Internal med Flashcards

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0
Q

Thin basement membrane disease

A
  • familial disorder
  • presents in adulthood as microscopic hematuria without proteinuria
  • thinned BM
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1
Q

Alport’s syndrome

A
  • familial disorder which usually presents in childhood as recurrent gross hematuria and proteinuria
  • sensorineural deafness usually occurs!
  • EM findings include alternating areas of thinned and thickened capillary loops w/ splitting of the GBM
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2
Q

Recurrent episodes of hematuria, sensorineural deafness, and a family hx of renal failure

A

Alport’s syndrome

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3
Q

Hydroxyurea

A

-decreases the frequency and severity of pain crises in pts w/ sickle cell anemia by increasing hemoglobin F levels

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4
Q

tx of choice for pts w/ autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A

prednisone

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5
Q

Erythropoietin

A

-tx of choice for anemia of chronic disease, chronic kidney disease, and transient bone marrow failure after chemo or bone marrow transplant

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6
Q

splenectomy

A
  • tx of choice for moderate, symptomatic, hereditary spherocytosis.
  • also a tx option in autoimmune hemolytic anemia and for those w/ massive splenomegaly associated w/ B-thalassemia major or hemoglobin H disease
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7
Q

B-thalassemia minor (trait)

A
  • usually asymptomatic w/ mild anemia, disproportionately high RBC count, low MCV, and hemoglobin >10 g/dL.
  • commonly confused w/ iron deficiency anemia, however, iron deficiency has low RBC count and rarely becomes microcytic until the hemoglobin is <10g/dL.
  • no specific therapy is required for B-thalassemia minor
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8
Q

P. jiroveci

A
  • opportunistic pathogen, and an important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised hosts
  • bilateral diffuse interstitial infiltrates beginning in the perihilar region is characteristic finding on chest x-ray
  • tachypnea, tachycardia, cyanosis w/ minimal chest findings
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9
Q

Aspergillosis

A
  • seen in immunocompromised pts.

- chest x-ray shows solid mass surrounded by a radiolucent crescent (crescent sign, Monod’s sign)

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10
Q

True or False: candida is an extremely rare organism to cause pneumonia in any patient.

A

True

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11
Q

Ménière’s disease

A
  • typically presents w/ a combination of vertigo, ear fullness, tinnitus, and hearing loss
  • first line therapy consists of environmental and dietary modifications, including maintenance of a low-salt diet
  • other triggers include alcohol, caffeine, and nicotine
  • medical therapy w/ diuretics, antihistamines, or anticholinergics may be tried
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12
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis

A
  • type 1 diabetics
  • younger age
  • less pronounced altered mentation compared to HHS
  • more rapid onset of hyperglycemic symptoms
  • hyperventilation and abdominal pain common
  • glucose 250-500 mg/dL
  • bicarb <320 mOsm/kg
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13
Q

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state

A
  • type 2 DM
  • older age
  • more pronounced altered mentation (compared to diabetic ketoacidosis)
  • gradual onset of hyperglycemic symptoms
  • hyperventilation and abdominal pain less common
  • glucose >600
  • bicarb >18
  • normal anion gap
  • negative or small serum ketones
  • serum osmolality >320
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14
Q

an increase in extracellular pH (alkalemia) promotes the binding of calcium to albumin and lowers serum ionized calcium concentration

A

.

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15
Q

hyperglycemia and glucosuria-induced osmotic diuresis cause free water loss that exceeds sodium loss

A

.

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16
Q

Despite normal or elevated serum potassium levels, pts w/ hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) or diabetic ketoacidosis have a total body potassium deficit due to excessive urinary loss caused by glucosuria-induced osmotic diuresis. Aggressive insulin therapy for HHS can lower serum potassium levels further and cause severe hypokalemia!

A

.

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17
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)

A
  • typically presents w/ fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic instability and mental status change. Serum CK is often elevated.
  • Dantrolene, a muscle relaxant, is the most common drug used to reverse the condition, followed by bromocriptine (a dopamine agonist) and amantadine (an antiviral drug w/ dopaminergic properties)
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18
Q

Premature Ventricular Complexes (PVCs)

A
  • common in pts post-MI and can be recognized by their widened QRS (>120msec), bizarre morphology, and compensatory pause.
  • even though they may indicate a worse prognosis, tx is not indicated unless the patient is symptomatic (beta-blockers are first line therapy for symptomatic pts)
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19
Q

Amiodarone

A

-second line therapy for symptomatic PVCs

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20
Q

Digoxin

A

-can be used to treat atrial arrhythmias like atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation. It has no role in the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias!

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21
Q

Brain death

A
  • clinical diagnosis
  • characteristic findings are absent cortical and brain stem functions
  • the spinal cord may still be functioning; therefore, deep tendon reflexes may be present
  • an isoelectric EEG can be used as a confirmatory test, but is not absolutely necessary
  • note that the heart rate fails to accelerate after atropine injection because vagal control of the heart is lost, and the heart rate becomes invariant
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22
Q

Timolol

A

eye drops used to treat glaucoma

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23
Q

Mannitol

A
  • osomotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure associated w/ cerebral edema
  • its an IV infusion and requires careful monitoring of renal function and electrolytes
  • used in inpatient setting for severely elevated intracranial pressure (obtunded pts)
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24
Q

what is the first line medical tx for idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A
  • Acetazolamide (inhibits choroid plexus carbonic anhydrase, thereby decreasing CSF production and intracranial hypertension) w/ or w/o furosemide
  • optic nerve sheath decompression or lumboperitoneal shunting is recommended for pts refractory to medical therapy
  • corticosteroids and serial lumbar punctures are not recommended as long-term primary tx, however, they may be used as bridging therapies for pts awaiting definitive surgical tx
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25
Q

Lumbago

A
  • “Lumbosacral strain”
  • usually related to physical strain and has less dramatic onset
  • usually paravertebral muscle tenderness rather than spinal tenderness is the feature
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26
Q

common complication of advanced osteoporosis

A
  • compression fracture of vertebrae
  • usually manifests as acute back pain w/o an obvious preceding trauma in a predisposed patient. Neuro exam will be normal
  • NOTE: absent ankle reflex can be seen in elderly pts as part of the normal aging process
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27
Q

Note that serum creatinine does not usually become elevated in obstructive uropathy unless both ureters are obstructed

A

.

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28
Q

Renal vein thrombosis

A

-usually occurs in pts w/ a predisposing condition such as hypercoagulabilit

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29
Q

Serum creatinine usually does not become elevated in obstructive uropathy unless both ureters are obstructed.

A

.

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30
Q

Hepatorenal syndrome

A
  • can occur in pts w/ severe liver disease; they develop systemic hypoperfusion and subsequent renal failure
  • the diagnosis is suggested by an elevated creatinine and a very low urine sodium level, typically less than 10 mEq/L
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31
Q

how do pts w/ cerebellar hemorrhage present?

A
  • ataxia, vomiting, occipital headache, gaze palsy, and facial weakness
  • there is no hemiparesis
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32
Q

Lichen planus

A

-inflammatory condition characterized by pruritic, violaceous, flat-topped papules w/ fine white streaks on the surface called Wickham’s striae

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33
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis

A
  • pruritis, papules, and vesicles mainly over the elbows, knees, buttocks, posterior neck, and scalp.
  • associated w/ HLA B8, DR3, and DQw2, and is see in pts w/ gluten-sensitive enteropathy
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34
Q

Miliaria

A
  • heat rash
  • superficial aggregated small vesicles, papules, or pustules over the trunk, which are associated w/ burning and itching
  • commonly seen in people living in hot and moist climates
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35
Q

Molluscum contagiousum

A
  • single or multiple rounded, dome-shaped papules w/ central umbilication
  • causative agent is poxvirus
  • usually self- limited and resolves spontaneously in immunocompetent individuals
  • genital lesions should be treated to prevent sexual transmission
  • best form of tx is curettage or application of liquid nitrogen
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36
Q

what happens to the murmur intensity in a person w/ hypertrophic cardiomyopathy who stands up from a supine position?

A

-decreased venous return causes increased intensity of ejection systolic murmur

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37
Q

Paradoxical splitting of second heart sound

A
  • normal splitting is best heard during INSPIRATION. In paradoxical splitting, A2 follows P2 w/ maximal splitting noted during EXPIRATION and being less pronounced during inspiration.
  • seen in pts w/ fixed left ventricular outflow tract obstruction (ie. aortic valve or subaortic stenosis, Left BBB, right ventricle paced rhythm)
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38
Q

Dressler’s syndrome

A
  • present WEEKS after an MI w/ chest pain that is improved by leaning forward
  • diffuse ST elevation w/ the exception of reciprocal depression in aVR due to pericarditis
  • NSAIDs are the tx of choice
  • anticoagulation should be avoided to prevent development of a hemorrhagic pericardial effusion
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39
Q

Essential tremor

A
  • bilateral action tremor of the hands, usually w/o leg involvement
  • possible isolated head tremor w/o dystonia
  • usually no other neurologic signs
  • relieved w/ alcohol in many cases
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40
Q

Parkinson’s disease tremor

A
  • resting tremor (4-6Hz) that decreases w/ voluntary movement
  • usually involves legs and hands
  • facial involvement less common
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41
Q

Cerebellar tremor

A
  • usually associated w/ ataxia, dysmetria, or gait disorder

- tremor increases steadily as the hand reaches its target

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42
Q

Physiologic tremor

A
  • low amplitude not visible under normal conditions
  • acute onset w/ increased sympathetic activity (drugs, hyperthyroidism, anxiety, caffeine)
  • usually worse w/ movement and can involve the face and extremities
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43
Q

Parkinson’s disease triad

A
  • resting tremor
  • rigidity
  • postural instability
  • bradykinesia
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44
Q

Resting tremor

A
  • often the presenting symptom of Parkinson’s disease
  • usually a “pill-rolling” tremor that starts in one hand and can progress to involve other extremities, jaw, face, tongue, and lips.
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45
Q

Cerebellar dysfunction

A

-can cause postural, action, or intention (worsens as the hand moves closer to its target) tremors. The tremors have a lower frequency. Although severe cerebellar dysfunction can cause resting tremor, pts usually develop other signs (nystagmus, ataxia, dysmetria)

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46
Q

the most common tremor

A
  • essential tremor
  • familial in 50% of cases and affects 5% of the population
  • typically present as action/postural tremors in upper extremities that worsen at the end of goal-directed activities
  • usually affect bilateral upper extremities but can also involve the head, chin, voice, and trunk
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47
Q

Pneumocystis pneumonia

A
  • more common in HIV pts w/ CD4 < 200
  • typically present w/ subacute respiratory symptoms w/ diffuse infiltrates on chest x-ray and an increased alveolar-arterial gradient
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48
Q

Isoniazid causes idiosyncratic liver injury w/ histological features similar to those seen in pts w/ viral hepatitis.

