Internal Med CBD Study (PE Case) Flashcards

1
Q

How does malignancy increase the risk of PE?

A

Acquired hypercoagulable state

  • Tumours may release prothrombotic molecules
  • Tumours may produce proteases that activate factor X
  • Tumours may produce cytokines, TNF etc which act on endothelial cells to stimulate prothrombotic molecules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two pathophysiological pathways involved in colorectal cancer and what do they produce?

A
  1. Adenoma-Carcinoma Sequence/ Chromosomal Instability sequence
    - somatic copy number mutations
    - 5q21 –> KRAS + TP53 –> carcinoma
  2. Sessile Serrated Pathway/Microsatellite instability pathway
    - mutations in DNA mismatch repair –> high mutation rate
    - MSH2 and MLH1 –> BRAF –> carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does Lynch syndrome and FAP predispose you to?

A

FAP: 100% chance of colorectal cancer by 40, Adenoma-carcinoma pathway, prophylactic colectomy by 25

Lynch: colonoscopy every year, Microsatellite pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the symptoms of parkinsons?

A

TRAP:
Tremor
Rigidity: cogwheel rigidity
Akinesa/bradykinesia
Postural instability

SMART:
Shuffling gait
Mask-like facies
Akinesia/bradykinesia
Rigidity
Tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Parkinson’s?

A

Neurodegenerative disorder

Loss of dopaminergic output from the basal ganglia due to the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra
Might be due to mis-folding on alpha synuclein –> protein aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you diagnose Parkinson’s?

A

Clinically with a dopaminergic agent trial

Levodopa, MAO-B inhibitors, amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the aetiology of aortic stenosis?

A
  • Mostly from fibrosis and calcification of the valve
  • Congenitally bicuspid
  • Rheumatoid heart disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does aortic stenosis present?

A

TRIAD

Exertional angina
Dyspnoea
Syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does an aortic stenosis murmur sound like?

A

ESM over the aortic auscultation area, loudest mid-systole
Radiates to the carotids
Loudest over the right sternal border
Sometimes there will be a soft P2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you manage aortic stenosis?

A

Valve replacement
Warfarin
Statins and anti-hypertensives
Antibiotic prophylaxis when needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the complications of aortic stenosis?

A

Acute HF
ACS
Thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is rivaroxaban?

A

NOAC/DOAC

Selective Xa inhibitor. Inhibits free and bound Xa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is levodopa?

A

Precursor to dopamine, can cross the BBB whereas dopamine cant.

Bradykinesia and rigidity are the most responsive symptoms.

SEs:
- Hair loss
- Narcolepsy
- Nausea
- Arrhythmias
- HTN
- GIT bleeding
- End of dose deterioration
- Drug resistance in parkinsons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is denosumab?

A

RANK-L inhibitor (pre-osteoclasts have a RANK-L receptor) –> prevents the development of pre-osteoclasts into osteoclasts

SEs:
- Joint and muscle pain
- Osteonecrosis of the jaw
- Hypocalcaemia
- HYpersensitivity reactions
- Greater risk of infections

Contraindicated: hypocalcaemia, check Vit D and Ca before commencing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is frusemide?

A

Loop diuretic.

Inhibits the NaKCl channel in the thick ascending LOH. Sodium, chloride and potassium stay in the urine so water is drawn in at the DCT. Potassium wasting diuretic

SEs:
- Hypokalaemia
- Hyponatremia
- Hypochloremia
- Ototoxic
- Can increase free thyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is venlafaxine?

A

SNRI: blocks serotonin and noradrenal reuptake. Also increases prefrontal DA

SEs:
- GI
- Sexual dysfunction
- Headache

17
Q

What are the tumour markers for colorectal cancer?

A

CEA and CA19-9

18
Q

CTPA vs V/Q Scan

A

CTPA is more sensitive and specific BUT can’t do in renal disease because of contrast nephropathy or young people because of radiation dose

Consensus:
CXR is clear but you’re still concerned for PE, you can do a V/Q scan
CXR has signs of pneumonia, pleural effusion etc, do a CTPA. More sensitive and specific so better when considering PE mimics

19
Q

What are NOACS?

A

Non-vitamin K oral anti-coagulants

  • Don’t need regular monitory
  • Apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, dabigatran
20
Q

What is dabigatran?

A

Selective thrombin antagonist

21
Q

What are Xa Inhibitors?

A

Rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban are all direct and selective Xa inhibitors
- Less conversation of prothrombin to thrombin
- Easily manageable, don’t need regular monitory
- Prolong PT and PTT

22
Q

What is UFH?

A

MOA: increases the activity of anti-thrombin
- Indirectly inhibits Xa and thrombin
- Short half life, need to monitor the aPTT
- Cleared hepatically

23
Q

What is LMWH?

A

MOA: binds anti-thrombin III –> indirectly inhibits Xa
- Renally cleared

24
Q

What is the prothrombin G20210A mutation?

A

Increased prothrombin/factor II so you clot more

25
Q

What is the factor V leiden mutation?

A

Mutated factor V is resistant to protein C so it is harder to inactivate

26
Q

Protein C and protein S deficiency:

A

Protein C can’t inactivate factor V and VIII. Protein S is the vitamin-k dependent co-factor of protein C

27
Q

What is the antithrombin III deficiency?

A

Can’t inhibit the proteases: II, IX, X and XI

28
Q

What are antiphospholipid antibodies?

A

Associated with autoimmune diseases and increase clotting (e.g. SLE)