glucose levels of > 126 mg/dL
  • 2-hour plasma glucose of > 200 on an oral glucose tolerance test (3-hour GTT is the gold standard in GDM)
  • Hemoglobin A1c of > 6.5%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How often should A1c be checked

A

Hemoglobin A1c

  • Represents mean glucose level from the previous 8-12 weeks (approx lifespan of an RBC)
  • Useful to gauge the “big-picture” overall efficacy of glucose control in patients (either Type 1 or Type 2) to assess the need for changes in medication/insulin levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the tx goal of A1c

A
  • Treatment goal of A1c < 7.0%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Tx goal of DM with finger stick glucose monitoring

A
  • seful for insulin-dependent (either type 1 or 2) diabetics to monitor their glucose control and adjust insulin doses according to variations in diet or activity
  • Treatment goals: < 130 mg/dL fasting and < 180 mg/dL peak postprandial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dx of DM type II

A

random glucose > 200 x two

fasting glucose > 126 x two

A1c of > 6.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

MC Tx of DM

A

MC = Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and peripheral glucose utilization, decreases intestinal glucose absorption (these are reasons it leads to weight loss)

  • Side effects: Lactic acidosis, GI side effects, initiation is contraindicated with eGFR <30 mL/min and not recommended with eGFR 30 to 45 mL/min, discontinue 24 hours before contrast and resume 48 hours after with monitoring for creatinine, stop if creatinine is > 1.5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Dx criteria for prediabetes

A
  • A1C 5.7 - 6.4
  • Fasting glucose 100 - 125
  • 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test 140-199
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the glucose goals and mgmt of DM

A
  • A1C < 7.0 % check every 3 months if not controlled and 2x per year if controlled
  • Preprandial glucose 80-130 mg/dL (60-90 if pregnant)
  • Peak postprandial (1 to 2 hours after beginning of the meal) blood glucose < 180 mg/dL
  • Annual dilated eye exams, ACEI if microalbuminuria, annual foot examination
  • Blood pressure
    • ACC/AHA blood pressure targets - the target for patients with comorbidities is < 130/80
    • JNC 8 treatment targets: Reduce BP to < 140/90 mm Hg for everyone < 60 including those with a kidney disorder or diabetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Bone remodeling disorder that results in formation of unorganized mosaic of woven lamellar bone that is less compact and weaker than normal bone

A

Pagets disease of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What areas does pagets dz of bone MC affect

A

Pelvis, skull, spine, and legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

RF of pagets dz of bone

A

Family history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Sx of Pagets dz of bone

A

Symptomless for long periods of time; When symptoms occur its bone deformities, broken bones, pain in affected area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Dx of Pagets dz of the bone

A

Xray → Lytic lesions and thickened bone cortices; Bone bx may be done to r/o malig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are common lab findings in pagets dz of bone

A

Increase alk phose and osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Tx of Pagets dz of bone

A

Bisphosphonates and calcitonin; Surgery may correct bone deformities, decompress impinged nerves, reduce fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Catecholamine secreting adrenal tumor

A

Pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Sx of pheochromocytomas

A

Associated with neurfibromatosis type 1 and Von Hippel-lindau dz

5 Ps → pressure, pain (HA), perspiration, palpitations, palllor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Dx of pheochromocytoma

A

24hr catecholamines including metabolites

MRI or CT of abd to visualize tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Tx of pheochromocytoma

A

Tx w/ complete adrenalectomy; Preop tx with nonselective a blockade (phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine followed by bblockers to control HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

MC type of noncancerous tumor in the pituitary gland

A

Pituitary microadenomas ; less than 1cm in diameter

Macroadenomas are larger than 10mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Sx of pituitary adenoma

A

Diminished temporal vision, or bitemporal hemianopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Prolactinoma sx

A

Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, HA;

Location of mass at sella turcica → Mass presses on optic chiasm affecting visition loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Corticotroph adenoma secretes