A

.

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49
Q

acute asthma exacerbation

A

-an elevated or even normal arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide suggests decreased respiratory drive (likely due to respiratory muscle fatigue) and impending respiratory failure. In these pts, tx involves endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation, inhaled short-acting beta-2-agonist, inhaled ipratropium, and systemic corticosteroids.

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50
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • second most common form of non-melanoma skin cancer (after basal cell)
  • single most important risk factor is exposure to sunlight
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51
Q

Ehrlichiosis

A

-should be suspected in a patient from an endemic region w/ a history of tick bite, febrile illness w/ systemic symptoms, leukopenia and/or thrombocytopenia, and elevated aminotransferases. Rash is uncommon, and the drug of choice is DOXYCYCLINE

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52
Q

drug of choice to treat Lyme disease

A

Ceftriaxone

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53
Q

Peritonsillar abscess

A
  • a muffled voice should make one consider a diagnosis other than uncomplicated pharyngitis or tonsillitis
  • a peritonsillar abscess is a potential complication of tonsillitis and requires both IV antibiotic therapy and urgent drainage of the abscess
  • deviated of the uvula and unilateral lymphadenopathy can be helpful in distinguishing a peritonsillar abscess from epiglottitis
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54
Q

Primary hypothyroidism

A

-characterized by low circulating levels of thyroid hormones w/ TSH levels of more than 10 IU/L

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55
Q

Secondary and tertiary hypothyroidism

A

-characterized by low circulating thyroid hormone levels w/ low or inappropriately normal TSH levels

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56
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism

A
  • mildly elevated serum TSH levels and normal circulating thyroid hormone levels
  • pts do not have clinical features of overt hypothyroidism
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57
Q

Pts w/ generalized resistance to thyroid hormones

A
  • have high serum T4 and T3 levels w/ normal to mildly elevated TSH levels
  • pts typically have features of hypothyroidism despite having elevated free thyroid hormones
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58
Q

Pts w/ upper GI bleeding who have a depressed level of consciousness and ongoing hematemesis should be intubated to protect the airway as a part of initial stabilization and resuscitation. Prompt endoscopic tx w/ band ligation or sclerotherapy should then be performed to stop the bleeding.

A

.

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59
Q

most common form of skin cancer in the US?

A

basal cell carcinoma (75%)

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60
Q

Mohs surgery

A
  • special type of surgery wherein microscopic shaving is done, such that 1-2 mm of clear margins are excised.
  • this technique currently has the highest cure rate for basal cell cancer, but is indicated only in pts w/ high-risk features, as well as those w/ lesions in functionally critical areas (perioral
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61
Q

primary pulmonary hypertension

A
  • can be seen in middle-aged pts, and it presents w/ exertional breathlessness
  • lungs will be clear to ausculatation
  • chest x-ray would show enlargement of the pulmonary arteries w/ rapid tapering of the distal vessels (pruning) and enlargement of the right ventricle
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62
Q

Asymptomatic gallstones should not be treated. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the tx of choice for symptomatic gallstone disease.

A

.

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63
Q

3 most common causes of aortic stenosis

A
  • senile calcific aortic stenosis
  • bicuspid aortic valve
  • rheumatic heart disease
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64
Q

Myxomatous valve degeneration

A

-typical pathologic entity that causes mitral valve prolapse

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65
Q

Bicuspid aortic valve

A

-the cause of aortic stenosis in the majority of pts under 70 years old

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66
Q

Clostridium perfringens

A
  • spore forming organism
  • spores germinate in foods such as meats, poultry, or gravy
  • ingestion results in watery diarrhea due to production of toxin in the gut
  • symptom onset is later than w/ preformed toxins (8-14 hrs after ingestion)
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67
Q

Bacillus cereus

A
  • causes nausea and vomiting after eating rice

- symptom onset is within one to six hours

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68
Q

vitamin D deficiency

A

-causes osteomalacia and hypocalcemic tetany in adults

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69
Q

vitamin E deficiency

A

-can cause RBC fragility, hyporeflexia, muscle weakness, and blindness

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70
Q

A tea and toast diet is associated w/ folic acid deficiency. Folic acid is heat sensitive. Folic acid deficiency causes macrocytic anemia.

A

.

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71
Q

Neoplastic epidural spinal cord compression

A
  • presents w/ worsening focal back pain, bilateral lower-extremity weakness, sensory loss, and gait ataxia
  • bowel/bladder disturbances are late findings
  • in the acute phase of spinal cord injury, pts can develop spinal shock w/ absence of reflexes and flaccid paraplegia as a result
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72
Q

Tx of actively bleeding esophageal varices

A
  • hemodynamic support, pharmacologic tx (octreotide), endoscopic therapy, and prophylactic antibiotics.
  • coagulopathy, anemia, and thrombocytopenia are common complications and may also require correction
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73
Q

Winter’s formula

A
  • used to calculate the expected decrease in pCO2 during metabolic acidosis
  • pCO2= 1.5(HCO3) + 8
  • if the pCO2 is not within 2 of this number, then there is another acid-base process occurring at the same time
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74
Q

Type II Renal tubular acidosis

A
  • defective tubular bicarb reabsorption.
  • oftentimes inherited, and may be a component of Fanconi syndrome
  • can also occur w/ use of drugs like carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
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75
Q

Type 1 Renal tubular acidosis

A
  • low tubular ammonium production is a component
  • primary defect is failure to excrete sufficient H+ in the urine
  • w/o sufficient hydrogen ions in the tubular fluid, ammonium cannot be produced
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76
Q

Renal tubular epithelial cells exchange chloride for bicarb. Thus, when the urine chloride is increased, bicarb resorption into the plasma is increased and urinary excretion of H+ is increased.

A

.

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77
Q

Tachypnea causes further lowering of the pCO2 because CO2 is more readily diffusable than O2.

A

.

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78
Q

Erythema nodosum

A
  • presents as painful nodules on the anterior legs that can progress to appear as bruises w/ eventual scarring
  • can be associated w/ infections (strep, TB) or sarcoidosis or can be idiopathic
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79
Q

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

A
  • NMJ disorder that presents most commonly w/ muscle weakness and dry mouth
  • most often associated w/ small cell lung cancer or lymphoproliferative disorders (Hodgkin lymphoma)
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80
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa

A
  • more commonly associated w/ hepatitis B
  • necrotizing vasculitis in small and medium vessels likely due to the deposition of circulating antigen-antibody immune complexes in blood vessel walls
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81
Q

Chronic hepatitis C

A
  • can be asymptomatic or present w/ fatigue and nonspecific symptoms (arthralgias, myalgias, etc)
  • Pts usually have waxing and waning elevations in transaminase levels
  • extrahepatic sequelae can include essential mixed cryoglobulinemia, porphyria cutanea tarda, and membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
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82
Q

3 main categories of diabetic retinopathy

A
  • background or simple (microaneurysms, hemorrhages, exudates, retinal edema)
  • pre-proliferative (cotton wool spots)
  • proliferative or malignant (neovascularization)
  • visual impairment occurs w/ the development of macular edema.
  • Argon laser photocoagulation is performed for the prevention of complications
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83
Q

Lumbar spinal stenosis

A
  • most commonly caused by degenerative joint disease
  • “neuropathic claudication” is often used to describe lumbar stenosis
  • refers to exacerbation of leg symptoms w/ walking (similar to PVD)
  • Unlike PVD, the symptoms are positional and remain while standing still. Pain is relieved by flexion of the spine. Diagnosis is made based on clinical hx and classic findings on spinal MRI
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84
Q

ACE inhibitors, ARBs, beta-blockers, and spironolactone all confer a survival benefit in CHF. While digoxin and furosemide (loop diuretics) can reduce CHF symptoms and hospitalizations, they do not improve survival.

A

.

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85
Q

murmur of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

-systolic murmur decreases w/ squatting and increases w/ straining

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86
Q

Patients w/ cardiac tamponade

A
  • usually have clinical features of Beck’s triad: hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds
  • these symptoms are due to an exaggerated shift of the interventricular septum toward the left ventricular cavity, which reduces left ventricular preload, stroke volume, and cardiac output
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87
Q

Enterococci, especially Enterococcus faecalis, are a common cause of endocarditis associated w/ nosocomial urinary tract infections

A

.

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88
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain significance (MGUS)

A
  • can be differentiated from multiple myeloma by an absence of renal insufficiency, hypercalcemia, anemia, and lytic bone lesions.
  • although MGUS is asymptomatic, there is a 1% per year risk of progression to multiple myeloma
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89
Q

Suppurative hidradenitis

A
  • chronic follicular occlusive disease most commonly affecting the intertriginous skin, including the axillary, groin and inframammary regions
  • it appears as painful inflammatory nodules and draining sinus tracts that can last weeks or longer
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90
Q

Allergic contact dermatitis

A
  • inflammatory skin condition caused by allergens such as poison sumac, cosmetics, and nickel
  • it presents days to weeks after exposure w/ an intensely pruritic erythematous rash w/ vesicles at the site of exposure
  • secondary infection as a result of excessive scratching is possible, and is suggested by pus filled vesicles
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91
Q

Active hepatitis B infections typically presents w/ positive HB surface antigen, positive Be antigen, and absent surface antibody. Health care workers exposed to blood from HB patients (ocular, mucous membrane, or skin) should receive post-exposure prophylaxis. Unvaccinated individuals should receive both the HB vaccine and HB immune globulin as soon as possible.

A

.

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92
Q

Interventricular free wall rupture and papillary muscle rupture

A

-typically occur 3-7 days after MI and present w/ new onset systolic murmur

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93
Q

Ventricular free wall rupture

A
  • typically occurs 3-7 days after anterior wall MI
  • presents w/ rapid deterioration secondary to pericardial tamponade
  • pulseless electrical activity is common
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94
Q

Pulmonary infarction secondary to pulmonary embolism

A
  • can cause chest pain, but it should not cause diffuse ST elevations on ECG
  • while the pain of PE is pleuritic, it should not improve w/ leaning forward
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95
Q

Ventricular aneurysms

A
  • complication of anterior wall MI that can occur days to months after the initial infarction
  • presents w/ akinesis of the involved portion of the left ventricular wall, ventricular arrhythmias, and systemic embolization
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96
Q

Acute pericarditis

A
  • typically occurs in the first several days after MI
  • characterized by sharp, pleuritic pain that is worse in the supine position and improved by sitting up and leaning forward
  • diffuse ST elevations, especially w/ PR depressions, are typical ECG findings
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97
Q

Brain death

A
  • refers to a total loss of brain function and is a legally acceptable definition of death
  • criteria include: absent cranial nerve reflexes, fixed and dilated pupils, no spontaneous breaths, and agreement of two physicians
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98
Q

bowel ischemia

A
  • the diagnosis depends on a high index of clinical suspicion in pts w/ known risk factors for thromboembolic disease (atrial fibrillation, peripheral vascular disease)
  • typical features include acute abdominal pain out of proportion to exam findings, and associated metabolic acidosis (increased serum lactate levels)
  • Mesenteric angiography is the gold standard for diagnosis
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99
Q

Recent studies have suggested that a brain that has seized for > 5 minutes (status epilepticus) is at increased risk of developing permanent injury due to EXCITATORY CYTOTOXICITY. Cortical laminar necrosis is the hallmark of prolonged seizures and can lead to persistent neurologic deficits and recurrent seizures.

A

.

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100
Q

Aldosterone secretion from the zona glomerulosa is ACTH-independent. As a result, secondary (central) adrenal insufficiency does not cause hyperkalemia or salt wasting

A

.

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101
Q

Secondary (central) adrenal insufficiency

A
  • most commonly due to pituitary masses (adenoma)
  • in contrast to primary adrenal insufficiency, secondary adrenal insufficiency does not cause salt wasting, hyperkalemia, or hyperpigmentation
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102
Q

Eaton-Lambert syndrome

A

-associated w/ SMALL CELL carcinoma of the lung, and results from autoantibodies directed against VOLTAGE-GATED CALCIUM CHANNELS in the PRESYNAPTIC motor nerve terminal

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103
Q

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

A
  • Multicentric CNS inflammation and demyelination are indicative
  • rare in people younger than 15 and older than 60
  • sensory loss, spasticity, cerebellar symptoms, optic neuritis, depression, etc.
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104
Q

ALS

A
  • upper and lower motor neuron degeneration

- initially presents w/ bulbar symptoms, followed by upper and lower limb weakness

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105
Q

Polymyositis

A
  • immune-mediated muscle inflammation
  • presents as proximal weakness characterized by difficulty ascending and descending stairs, combing hair, kneeling down, etc
  • CPK level is typically high and it is not associated w/ absent reflexes
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106
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A
  • autoantibodies against postsynaptic receptors
  • reduction of postsynaptic ACh receptors leads to muscle weakness
  • the muscle weakness is provoked by repetitive or sustained use of the muscles involved
  • deep tendon reflexes are usually preserved, and may be somewhat brisk in clinically weak muscles
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107
Q

Anserine bursitis

A
  • presents w/ sharply localized pain over the anteromedial part of the tibial plateau just below the joint line of the knee
  • Valgus stress test fails to reproduce the pain, thereby ruling out damage to the medial collateral ligament, and radiographs are classically normal
  • Tx is w/ rest, ice and maneuvers to reduce pressure on the bursa. Corticosteroid injections into the bursa are also helpful.
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108
Q

Prepatellar bursitis

A
  • presents w/ pain and swelling directly over the patella
  • exam shows cystic swelling over the patella w/ variable signs of inflammation
  • the most common cause is trauma
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109
Q

Medial collateral ligament injury

A
  • presents w/ pain along the medial joint line and is aggravated by walking
  • caused by valgus stress applied on the lateral aspect of the knee when it is partially flexed
  • the knee pain is aggravated by valgus stress testing
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110
Q

Medial compartment osteoarthritis

A
  • presents w/ pain along the medial joint line typically in pts older than 40
  • morning stiffness of less than 30 minutes, crepitus and bony tenderness on examination
  • x-ray of the knee shows narrowing of the joint space and osteophyte formation
  • anserine bursitis may accompany medial compartment osteoarthritis due to the chronic gait abnormality caused by the arthritic pain
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111
Q

Patellofemoral syndrome

A
  • common overuse pain syndrome of the knee
  • pts present w/ peripatellar pain worsened by activity or prolonged sitting (due to sustained flexion) and may also complain of crepitus w/ motion of the patella
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112
Q

Decubitus ulcers

A
  • elderly and critically ill pts w/ immobility, poor nutrition, and sensory impairment are at risk of developing decubitus ulcers
  • ulcers form as a result of uninterrupted pressure on the tissue overlying bony prominences
  • the elbows, coccyx, hips and heels are sites at especially high risk
  • patient repositioning every two hours and pressure reducing devices (air/foam mattresses) are important methods of prevention
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113
Q

Hyponatremia

A
  • can be classified according to the patient’s volume status (hypovolemic, euvolemic, hypervolemic)
  • hypovolemia increases the activity of the RAAS and sympathetic nervous systems, and stimulates ADH release from the pituitary
  • The elevated ADH increases renal water reabsorption to cause hyponatremia until correction of the hypovolemia
  • Tx w/ normal saline usually
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114
Q

Peripheral neuropathies

A

-typically present w/ motor abnormalities such as distal muscle weakness, sensory abnormalities, and decreased deep tendon reflexes on physical exam

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115
Q

Proximal muscle weakness w/ or w/o muscle atrophy can occur in 60-80% of pts w/ untreated hyperthyroidism and correlates to the duration of the hyperthyroid state. Hip flexors and quadriceps are predominantly affected, and the weakness can gradually progress to involve the proximal muscles of the upper extremities.

A

.

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116
Q

Collagenous colitis

A
  • uncommon disorder producing chronic watery diarrhea
  • the colon is frequently involved, but colonoscopy shows normal mucosa
  • biopsy shows mucosal subepithelial collagen deposition
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117
Q

IBS

A
  • chronic disorder characterized by distressing GI symptoms such as diarrhea, constipation, pain, and bloating
  • biopsy results are normal in irritable bowel syndrome, and features of malabsorption should prompt a search for an alternate explanation
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118
Q

Celiac disease

A
  • should be suspected in any patient w/ malabsorption and iron deficiency anemia
  • IgA anti-endomysial and anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies are highly predictive of celiac disease but may be absent if there is concurrent selective IgA deficiency (which is common in Celiac pts)
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119
Q

Celiac disease

A
  • autoimmune reaction to gluten which affects the small bowel
  • symptoms include diarrhea, weight loss and fatigue
  • it may also lead to malabsorption of vitamin D, K, B12, calcium, folic acid, and zinc
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120
Q

Vitamin A deficiency

A
  • may be caused by nutritional deficiency or malabsorption

- symptoms include blindness, dry skin, and impaired immunity

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121
Q

Selenium deficiency

A
  • like zinc deficiency, may result from chronic TPN
  • may also result from malabsorption or malnutrition (food sources include nuts, meat, and fish)
  • the most important feature of deficiency is cardiomyopathy!
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122
Q

SLE

A
  • multisystem autoimmune disease which may present w/ malar and discoid rashes, oral ulcers, and alopecia
  • fever, weight loss, arthritis, as well as renal, neurologic, and hematologic symptoms are also common
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123
Q

Zinc deficiency

A
  • may result from chronic total parenteral nutrition or malabsorption
  • symptoms include alopecia, skin lesions, abnormal taste, and impaired wound healing
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124
Q

leading cause of blindness in industrialized countries

A

macular degeneration

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125
Q

Lens opacification

A

-cause of visual loss from cataracts

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126
Q

enlarged blind spot

A

-may be seen w/ papilledema

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127
Q

increased intraocular pressure

A

-cause of glaucoma, which does NOT typically present w/ distortion of straight lines

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128
Q

Macular degeneration

A
  • the most common cause of blindness in industrialized nations
  • activities that require fine visual acuity are usually the first affected, and pts w/ this condition may report that straight grid lines appear curved
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129
Q

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A
  • presents w/ headache, vision changes (blurry or double vision), papilledema, and/or cranial nerve palsies (usually CN VI)
  • CSF exam shows increased opening pressure (>250) and normal studies
  • IIH is most common in young obese women
  • growth hormone, tetracyclines, and excessive vitamin A and its derivaties (ie isotretinoin, all-trans-retinoic acid) can cause IIH
  • Withdrawal of these meds leads to symptom resolution. Weight loss and acetazolamide for idiopathic cases.
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130
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A
  • usually presents w/ >2 distinctive episodes of CNS dysfunction w/ at least some resolution
  • classic features include optic neuritis, Lhermitte’s sign, Uhthoff’s phenomenon (worsening symptoms w/ increased body temperature), motor and sensory deficits, and bowel or bladder dysfunction
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131
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

A
  • the result of impaired absorption of CSF
  • Pts present w/ the triad of impaired gait, cognitive difficulties, and urinary incontinence
  • CT scan shows enlarged ventricles
  • typically seen in elderly pts
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132
Q

Viral encephalitis

A
  • may present w/ fever, headaches, neurologic deficits, and altered mental status
  • CSF exam shows a moderate WBC count (lymphocyte predominant) and elevated protein
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133
Q

Large artery atherosclerosis and cardiac emboli are typically characterized by more prominent clinical manifestations because larger vessels are involved, although this is not always true

A

.