A

ATCH → Overproduction = Cushings syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Study of choice to look for sellar lesions/tumors

A

MRi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Tx of pituitary tumors

A

Dopamine agonists → Cabergoline, bromocriptine

Ultimate tx = Transsphenoidal resection of pituitary tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

MC risk of thyroid cancer

A

Radiation exposure; MC female 40-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Sx of thyroid cancer

A

Hoarse voice; solitary cold nodule on thyroid uptake scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Thyroid cancer MC type

A

Papillary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Dx of thyroid cancer

A

US → All lesions>1cm should be biopsied

Smaller lesions can be reevaluated if continues to gro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

High risk of malignancy for thyroid cancer found on US

A

Microcalcifications, solid cold nodule, irregular nodule margins, nodule that is taller than it is wide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

To evaluate thyroid malignany, what dx study is done

A

Thyroid uptake scan; Cancerous does not take up iodine (cold nodule)

Noncancerous will take up iodine (hot nodule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

If a cold nodule is found what add’l workup is needed

A

Fine needle aspiration

69
Q

Tx of thyroid cancer

A

Depends on staging (99% 5-yr survival with local confined, 1cm papillary carcinoma)

70
Q

Hemifacial weakness/paralysis of muscles innervated by CN VII d//t swelling of cranial nerve

A

Bells palsy

71
Q

MCC of Bells palsy

A

Unknown; Viral etiology (herpes simplex) and ischemic factors implicated

72
Q

How does a pt present differently in Bells palsy than in a stroke

A

Stroke pts are able to wrinkle forehead

Bells palsy they can not → facial weakness/paralysis wont allow it

73
Q

What type of dx could be considered in a pt with Bells Palsy

A

EMG testing of nerve if paresis fails to resolve within 10 days

74
Q

Weak bulging spot on the wall of brain artery; Usually genetic predisposition

A

Cerebral aneurysm

75
Q

Sx of cerebral aneurysm

A

Usually asymptomatic unless ruptured; When ruptured → Sudden, severe HA

76
Q

MC type of cerebral aneurysm

A

Saccular (Berry) aneurysm

77
Q

RF of cerebral aneurysm

A

Smoking, htn, hypercholest, heavy alcohol; Polycystic kidney and coarctation of aorta

78
Q

Sx of cerebral aneurysm

A

Sudden onset unusually severe worst headache of your life; N/V, seizure, AMS, increased BP, fever 102

79
Q

Dx of cerebral aneurysm

A

Found incidentally in pts presenting with subarachnoid hemorrhage

NONCONTRAST CT

80
Q

Tx of cerebral aneurysm

A

Surgical clipping

81
Q

Two main types of cerebral vascular accident (CVA)

A

Ischemic stroke → Caused by blockage

Hemorrhagic stroke → Rupture of blood vessel

82
Q

Sx of cerebral vascular accident

A

Acute onset of focal neurologic deficits resulting from either ischemia or hemorrhagic

Contralateral paralysis: Right sided symptoms d/t left sided stroke; Left sided from right sided stroke

Carotid/Opthalmic = Amarouis fugax

MCA - Aphasia, neglect, hemiparesis

ACA - Leg paresis, hemiplegia, urinary incontienenec

83
Q

Dx of CVA

A

CT WITHOUT CONTRAST

84
Q

Tx of CVA

A

IV tPA withing 3-4.5hrs of symptom onset

Endarterectomy if carotid >70% occluded

85
Q

Unilateral excruciating sharp, searing, or piercing pain often at night, lacrimation, and nasal congestion