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134
Q

Berry aneurysms

A

-can cause compression symptoms (most typically oculomotor abnormalities) before rupture, and is devastating on rupture secondary to subarachnoid hemorrhage

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135
Q

Always suspect lacunar stroke if a patient presents w/ a limited neuro deficit. The typical lacunar stroke scenarios are pure motor stroke, pure sensory stroke (thalamus), ataxic-hemiparesis, and dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome. The principle cause of lacunar stroke is hypertension.

A

.

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136
Q

Hepatic hydrothorax

A
  • cause of transudative pleural effusions in pts w/ cirrhosis who have no underlying cardiac or pulmonary disease to account for development of such an effusion
  • usually results in a right-sided pleural effusion
  • initial tx is usually w/ salt restriction and diuretics
  • TIPS placement is considered in pts w/ refractory hepatic hydrothorax
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137
Q

what is the most frequent precipitant of Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

-(Herpes virus, Mycoplasma, and Hemophilus influenzae have also been associated)

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138
Q

Ascending aortic dissection

A
  • arises from an intimal tear that allows a false lumen to be created between the media and adventitia of the aorta
  • Pts present w/ severe chest pain that radiates to the back and neck
  • hypertension is a major risk factor
  • the chest x-ray may reveal a widened mediastinum
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139
Q

Pulmonary emboli

A
  • cause dyspnea, tachycardia, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia
  • while there are suggestive chest x-ray findings, the chest x-ray is normal in most cases
  • the most common ECG finding is a sinus tachycardia
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140
Q

Chest x-ray findings in Pulmonary emboli

A
  • usually normal chest x-ray
  • may see dilatation of the pulmonary artery proximal to the clot and collapse of the vessels distal to the clot (Westermark’s sign)
  • Pleural infiltrates corresponding to areas of pulmonary infarction (Hampton’s hump)
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141
Q

The nephrotic syndrome

A
  • can result in alterations in lipid metabolism
  • this dyslipidemia puts affected pts at increased risk for accelerated atherosclerosis
  • this atherosclerotic tendency, along w/ intrinsic hypercoagulability, places pts w/ nephrotic syndrome at risk for complications such as stroke and MI
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142
Q

Distinction between case control and retrospective cohort studies

A

-the order in which outcomes are risk factors are assessed: case control studies determine the outcome and then look for associated risk factors; retrospective cohort studies ascertain risk factor exposure and then determine the outcome

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143
Q

retrospective cohort study

A
  • similar to a prospective cohort study except that risk factor exposure and the outcome of interest both occur in the past and are assessed through review of records.
  • unlike a case control study, risk factor exposure is determined before the outcome is known, thus allowing calculation of the relative risk
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144
Q

Premature atrial complexes (PAC’s)

A
  • tobacco and alcohol are reversible risk factors

- Beta-blockers are often helpful in pts who are symptomatic

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145
Q

Screening for bladder cancer

A

-is NOT recemmended, even in pts who are at risk of developing the disease (due to its low incidence and poor PPV of the current screening tests)

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146
Q

Contrast-induced nephropathy

A
  • presents as a transient spike in creatinine within 24 hrs of contrast administration, w/ a return to normal renal function within 5-7 days
  • pts w/ diabetes and elevated baseline Cr are at especially high risk
  • Adequate IV hydration w/ isotonic bicarb or normal saline and administration of acetylcysteine help to minimize the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy
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147
Q

Gout has NEGATIVELY birefringent crystals!

A

.

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148
Q

Gout is a common manifestation of myeloproliferative disorder-induced increases in uric acid production, because there is increased catabolism and turnover of purines. Note that Polycythemia vera commonly causes splenomegaly and characteristic pruritis w/ hot baths due to histamine release from an increased number of circulating basophils.

A

.

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149
Q

CKD can cause gouty attacks by decreasing the amount of uric acid excreted in the urine.

A

.

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150
Q

Hemochromatosis

A
  • autosomal recessive iron overload syndrome most often due to mutation of the HFE gene.
  • the symptoms are related to iron accumulation in various organs: hepatic dysfunction progressing to cirrhosis, diabetes, hypogonadism, skin pigmentation, and arthritis
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151
Q

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

A
  • caused by genetic deficiency of the enzyme hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HPRT)
  • characterized by overproduction of uric acid, behavioral problems (especially self-injurious actions), and neurologic disability, and is generally diagnosed in childhood
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152
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A
  • increases bone resorption and can thus elevate serum calcium concentrations
  • a high serum calcium concentration can cause chondrocalcinosis and calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition disease (pseudogout). The crystals in pseudogout are POSITIVELY birefringent.
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153
Q

Gout is a common manifestation of myeloproliferative disorder-induced increases in uric acid production

A

.

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154
Q

Vaccinations for pts w/ chronic liver disease?

A
  • hepatitis A and B
  • influenza
  • invasice pneumococcal disease
  • like all adults, they should get a Td booster at least every 10 years w/ the Tdap once in place of the Td
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155
Q

Guillain-Barré syndrome

A
  • most commonly presents w/ ascending flaccid paralysis
  • involvement of respiratory and bulbar muscles puts pts at high risk for respiratory failure
  • serial measurements of forced vital capacity are the best means of monitoring respiratory function
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156
Q

In a normal (bell-shaped) distribution:

A
  • 68% within 1 SD from mean
  • 95% within 2 SD from mean
  • 99.7% within 3 SD from mean
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157
Q

Pancreatic cancer

A
  • can be due to hereditary (first degree relative w/ pancreatic cancer, hereditary pancreatitis) or environmental (cigarette smoking, obesity) risk factors.
  • cigarette smoking is the most consistent reversible risk factor for pancreatic cancer
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158
Q

Noninvasive evaluation w/ compression ultrasonography is recommended as an initial test in pts w/ moderate or high probability of DVT. In pts w/ low probability, a D-dimer assay can further assess risk. An US can be performed on pts w/ a positive D-dimer; pts w/ a negative D-dimer require no further testing.

A

.

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159
Q

The most important steps in the management of lactic acidosis from septic shock is what?

A

-IV normal saline w/ or w/o vasopressor therapy to maintain the intravascular pressure and antibiotics to correct the underlying infection

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160
Q

ARDS

A
  • associated w/ hypoxemia (PaO2/FiO2 <300 mmHg) and bilateral alveolar infiltrates
  • Objective assessment (echo) is needed to definitively exclude hydrostatic pulmonary edema in pts w/o ARDS risk factors
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161
Q

Cholesterol embolization

A
  • can cause acute renal failure, skin changes in the lower extremities including bluish discoloration or livedo reticularis, GI symptoms, elevated eosinophils in the blood or urine, and decreased complement levels
  • while it may occur spontaneously, a hx of recent angiography in a patient w/ abdominal aortic atherosclerosis is often the main clue to the diagnosis
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162
Q

Echinococcus granulosus

A
  • the majority of human infections are asymptomatic
  • HYDATID CYSTS can be found in almost any part of the body but liver (most commonly) is involved in 2/3 of pts and the lungs are involved in 25% of pts. It is most commonly seen in areas where sheep are raised.
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163
Q

4 causes of microcytic anemia

A
  • iron deficiency
  • anemia of chronic disease
  • thalassemias and other hemoglobinopathies
  • lead poisoning, sideroblastic anemia
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164
Q

indicator of iron reserves in the body

A

-serum ferritin

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165
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome

A
  • occurs in approx 30% of pts w/ HYPOTHYROIDISM
  • deposition of mucopolysaccharide protein complexes within the perineurium and endoneurium of the median nerve is thought to be primary responsible for its pathogenesis
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166
Q

The current vaccination schedule for HIV-infected individuals

A
  • includes all routine vaccinations for adults, as well as serial pneumococcal boosters
  • men who have sex w/ men should also receive hepatitis A immunization
  • pts w/ CD4 cell counts <200 should not receive live vaccines
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167
Q

causes of hypomagnesemia

A

-poor nutrition, diuretic use, malabsorption, and alcohol abuse

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168
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A
  • caused by corticosteroid excess
  • hypokalemia and hypernatremia are the electrolyte abnormalities most commonly observed because most corticosteroids have some mineralocorticoid activity and will bind to aldosterone receptors in the kidney, causing renal potassium wasting
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169
Q

Electrical cardioversion is indicated for sustained monomorphic ventricular tachycardia pts who are hemodynamically unstable, pulseless, or severely symptomatic. Hemodynamically stable pts can first be given antiarrhythmics (ie. IV amiodarone) as these may lead to sinus rhythm and avoidance of the need for cardioversion

A

.

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170
Q

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

A
  • usually seen in older pts
  • may present w/ a red, painful eye and blurred vision
  • corneal opacification can be present, but ulceration is not typical
  • the pupil is fixed and mid-dilated
  • extraocular symptoms such as headache and nausea are common
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171
Q

the murmur in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A
  • crescendo-decrescendo

- increases w/ the Valsalva maneuver

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172
Q

AV fistula

A
  • causes high-output cardiac failure by shunting the blood from the arterial to venous side, thereby increasing cardiac preload
  • the patient develops heart failure despite maintaining a normal or high cardiac output because the circulation is unable to meet the oxygen demand of the peripheral tissues
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173
Q

Choriocarcinoma

A
  • metastatic form of gestational trophoblastic disease
  • may occur after molar pregnancy or normal gestation, and the lungs are the most frequent site of metastatic spread
  • suspect choriocarcinoma in any postpartum woman w/ pulmonary symptoms and multiple nodules on chest x-ray
  • an elevated beta hCG helps to confirm the diagnosis
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174
Q

Trypanosoma cruzii

A
  • cause of Chagas’ disease
  • endemic in South America and may cause megacolon, megaesophagus, and cardiac disease
  • causes both systolic and diastolic heart failure
  • may also cause arrhythmias and mitral/tricuspid regurgitation
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175
Q

Constrictive pericarditis

A
  • caused by pericardial scarring and thickening that result in diastolic heart dysfunction
  • pts present w/ signs of decreased cardiac output and venous overload
  • common etiologies in the U.S. include viruses, cardiac surgery, chest radiation, and idiopathic causes.
  • Tuberculosis is the most common cause in developing countries and endemic areas such as Africa, India, and China
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176
Q

Severe pain in a patient w/ a mild urinary obstruction, such as BPH, may cause urinary retention due to inability to Valsalva

A

.