A

Cluster HA

86
Q

Tx of cluster HA

A

100% oxygen at 6-12L/min for 15 min via nonrebreather mask

87
Q

GCS for eye opening

A

1-4

1 → None

2→ To pain

3→ To voice

4 → Spontaneous

88
Q

GCS for verbal respomse

A

1-5

1→ None

2→ No words, only sounds

3→ words, but not coherent

4 → Disoriented conversation

5 → Normal conversation

89
Q

GCS for motor response

A

1-6

1 → None

2 → Decerebrate

3 → Decorticate posture

4 → Withdraws to pain

5 → localizes to pain

6 → Normal

90
Q

What GCS is classified as a coma

A

<9 = Coma

91
Q

Idiopathic pain syndrome disproportionate to injury

A

Complex regional pain syndrome

92
Q

Sx of complex regional pain syndrome

A

Non-dermatomal limb pain; Folllowing injury, trauma

93
Q

Dx of complex regional pain syndrome

A

Budapest consensus criteria

94
Q

Tx of complex regional pain syndrome

A

Neurontin, elavil, bisphosphonates

95
Q

Concussion or mild traumatic brain injury GCS score

A

13-15 GCS; Consciousness loss <30 min

96
Q

How is delirium differentiated from dementia

A

Delirium → Acute REVERSIBLE syndrome caused by medical condition

Dementia → Neurocognitive disorder with long-term impaired memory disease, IRREVERSIBLE such as Alzheimers dz

97
Q

Bet-amyloid plaques + neurofibrilly tangles

A

Associated with Alzheimer

98
Q

Tx of Alzheimer

A

Anticholinesterase drugs (Tacrine, Donpezil)

99
Q

What are common sx of frontotemporal lobar degeneration

A

Personality changes, language difficulties, behavioral disturbances

100
Q

Lewy Body Disease is associated with

A

Parkinsonian symptoms; hallucinations and delusions; Gait difficulties and falls

101
Q

Acute inflammation of the brain; Infection may be bacterial or viral

A

Encephalitis

102
Q

Etiology of encephalitits

A

Usually viral; MC = HSV; Immunocompromised = CMV

103
Q

Sx of encephalitis

A

Fever, HA, AMS, seizures, personality changes

104
Q

Differentiated meningitis from encephalits

A

Encephalitis → Altered mental status, seizures, personality changes

105
Q

Dx of Encephalitis

A

Lumbar puncutre and MRI; PCR for viruses

106
Q

Tx of encephalitis

A

Treat supportively; Acyclovir until HSV and Zoster are r/o

107
Q

First line tx for essential tremor

A

Bblocker → Propanolol reduces limb tremors

108
Q

Guillan-Barre sx

A

Ascending paralysis beginning in distal limbs; leg weakness → Total paralysis of all 4 limbs, facial muscles, eyes, loss of reflexes

109
Q

When does Guillan Barre often present

A

After vaccination; Post infectious cause = campylobacter jejuni (MC)

CMV, Epstein barr, HIV

110
Q

Dx of Guillan Barre

A

Lumbar puncture → Elevated CSF protein w/ normal CSF WBC

111
Q

Tx of Guillan Barre

A

Plasma exchange (remove circulating antibodies) and IVIG

112
Q

Most glial tumors are malignant, what are the 3 main types

A

Astrocytoma

Ependymoma

Medulloblastoma → MC primary malignant in children

113
Q

Dx of intracranial tumors

A

Head CT or MRI with contrast

Arteriography → Stretching or displacement of cerebral vessles

EEG → Focal disturbances resulting from neoplasms

114
Q

Classic triad of meningitis

A

HA, fever, stiff neck (nuchal rigidity)

115
Q

MCC of meningitis

A

Viral infection

116
Q

Difference in encephalitis and meningitis

A

No mental status changes in Meningitis

117
Q

MCC of meningitis + rash

A

N. meningitidis → Petechiae

118
Q

PE findings associated with meningitis

A

Kernig sign + Brudzinski sign

119
Q

MC bugs in meningitis

A

S. pneumoniae, N. Meningiditis

Immunocompromised = Cyptococcccus

120
Q

Viral etiology of meningitis

A

Most cases in US = Enterovirus

Other virsuses = Herpes, HIV, mumps, west nile

121
Q

Fungal etiology in meningitis

A

Cryptococcal in immunesupressed

122
Q

Dx of meningitis

A

Spinal tap, evaluating CSF

123
Q

Bacterial vs viral CSF findings in meningitis

A

Bacterial - Increase protein and decreased glucose (protein love to eat glucose)