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177
Q

Studies have shown that the risk for sepsis is present up to 30 yrs and probably longer after splenectomy. Current recommendations?

A

-State that pts should receive anti-pneumococcal, Haemophilus, and meningococcal vaccines several weeks before the operation, and daily oral penicillin prophylaxis for 3-5 yrs following splenectomy.

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178
Q

Thrombocytopenia and hypercoagulation within days of initiating anticoagulant therapy are most likely caused by what?

A

-unfractionated heparin; Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is often associated w/ abnormal intravascular thrombosis.

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179
Q

Postoperative cholestasis

A

-can develop after a prolonged surgery characterized by hypotension, extensive blood loss into tissues, and massive blood replacement

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180
Q

Nonsense and frameshift mutations are typically more severe than missense mutations. Silent (same sense) mutations do not affect the structure of the protein

A

.

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181
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 2

A
  • subcutaneous neurofibromas, hyperpigmented cafe-au-lait spots, deafness due to acoustic neuromas (typically BILATERAL), and a family hx of the disease
  • autosomal dominant mutation in tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 22
  • Wishart is the severe form
  • Gardner is the milder form
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182
Q

Blastomycosis

A
  • fungal infection endemic to the central U.S.
  • usually causes a mild pulmonary illness, but disseminated infection may occur even in immunocompetent individuals
  • cutaneous blastomycosis manifests as well-circumscribed verrucous nodules and plaques that progress to microabscesses
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183
Q

Actinomyces and Nocardia

A
  • Gram positive rods (and Nocardia is also weakly acid-fast)
  • Nocardia often presents as a subacute pneumonia that mimics tuberculosis infection. The majority of pts are immunocompromised.
  • Actinomyces causes abscesses primarily at the head and neck w/ characteristic granular yellow pus (“sulfur granules”). It can also cause indolent pulmonary disease.
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184
Q

Blood cultures from separate venipuncture sites should be obtained over a specified period in all pts w/ suspected infective endocarditis prior to initiating antibiotic therapy.

A

.

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185
Q

Viral infection may present w/ symmetric arthritis. Viral arthritis is distinguished from rheumatoid arthritis and other causes of symmetric arthritis by its acute onset, lack of elevated inflammatory markers, and resolution within 2 months.

A

.

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186
Q

Arthritis must be present for at least 6 weeks in order to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis.

A

.

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187
Q

Psoriatic arthritis

A
  • often affects the distal interphalangeal joints

- Dactylitis (sausage digit), nail findings, and psoriasis of the skin are characteristic

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188
Q

Acute rheumatic fever

A
  • occurs in the setting of recent strep infection
  • polyarthritis, carditis, chorea, erythema marginatum and subcutaneous nodules are characteristic
  • the arthritis of rheumatic fever is migratory in nature and usually first affects the joints of lower extremities
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189
Q

IV adenosine

A

-causes temporary AV block, which is useful in identifying and in some cases terminating supraventricular tachycardias

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190
Q

Amiodarone

A
  • antiarrhythmic used in many cases of supraventricular and ventricular tachyarrhythmias
  • not used in cases of bradycardia because it slows the SA and AV nodes
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191
Q

Symptomatic sinus bradycardia

A
  • should be treated w/ IV atropine, followed by transcutaneous pacing
  • medications that slow the heart rate should be replaced w/ alternative therapeutic regimens
  • if the bradycardia does not resolve, a permanent pacemaker may be necessary
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192
Q

Torsades de pointes

A
  • polymorphic ventricular tachycardia which occurs in the setting of a prolonged QT interval and is seen in pts w/ familial long QT syndrome, malnourished pts predisposed to hypomagnesemia (such as alcoholics), and in pts taking certain drugs (tricyclic antidepressants), certain antiarrhythmics (amiodarone, sotalol), and anti-infective agents (moxifloxacin, fluconazole)
  • Tx includes cessation of any offending agents, and initiation of magnesium sulfate!
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193
Q

Sotalol

A

-class III antiarrhythmic which inhibits inward potassium ion channels, thereby prolonging the QT interval

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194
Q

Calcium gluconate

A

-cardio-protective in cases of hyperkalemia (peaked T waves, followed by lengthening of the PR and QRS intervals)

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195
Q

Amiodarone

A
  • class III antiarrhythmic used for both ventricular and atrial tachycardia
  • causes QT prolongation
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196
Q

Adenosine

A
  • used to induce transient heart block at the AV node

- useful in identifying and sometimes terminating supraventricular tachycardia

197
Q

sodium bicarb

A

-used in TCA and aspirin overdose

198
Q

Atropine

A
  • used in cases of bradycardia, asystole and pulseless electrical activity
  • acts by competitively antagonizing muscarinic ACh receptors, suppressing the parasympathetic input to the heart
199
Q

COPD

A
  • have increased total lung capacity, functional residual capacity, and residual volume leading to hyperinflation and diaphragmatic flattening
  • flattening of the diaphragm increases the work of breathing
200
Q

Both seizures and syncope can cause sudden loss of consciousness, and it can sometime be difficult to distinguish between them.

A
  • Seizures typically have a preceding aura, delayed return to neurologic baseline, head deviation or unusual body posturing, and tongue laceration
  • Syncope is associated w/ loss of postural tone and spontaneous return to baseline neurologic function
201
Q

what is an effective and rapid method used to abort an acute attack of cluster headache?

A

-100% oxygen (nasal)

high yield!!

202
Q

Diuretic abuse

A
  • leads to increased excretion of water and electrolytes by the kidneys
  • dehydration, weight loss, orthostatic hypotension as well as hypokalemia and hyponatremia result
  • urinary sodium and potassium will be elevated
  • pts w/ eating disorders sometimes abuse diuretics to induce weight loss
203
Q

Negative predictive value (NPV)

A
  • the probability of being free of a disease if the test result is negative
  • remember, the NPV WILL VARY WITH THE PRETEST PROBABILITY OF A DISEASE
  • a patient w/ a high probability of having a disease will have a low NPV, and a patient w/ a low probability of having a disease will have a high NPV
204
Q

The sensitivity and specificity of a test are FIXED VALUES, which do not vary w/ the pretest probability of a disease.

A

.

205
Q

If the outcome of a case-control study is not common in the population, the odds ratio is close to the relative risk (“rare disease assumption”). In other words, if the prevalence of the disease is low, the exposure odds ratio approximates the relative risk.

A

.

206
Q

Increased intragastric pressure during vomiting can cause tears in the mucosa of the distal esophagus and proximal stomach. These are called Mallory-Weiss tears, and account for 10% of upper GI bleeds.

A

.

207
Q

Pts w/ coarctation of the aorta have what?

A

-“brachial-femoral” delay (due to differential blood pressure in the upper and lower extremities) or hypertension in the upper extremity

208
Q

All patients w/ suspected pneumonia should be assessed w/ a chest x-ray. Sputum testing for microbial diagnosis is optional in the outpatient setting due to low yield of culture results and high success rate of tx w/ empiric antibiotics.

A

.

209
Q

Approx. 10-20% of pts on isoniazed will develop mild aminotransferase elevation within first few weeks of treatment. This hepatic injury is typically self-limited and will resolve without intervention.

A

.

210
Q

name 1 phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor

A

Sildenafil (tx for erectile dysfunction)

211
Q

preferred therapy for prolactinoma

A

dopaminergic agonist

212
Q

Red flags for other secondary causes of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism include significant headaches, very low testosterone levels (

A

.

213
Q

Theophylline toxicity

A
  • can manifest as CNS stimulation (headache, insomnia, seizures), GI disturbances (nausea, vomiting) and cardiac toxicity (arrhythmia).
  • inhibition of the cytochrome oxidase system by other medications, diet, or underlying disease can alter its narrow therapeutic window
214
Q

Typical antipsychotics (ie haloperidol) should NOT be used in pts w/ Lewy body dementia, who may exhibit neuroleptic hypersensitivity (severe parkinsonism and impaired consciousness w/ neuroleptic administration)

A

.

215
Q

Toxic-metabolic and infectious etiologies are the most common causes of delirium in a hospitalized patient. Patients w/ dementia have an increased risk of developing agitated delirium in the hospital. Typical and atypical antipsychotics are useful for treating acute agitation in elderly pts w/ dementia. Benzo’s are typically not recommended in this setting.

A

.

216
Q

common adverse effects of beta-blockers

A
  • bradycardia
  • AV block
  • bronchoconstriction (esp in asthma and COPD pts)
  • male sexual dysfunction
217
Q

Nitrates adverse effects

A

-can cause headaches, hypotension, and development of tolerance to the drug w/ continuous use

218
Q

side effect of Clopidogrel

A

-thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

219
Q

statin side effects

A

-hepatotoxicity and myopathy

220
Q

most common cause of acquired angioedema

A
  • ACE-inhibitors
  • note that angioedema can occur at ANYTIME, not just within weeks of starting the meds
  • other adverse effects of ACE-I’s are cough, hyperkalemia, and precipitation of acute renal failure in pts w/ bilateral renal artery stenosis
221
Q

Pancytopenia is common in pts w/ SLE. It usually indicates concurrent peripheral immune-mediated destruction of all 3 cell lines.

A

.

222
Q

Selection bias

A

-results from the manner in which people are selected for the study, of from the selective losses from follow-up.