Viral - No specifics, increase lymphocytes

124
Q

Tx of meningitis

A

Dexamethasone + empiric IV abx (cephalosporins, vanco, PCN)

125
Q

If household members have been in contact with meningitis pts what is the tx

A

Rifampin, Cipro, Levaquin, azithro, ceftriaxone

126
Q

Immune system disease that eats away at protective covering of nerves (myelin)

A

Multiple sclerosis

127
Q

Sx of MS

A

Visual disturbances over many years; sensory loss, optic neuritis, weakness, paraesthesias

128
Q

Lhermittes sign in MS

A

Electrical shock sensation in limbs/torso brought on by flexion of the neck

129
Q

MC of MS

A

Relapsing/remitting - symptoms come and go - episodic flare ups occruing over days to weeks between periods of normalcy

130
Q

Dx of MS

A

MRI → Looking for plaques (Dawson fingers aka white matter lesions)

131
Q

Dx criteria of MS

A

Two episodes/attacks of sx

Two different areas of the CNS involved

CSF → IgG, oligoclonal bands

132
Q

Tx of MS

A

Steroids → Acute attacks

Interferon Betas Avonex → Prevent relapses

133
Q

Autoimmune attack of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction that results in motor problems

A

Myasthenia gravis

134
Q

Sx of Myasthenia Gravis

A

Eye symptoms → Ptosis, diplopia

Muscle weakness → Worsens with use; Weakness in everday activities like brushing hair

135
Q

Myasthenia gravis tx

A

Acetylcholine receptor antibodies

136
Q

Simplest most diagnostic tool for myasthenia gravis

A

Simplest = Tensilon test

Acteylcholine receptor antibodies

Gold standard for diagnosis = Single-fiber electromyography (SMEG)

137
Q

Tx of myasthenia gravis

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibtors (pyridostigmine/neostigmine)

Immunesuppression → Prednisone → decreases production of autoantibodies

138
Q

Degeneration of basal ganglia in substantia nigra leading to loss of dopamine containing neurons

A

Parkinsons disease

139
Q

3 cardinal sx of Parkinsons

A

Rest (pill rolling) tremor

Cogwheel rigidity

Bradykinesia (slowness of movements)

140
Q

Dx of Parkinsons

A

Clinical impression

Gold standard = Neurologic exam

MRI → may help in evaluating cerebrovascular dz, tumor, etc

141
Q

Tx of Parkinsons

A

<65 - Dopamine agonists → Bromocriptine, Pramipexole, Ropinirole

>65 Sinemet aka Levodopa/Carbidopa (S/e → GI upset, N/V vivid dreams, nightmares, psychosis, diskinesias)

142
Q

Peripheral neuropathy sx

A

Symmetrical, stocking and glove distribution ; Postural hypotension

143
Q

Tx of peripheral neuropathies

A

Gabapentin; TCA → Amitriptyline; Topiramate, tramadol, NSAIDS

Complications → Charcots joints

144
Q

Status epilepticus sx

A

Single epileptic seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or 2 or more seizures within a 5 minute period without returning normal in between them

145
Q

Tx of status epilepticus

A

Benzos → Initial tx

Phenytoin is given after benzos

146
Q

Transient episode of neurlogic dysfunction d/t focal brain, retinal or spinal cord ischemia WITHOUT acute infarction

A

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

147
Q

Sx of internal carotid artery TIA

A

Amaurosis Fugax → Monocular vision loss aka lampshage down on one eye; weakness in contralateral hand