223
Q

Recall bias

A
  • results from the inaccurate recall of past exposure by people in the study
  • it applies mostly to case-control studies, not cohort studies
224
Q

Confounding

A

-refers to the bias that can result when the exposure-disease relationship is mixed w/ the effect of extraneous factors

225
Q

Observer’s bias and measurement bias

A
  • distort the measure of associated by misclassifying exposed/unexposed and/or diseased/non-diseased subjects.
  • confounders influence both the exposure and outcome
226
Q

hypertensive urgency

A

-severe hypertension (usually >180/120 mmHg) w/ no symptoms or acute end-organ damage

227
Q

Hypertensive emergency

A
  • severe hypertension w/ acute, life-threatening, end-organ complications
  • Malignant hypertension: severe hypertension w/ retinal hemorrhages, exudates, or papilledema
  • Hypertensive encephalopathy: severe hypertension w/ cerebral edema and non-localizing neurologic symptoms and signs
228
Q

Hypertensive emergency

A
  • defined as marked, severe hypertension associated w/ malignant hypertension or hypertensive encephalopathy
  • malignant hypertension is defined as the presence of severe hypertension (usually >180/120mmHg) associated w/ retinal hemorrhages, exudates, and/or papilledema
  • hypertensive encephalopathy is associated w/ cerebral edema
229
Q

The CDC recommends that all adults receive the influenza vaccine annually. Certain healthy individuals may receive the intranasal live vaccine while the inactivated intramuscular influenza vaccine is recommended for all other adults.

A

.

230
Q

High-dose niacin therapy

A
  • treats lipid abnormalities frequently produces cutaneous flushing and pruritis.
  • this side effect is explained by prostaglandin-induced peripheral vasodilatation and can be reduced by low-dose aspirin.
231
Q

Diabetic autonomic neuropathy

A
  • involves the cardiovascular, genitourinary, and gastrointestinal systems
  • some of the most commonly encountered problems are gastroparesis, enteropathy, postural hypotension, abnormal sweating, cystopathy and erectile dysfunction
232
Q

mononeuropathy multiplex

A

-pts experience multiple mononeuropathies, thus presenting as an asymmetric polyneuropathy

233
Q

Symmetric distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy

A
  • the most common type of diabetic neuropathy, and is characterized by the classic “stoking glove” pattern of sensory loss
  • aside from symmetric distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy, diabetes can also cause mononeuropathies of cranial and peripheral nerves
234
Q

Ulcerative colitis screening

A
  • pts w/ ulcerative colities are at an increased risk for the development of colorectal cancer
  • most quidelines state that pts should begin colonoscopy surveillance 8 yrs after the diagnosis, possibly longer if only the left colon is involved
  • once a surveillance program is started, colonoscopy should be repeated every 1-2yrs to assess for development of colonic dysplasia
235
Q

Cardiac tamponade

A
  • can occur as a catastrophic complication of acute aortic dissection
  • it should be suspected in pts w/ hypotension, tachycardia, distended neck veins, and pulsus paradoxus who have sudden onset of severe tearing chest pain radiating to the back
236
Q

Recurrent bacterial infections in an adult patient may indicate a humoral immunity defect. what helps to establish the diagnosis?

A

-Quantitative measurement of serum immunoglobulin levels

237
Q

Hepatitis C is a risk factor for what?

A

-cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, cryoglobulinemia, and glomerulonephritis

238
Q

Smoking is a risk factor for what cancers?

A

-squamous cell, small cell, pancreatic, cancers of the upper aerodigestive tract

239
Q

Most cases of active TB in the US occur in foreign-born individuals who have recently emigrated from endemic areas (especially mexico, the philippines, china, vietnam, india, Dominican Republic, and haiti) w/ the highest rates for those arriving in the last 5 years.

A

.

240
Q

The rapid plasma reagin test

A
  • aka “RPR” test
  • is a nontreponemal antigen test used to screen for syphilis
  • congenital syphilis can be associated w/ stillbirth, anemia, and thrombocytopenia
241
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

A
  • usually diagnosed after excluding other possible causes of thrombocytopenia
  • these patients should be tested for hepatitis C and HIV as thrombocytopenia may be the initial presentation of HIV infection (up to 5-10% of pts).
  • tx of the underlying infection can affect the platelet count
242
Q

Pts w/ infectious mononucleosis are at risk for splenic rupture. Advise pts to avoid contact sports to prevent this hazard until the spleen regresses in size and is no longer palpable (usually after one to three months).

A

.

243
Q

Technetium bone scan is less specific than gallium imaging in the diagnosis of vertebral osteomyelitis as it also detects fractures and may result in false-positive findings. The study may also be negative in the early phases of infection.

A

.

244
Q

Vertebral osteomyelitis

A
  • usually presents w/ fever, back pain, and FOCAL spinal tenderness
  • evaluation includes blood cultures and inflammatory markers (ESR and CRP)
  • MRI is the modality of choice for diagnosis, followed by CT-guided bone biopsy
245
Q

Chemical peritonitis due to perforated peptic ulcer should be suspected in pts presenting w/ sudden onset of severe epigastric pain that spreads over the entire abdomen. Upright chest and/or abdominal radiographs typically reveal free air under the diaphragm.

A

.

246
Q

Digital clubbing

A
  • Lung malignancies, cystic fibrosis, and right-to-left cardiac shunts are the most common causes of secondary digital clubbing
  • COPD (with or without hypoxemia) does not cause digital clubbing, and the presence of clubbing should prompt a search for occult malignancy.
  • hypertrophic osteoarthropathy refers to digital clubbing along w/ painful joint enlargement, periostosis of long bones, and synovial effusions
  • pathogenesis involves magakaryocytes that skip the normal route of fragmentation within pulmonary circulation (due to circulatory disruption from tumors, chronic lung inflammation) to enter systemic circulation. Megakaryocytes become entrapped in the distal fingertips due to their large size and release PDGF and VEGF
247
Q

CHF exacerbation

A
  • can cause tachypnea as left ventricular dysfunction allows fluid to pool in the lugns, causing a pleural effusion and hypoxemia due to reduced ventilation
  • tachypnea causes hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis
  • exam typically shows signs of fluid overload, S3 and S4 gallops, cardiomegaly, and bibasilar crackles in the lungs
248
Q

Nonallergic rhinitis

A
  • usually presents w/ one of the chronic rhinitis symptoms (nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, sneezing, and postnasal drainage) w/o a specific etiology.
  • routine allergy testing is not necessary prior to initiating empiric treatment
  • depending on the severity of the symptoms, pts should be treated w/ an INTRANASAL ANTIHISTAMINE, INTRANASAL GLUCOCORTICOIDS, or combination therapy
249
Q

IgA nephropathy

A
  • the most common cause of glomerulonephritis in adults
  • pts have recurrent episodes of gross hematuria, usually within 5 days after an upper respiratory infection (SYNPHARYNGITIC) presentation
  • IgA nephropathy is differentiated from postinfectious GN based on earlier onset of upper respiratory tract infection-related GN and normal serum complement levels.
  • kidney biopsy can also help differentiated these 2 processes
250
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis

A
  • acute inflammatory process involving the renal tubules and interstitium following exposure to a drug (antibiotics, NSAIDs, PPI)
  • other findings can include fever, skin rash, eosionophilia, eosinophiluria, or WBC casts
251
Q

Alport syndrome

A
  • X-linked defect in collagen IV formation and presents w/ hearing loss, ocular abnormalities, hematuria, and progressive renal insufficiency
  • kidney biopsy usually shows thinning of the glomerular BM
252
Q

Anti-glomerular BM disease

A

-due to anti-GBM antibodies against collagen IV (alpha-5 chain) damaging the glomeruli and alveolar lining
-manifests as either a renal limited process (rapidly progressive GN) or alveolar hemorrhage (pulmonary renal syndrome)
-Goodpasture’s syndrome refers to a pulmonary-renal syndrome that is a manifestation of anti-GBM disease
-

253
Q

Benign recurrent hematuria (aka thin BM nephropathy)

A

-benign familial condition that presents as isolated microscopic hematuria

254
Q

Henoch-Shonlein purpura

A
  • systemic form of IgA involvement of the glomeruli, skin, joints, and intestines
  • more common in children and presents as an erythematous and papular skin rash involving the dorsal aspect of lower extremities, abdominal pain, arthralgia/arthritis, and microscopic hematuria/proteinuria
255
Q

Lupus nephritis

A
  • can present as nephritic syndrome, nephrotic syndrome, rapidly progressive GN, or pulmonary-renal syndrome
  • pts usually have low complement levels (C3 and C4) and positive lupus antibodies (anti-nuclear antibodies, anti-dsDNA, anti-smith antibodies)
256
Q

Crohn’s disease

A
  • can involve any component of the GI tract from mouth to anus, and characteristically has skip ares of involvement
  • although nonspecific, aphthous ulcers in the mouth can be seen in Crohn’s disease
  • Granulomas are identified pathologically in up to 30% of pts w/ Crohn’s
257
Q

CN III neuropathy due to nerve compression

A
  • causes include transtentorial (uncal) herniation or aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery
  • both somatic and parasympathetic fibers of CN III are equally affected in this condition
258
Q

Lacunar strokes

A
  • result from obstruction of the penetrating arterioles that supply white matter
  • these strokes manifest w/ pure motor or pure sensory syndromes
259
Q

Diabetic mononeuropathy often involves CN III

A
  • Nerve damage is ISCHEMIC, and only the SOMATIC nerve fibers are affected
  • Parasympathic fibers of CNIII retain function
  • Ptosis and a “down and out” gaze in conjunction w/ normal light and accomodation reflexes indicate diabetic CNIII neuropathy
260
Q

Peptic ulcer perforation is associated w/ free air under the diaphragm

A

.

261
Q

Emphysematous cholecystitis

A
  • common form of acute cholecystitis in elderly diabetic males
  • it arises due to infection of the gallbladder wall w/ gas-forming bacteria
262
Q

Situational syncope

A
  • should be considered in the differential diagnosis of syncopal episodes
  • the typical scenario would include a middle age or older male, who loses consciousness immediately after urination, or a man who loses consciousness during coughing fits
263
Q

Erythema nodosum

A
  • a condition of painful, subcutaneous, pretibial nodules
  • it can be a symptom of more serious disease processes including sarcoidosis, TB, histoplasmosis, recent streptococcal infection, and inflammatory bowel disease
  • the association of EN w/ sarcoidosis is particularly strong in young, african-american women
  • cough, arthritis, uveitis and hilar adenopathy on chest x-ray are also associated w/ sarcoidosis
264
Q

Lumbar spinal stenosis

A
  • most commonly caused by degenerative changes in the spine and presents w/ low back and leg pain
  • the leg pain of neurogenic claudication is position-dependent (exacerbated by lumbar extension) and persists while standing still
  • vascular claudication is exertion-dependent and resolves w/ standing still.
  • Arterial pulses and ankle-brachial index can differentiate between vascular and neurogenic claudication
265
Q

Acute glaucoma

A

-presents over days w/ unilateral vision changes, red eye, and headache

266
Q

Intracranial hypertension

A
  • diagnosed when the intracranial pressure equals or exceeds 20mmHg
  • it may be due to a number of different causes and typically presents w/ headaches, vision changes, nausea and vomiting, changes in awareness, and/or focal neurologic deficits
267
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis

A
  • usually associated w/ exposure to meds such as beta lactams and PPI’s
  • usually occurs 7-10 days after drug exposure
  • skin rash, eosinophilia, eosinophiluria, and pyuria
268
Q

Pre-renal azotemia

A
  • often due to volume depletion w/ hypoperfusion to the kidneys
  • lab studies typically show a BUN to creatinine ratio >20:1
269
Q

High-dose IV acyclovir

A
  • can cause crystalluria w/ renal tubular obstruction

- administering IV fluids concurrently w/ the drug can help reduce the risk of AKI

270
Q

what is the most common form of glomerulopathy associated w/ HIV?