148
Q

Dx of TIA

A

CT wihout contrast

Carotid Dopple US to look for stenosis

149
Q

Tx of TIA

A

Aspirin or Clopidogrel aka Antiplts within 24hrs

Hospital admission for new onset and recurrent

150
Q

Hyponatremia / Hypervolemia

A
  • High risk is ETOH, malnourished
  • Hypervolemic hyponatremia – CHF, nephrotic syndrome, renal failure, cirrhosis
  • Euvolemic hyponatremiaSIADH, steroids, hypothyroid
  • Hypovolemic hyponatremia – sodium loss (renal, non-renal)
151
Q

Hyponatremia Sx

A
  • Acute can cause coma, brainstem herniation, seizures
  • death not seen in chronic hyponatremia
  • chronic hyponatremia can have motor and gate problems which makes them at increased risk of falls
  • Correcting chronic low sodium can lead to osmotic demyelination syndrome
  • simultaneous low K+, sodium<105
152
Q

Causes for hypernatremia

A

Definition: serum sodium of > 145 mmol/L

Etiology: Diarrhea, burns, diuretics, hyperglycemia, diabetes insipidus, a deficit of thirst

153
Q

Hypernatremia sx

A

Poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, flat neck veins, hypotension, increased BUN/CR ratio > 20:1

154
Q

Hyperkalemia causes

A

Presentation: Peaked T waves prolonged QRS, muscle fatigue

155
Q

Hypokalemia causes

A
  • Overuse of diuretics
  • Cushing’s syndrome
156
Q

Sx of hypokalemia

A

Presentation: Muscle cramps, constipation, flattened/inverted T waves, U waves

157
Q

MCC of hypocalcemia

A

Hypoparathyroid

158
Q

Causes of hypocalcemia

A
  • The most common cause is hypoparathyroidism
  • Other causes
    • Thyroid surgery (injuring the parathyroid gland)
    • Renal disease
159
Q

ECG findings of Hypocalcemia

A

Presentation: QT prolongation, Trousseau’s sign, Chvostek’s sign

  • Labs: ↓ Ca+ ↓ PTH ↑ phosphate
  • EKG = Prolonged QT
160
Q

MCC of Hypercalcemia

161
Q

Hypercalcemia sx

A

Presentation: “Stones, bones, abdominal groans, psychiatric moans”, EKG: shortened QT interval.

162
Q

Hyperphosphatemia causes

A

Definition: serum phosphate > 4.5 mg/dL

Etiology: Chronic kidney disease

163
Q

Insulin secretagogues (aka sulfonylureas and meglitinides) - MOA and ADEs

A

Increase insulin secretion by inhibiting b-cell K-ATP channels

ADE: Hypoglycemia + Weight gain

164
Q

Biguanides aka Metformin - MOA + ADE

A

MOA = Stimulate AMPK and inhibit mitochondrial gluconeogenesis + Decreasing hepatic glucose production + increasing peripheral glucose uptake

ADE= Diarrhea + lactic acidosis

165
Q

TZDs (Pioglitazone) MOA + ADE

A

Activate transcription regulator PPAR-y → Decrease insulin resistance

ADE= Fluid retention/heart failure + weight gain aka EDEMA + Weight gain

166
Q

GLP-1 Agonists (exenatide + liraglutide) MOA + ADE

A

Increase glucose dependent insulin secretion, decrease glucagon secretion, delayed gastric emptying

ADE = Pancreatitis + weight loss

167
Q

DPP4 Inhibitors (Sitagliptin + Saxagliptlin) MOA + ADE

A

MOA = Increase endogenous GLP-1 & GIP levels

ADE= Nasopharyngitis

168
Q

SLGT2 Inhibitors (Canagliflozin +Dapagliflozin) MOA + ADE

A

MOA = Increase renal glucose excretion

ADE= UTI (increase in peeing sugar = increase in candida) + Hypotension