A
  • Collapsing focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis

- typical presentation of FSGS includes nephrotic range proteinuria, azotemia, and normal sized kidneys

271
Q

common causes of nephrotic syndrome

A
  • FSGS
  • minimal change disease
  • membranous nephropathy
  • diabetes
  • primary amyloidosis
  • IgA nephropathy
272
Q

when does postinfectious GN usually occur?

A

-10-21 days after a strep or staph infection

273
Q

Cryoglobulinemia

A
  • immune complex disorder (IgM against anti-hepatitis C virus IgG) most commonly due to chronic hepatitis C
  • Pts may develop vasculitis involving the skin, kidney, nerves, or joints
  • low complement levels, increased rheumatoid factor, increased liver transaminases, serum cryoglobulins, and kidney/skin biopsy can confirm the diagnosis
274
Q

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A
  • due to decreased ADAMTS13 activity
  • fever, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia w/ possible purpura, renal failure, and neuro findings (headache, confusion)
275
Q

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

A
  • due to elevated anti-cardiolipin antibodies
  • pts usually develop findings such as recurrent arterial or venous thrombosis, loss of pregnancy, neuro findings (cognitive deficits), or microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
276
Q

serum protein electrophoresis

A

-can detect abnormally high gamma globulin levels (M protein spike) typically seen in monoclonal gammopathy (ie. multiple myeloma, monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance)

277
Q

Folic acid supplementation is beneficial in pts w/ folate deficiency and hereditary spherocytosis

A

.

278
Q

The anemia of CKD

A
  • due to erythropoietin deficiency
  • one must be careful to ensure adequate iron stores prior to EPO replacement because the EPO-induced surge in RBC production can precipitate an iron-deficient state
279
Q

what is the treatment of choice for cellulitis w/ systemic signs?

A

-IV nafcillin or cefazolin

280
Q

Hydration is the cornerstone of therapy for renal stone disease. A detailed metabolic evaluation is not needed when a patient presents w/ his first renal stone.

A

.

281
Q

Digoxin

A
  • cardiac glycoside w/ adverse effects that include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, vision changes, and arrhythmias
  • pts chronically taking digoxin should have close and routine monitoring of their digoxin levels
282
Q

mild elevations of prolactin in the context of otherwise normal pituitary function are typically due to what?

A
  • medications (ie. certain antipsychotic drugs)

- other causes include: hypothyroidism and renal failure

283
Q

Primary hypothyroidism may cause mild-to-moderate hyperprolactinemia, which is thought to be due to thyrotropin releasing hormone-induced stimulation of lactotrophs
-LH in such pts may be normal or mildly low

A

.

284
Q

Prolactinoma

A
  • the most common primary pituitary tumor

- serum prolactin levels correlate w/ the size of prolactinoma, and levels >200 ng/mL are essentially diagnostic

285
Q

Amiodarone

A

-can cause pulmonary toxicity and should be avoided in pts w/ preexisting lung disease since they have less pulmonary reserve

286
Q

Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV)

A

should be given once to all adults age > or = to 65

  • should also be given to all adults age < 65 w/ chronic cardiovascular, pulmonary, hepatic, renal, or metabolic disease (ie. diabetes) or immunosuppression
  • persons vaccinated before age 65 need a booster 5 years later
287
Q

Acute decompensated heart failure

A
  • can present w/ acute pulmonary edema
  • tx for pts who have normal or elevated BP includes supplemental oxygen, assisted ventilation as needed, aggressive IV diuresis, and possible vasodilator therapy (nitroglycerine, nitroprusside)
288
Q

Graves’ disease vs. Hashimoto thyroiditis

A
  • Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder associated w/ antibodies to the TSH receptor that stimulate release of thyroid hormone
  • Hashimoto thyroiditis is associated w/ thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies and can cause transient hyperthyroidism due to inflammatory destruction of thyroid follicles and release of thyroid hormone
  • the hyperthyroidism in both of these common disorders is TSH independent, and TSH is suppressed
289
Q

Atrial fibrillation can be seen in 10% of patients w/ hyperthyroidism!

A

.

290
Q

Infiltrative ophthalmopathy

A

-from the accumulation of glycosaminoglycans in the retro-orbital muscles and tissue leads to proptosis (as seen in Graves’)

291
Q

Untreated hyperthyroid pts are at risk for what?

A
  • rapid bone loss resulting from increased osteoclastic activity in the bone cells
  • also at risk for cardiac tachyarrhythmias, including atrial fibrillation
292
Q

Bisphosphonates

A

-used for hypercalcemia, osteoporosis prevention, and as an adjunctive tx for certain malignancies (ie multiple myeloma)

293
Q

Dexamethasone

A

-used to treat autoimmune, inflammatory, and allergic conditions, and cerebral edema

294
Q

D5W

A

-hypotonic solution used to treat hypernatremia rather than hyponatremia

295
Q

Effective management of SIADH

A
  • requires the infused fluid to have a higher electrolyte concentration than the urine (not just that of the plasma)!
  • NS (0.9%) has an electrolyte concentration of nearly 300 mOsm/kg, which is only slightly higher than the serum osmolality and leads to NaCl excretion. However, the excessive ADH causes more water retention, further concentrates the urine, dilutes the serum, and worsens hyponatremia. Hypertonic saline (3%) has a concentration of nearly 1025 mOsm/kg and minimizes this effect
296
Q

Sodium bicarb is used to treat what?

A
  • severe metabolic acidosis
  • hyperkalemia
  • some drug overdoses (TCAs)
297
Q

Asymptomatic pts or those w/ mild symptoms from SIADH usually respond to fluid restriction (

A

.

298
Q

other manifestations of ulcerative colitis

A
  • arthritis
  • uveitis
  • erythema nodosum
  • pyoderma gangrenosum
299
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria

A
  • acute presentation, occurs more commonly in females and is episodic (triggered by certain drugs)
  • abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and sweating
  • agitation, anxiety, paraesthesia, and confusion
  • unlike the other porphyrias, there is an absence of photosensitivity in this subtype
300
Q

Pts w/ diabetes for > 10 years can develop diabetic microangiopathy, nephropathy, and glomerulosclerosis. Risk factors include poor glycemic control, elevated BP, smoking, increasing age, and ethnicity (black and mexican). Clinical findings include mild to moderate proteinuria and CKD w/ elevated creatinine.

A

.

301
Q

what is the goal INR in patients w/ prosthetic heart valves?

A

2.5-3.5

302
Q

Warfarin dosing should be adjusted to maintain a goal INR appropriate for the condition being treated. For pts w/ idiopathic VTE or atrial fibrillation, what is the target INR?

A

2.0-3.0

303
Q

Light criteria to classify an exudate

A

must have AT LEAST ONE of the following:

  • pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio >0.5
  • pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio >0.6
  • pleural fluid LDH greater than 2/3 of the upper limit of normal for serum LDH
304
Q

causes of exudative effusions

A
  • infection (pneumonia, TB)
  • malignancy
  • PE
  • connective tissue disease
  • iatrogenic
305
Q

PE should be suspected in all pts at risk for DVT who present w/ acute-onset tachypnea, dyspnea, and chest pain. The diagnostic test of choice is what?

A
  • helical CT scan of chest

- pleural effusions associated w/ PE are usually small and almost always exudative

306
Q

Recurrent pneumonia in the same anatomic location is a red flag for what?

A
  • bronchial obstruction
  • smoking is the primary risk factor for bronchogenic carcinoma
  • CT of the chest is indicated for suspected lung cancer
  • Bronchoscopic or CT guided biopsy may be performed for any suspected lesion seen on CT scan
307
Q

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency

A

-associated w/ peripheral neuropathy, which is usually seen in pts who are on INH therapy for TB

308
Q

Suspected vitamin B12 deficiency in strict vegetarians w/ anemia and neurologic complications. In such pts, folic acid supplementation may correct the anemia, but not the neurologic complications.

A

.

309
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis

A
  • characterized by purplish discoloration of the skin w/ gangrenous changes and systemic signs of toxicity
  • thorough surgical debridement of all the necrotic tissues is the most important therapy
  • empiric antibiotic therapy should cover aerobic and anaerobic organisms (ampicillin and sulbactam plus clindamycin)
310
Q

Thrombophlebitis

A

-palpable, indurated, cord-like, tender, subcutaneous venous segments

311
Q

Erythema induratum

A
  • appears as a nodular eruption in pts w/ TB

- there are crops of small, tender, erythematous nodules involving the shins and calves

312
Q

Alcohol abuse is the most common cause of nutritional folate deficiency in U.S. and would cause megaloblastic anemia.

A

.

313
Q

Diagnostic criteria for SIADH

A
  • Sosm < 270
  • Uosm > Sosm
  • UNa > 20 mEq/L
  • absence of hypovolemia
  • normal renal, adrenal and thyroid function
  • no obvious surgical, traumatic or painful stimulus known to activate the neuroendocrine stress response, including ADH release
  • absence of other known causes of hyponatremia
314
Q

SIADH

A

-characterized by euvolemic hyponatremia, decreased serum osmolarity, elevated urine osmolarity (often greater than serum osmolarity), increased urine sodium concentration, and failure to correct w/ normal saline infusion

315
Q

First-generation H1-antihistamines have potent anticholinergic effects and may cause eye and oropharyngeal dryness as well as urinary retention, especially in older males who may have some underlying BPH.

A

.

316
Q

Detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia

A
  • typically occurs in the setting of neurologic disease
  • the detrusor muscle contracts while the urethral sphincter contracts causing difficulty in initiating urination and inadvertent interruption of the urinary stream
317
Q

Management of hepatic encephalopathy

A
  • supportive care, treating the precipitating cause (volume depletion, electrolyte abnormalities) and lowering serum ammonia.
  • Disaccharides (lactulose, lactitol) are initially preferred for lowering serum ammonia
  • Rifaximin can be added to lactulose in pts w/o improvement after 48 hrs or used as monotherapy in those unable to take lactulose
318
Q

In low risk pts (ie

A

.

319
Q

Cerebral septic emboli are treated with what?

A

antibiotics

320
Q

Histopathologically, demonstration of invasion of the capsule and blood vessels is required for differentiating follicular cancers from follicular adenomas. Follicular thyroid cancers have the propensity to invade blood vessels and metastasize to distal organs. Unlike papillary cancer, follicular cancer is encapsulated, and does not have distinctive nuclear features.

A

.

321
Q

secretion of calcitonin is a feature of what thyroid cancer?

A

medullary

322
Q

Papillary thyroid cancer

A
  • most common thyroid malignancy
  • characterized by a slow, infiltrative local spread affecting other parts of the thyroid gland and regional lymph nodes
  • presence of psammoma bodies are a characteristic histopathological feature
  • FNAB typically reveals large cells w/ ground glass cytoplasm, and pale nuclei w/ inclusion bodies and central grooving
  • unencapsulated
  • prognosis is excellent, even in the presence of metastasis
323
Q

Genetic testing (RET proto-oncogene germline mutation) is more sensitive than biochemical measurement (serum calcitonin) and is the recommended screening test for suspected MEN type 2 syndromes. Total thyroidectomy is indicated for pts w/ positive genetic testing; no further monitoring is required for pts w/ negative testing.

A

.

324
Q

the sudden onset of a sharply-demarcated, erythematous, edematous, tender skin lesion w/ raised borders in a febrile patient suggests what?

A

ERYSIPELAS

-the most frequently implicated organism is group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

325
Q

Amitriptyline

A

-tricyclic antidepressant used to treat depression, insomnia, and neuropathic pain

326
Q

GERD

A
  • characterized by a retrosternal burning sensation after eating and with lying down.
  • it may also be accompanied by hoarseness and chronic cough, especially while recumbant.
  • the initial tx is an H2-receptor antagonist or a PPI
327
Q

what test establishes the diagnosis of diffuse esophageal spasm?

A

-manometry

328
Q

the basic pathology in myasthenia gravis lies at the NMJ (that’s why it’s called myasthenia) and is mediated by auto-antibodies against the ACh receptor.

A

.

329
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome)

A
  • causes hypertension, mild hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis
  • the diagnosis is suggested by low renin and elevated aldosterone levels
330
Q

what is the most common form of nephrotic syndrome associated w/ carcinoma?

A

Membranous nephropathy

331
Q

what is the most common form of nephrotic syndrome seen in pts w/ Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

-Minimal change disease

332
Q

Acute pericarditis can cause what changes on ECG?

A

-ST elevation (diffuse) and PR depression

333
Q

Multiple observational studies have demonstrated that pts w/ hypertension have approximately 4 times the risk of stroke when compared to non-hypertensive subjects.

A

.

334
Q

Hypokalemia

A
  • causes weakness, fatigue, and muscle cramps
  • when severe, it can lead to paralysis and arrhythmia
  • ECG may show U waves, flat and broad T waves, and premature ventricular beats
335
Q

Sodium bicarbonate narrows the QRS complex, preventing the development of arrhythmia in pts w/ tricyclic antidepressant toxicity by alleviating the cardio-depressant action on sodium channels. Sodium bicarb is a critical part of tx in TCA intoxication.

A

.

336
Q

AML

A

-hematogenous disorder w/ increased risk of occurrence in pts w/ underlying myeloproliferative disorders (CML, myelodysplasia) and certain meds (topoisomerase inhibitors)

337
Q

a nonhealing, painless, bleeding skin ulcer that develops associated w/ a chronic scar

A
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • exposure to derivates (from tobacco smoke) or radiation, and immunosuppression (transplant recipients) increase the risk of SCC.
  • biopsy is recommended
338
Q

Persistent diarrhea causes a NON-anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

.

339
Q

Chloride-resistant metabolic alkalosis

A
  • characterized by a urinary chloride level >20 mEq/day and ECF volume expansion
  • some disorders associated w/ this are primary hyperaldosteronism, Bartter syndrome, Gitelman’s syndrome, and excessive black licorice ingestion
  • NOT corrected by saline infusion
340
Q

ALL forms of renal tubular acidosis cause NON-anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

.

341
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A
  • can be classified into 2 broad categories, chloride-sensitive and chloride-resistant, based on urinary chloride levels and ECF volume status
  • chloride-sensitive metabolic alkalosis is associated w/ low urinary chloride excretion (< 20 mEq/day) and volume contraction. volume contraction causes increased mineralocorticoid action, which in turn causes bicarb retention, H+ loss and K+ loss. The urinary chloride remains low due to avid renal retention of NaCl and water
  • common causes: diuretics, loss of gastric secretions, such as w/ surreptitious vomiting.
  • this condition can be corrected w/ saline infusion to restore ECF volume
342
Q

a mobile cavitary mass in the lung, which presents w/ intermittent hemoptysis

A

aspergilloma

343
Q

asthma causes intrapulmonary obstruction. in asthmatics, bronchoconstriction decreases airflow during the passive phase of exhalation, causing flow-volume loops to have a “scooped out” pattern on exhalation

A

.

344
Q

a fixed upper airway obstruction will decrease the airflow rate during inspiration, active expiration, and passive expiration

A

.

345
Q

Cerebellar tumors

A
  • usually produce ipsilateral ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremors, and loss of coordination
  • they will often sway to the AFFECTED side, and may exhibit titubation, which is a forward and backward movement of the trunk
346
Q

Ascending aortic aneurysms are most often due to CYSTIC MEDIAL NECROSIS or CONNECTIVE TISSUE DISORDERS. Descending aortic aneurysms are usually due to ATHEROSCLEROSIS. Chest x-ray can suggest thoracic aortic aneurysm by showing a widened mediastinal silhouette, increased aortic knob, and tracheal deviation.

A

.

347
Q

Pancoast tumor

A

a neoplasm in the pulmonary apex at the thoracic inlet that compresses the inferior portion of the brachial plexus resulting in shoulder pain radiating in an ulnar distribution

348
Q

what meds improve mortality in CHF patients?

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • B-blockers
  • angiotension II receptor blockers
  • spironolactone
349
Q

Acute pancreatitis complication by hypotension, mechanism?

A
  • thought to arise from intravascular volume loss secondary to local and systemic vascular endothelial injury
  • causes vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and plasma leak into the retroperitoneum, resulting in systemic hypotension
350
Q

Massive pulmonary embolism

A

-likely in a postoperative patient w/ jugular venous distention and new-onset right bundle branch block

351
Q

phenytoin toxicity

A

-horizontal nystagmus, cerebellar ataxia, and confusion

352
Q

lithium toxicity

A

-tremor and hyperreflexia, ataxia and seizures

353
Q

benzodiazepine overdose

A
  • slurred speech, unsteady gait and drowsiness
  • distinguished from opioid overdose by the lack of severe respiratory depression and the lack of pupillary constriction
  • furthermore, while alcohol and phenytoin intoxication also share similarities w/ benzo overdose, they can be distinguished by the presence of NYSTAGMUS
354
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A
  • causes a reduced cardiac index and elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure due to ventricular pump failure
  • systemic vascular resistance is typically increased to maintain adequate tissue perfusion pressure
355
Q

a pelvic fracture w/ urethral injury is commonly accompanied by ED. The causes of ED in this case are nerve injury and altered arterial supply.

A

.

356
Q

The nocturnal penile tumescence helps differentiate psychogenic from organic causes of male erectile dysfunction. It is positive in psychogenic causes and negative in organic causes.

A

.

357
Q

HITT (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia)

A
  • Excessive platelet aggregation known to occur in a small percentage of pts started on heparin therapy
  • paradoxical pro-thrombotic state, is autoimmune mediated and can lead to skin necrosis as well as hemorrhage
358
Q

Warfarin

A
  • commonly used for anticoagulation because it can be administered orally
  • during the first few days it is given, it can have a paradoxically pro-coagulant effect in susceptible pts by inhibiting protein C production
  • affected pts may present w/ skin necrosis secondary to thrombus formation
359
Q

The classic triad of renal cell carcinoma (RCC)

A
  • hematuria, abdominal mass, and flank pain

- on abdominal CT, RCC presents as a lesion WITHIN the kidney parenchyma that enhances w/ contrast

360
Q

Cryptosporidium parvum is a major cause of chronic diarrhea in HIV-infected pts w/ CD4 counts less than 180 cells/mm3. It is identified as oocysts in stool that are stained w/ a modified acid-fast stain

A

.

361
Q

G6PD deficiency

A
  • causes hemolytic anemia due to oxidative injury to RBCs
  • hemolytic episodes can be precipitated by infection or medications (esp. sulfa drugs, antimalarials, and nitrofurantoin)
362
Q

Parkinsonism

A
  • caused by overactivity of cholinergic neurons and underactivity of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra
  • a shuffling gait (the pts appears as if he was chasing his center of gravity) is characteristic of the disease
363
Q

a normal of increased FEV1/FVC ratio w/ a low Vital Capacity is seen in restrictive lung disease. The DLco is decreased w/ interstitial lung disease. Neuromuscular disorders are not associated w/ a decreased DLco

A

.

364
Q

Most pts will require pharmacotherapy for BP control, but lifestyle changes can make a significant difference in motivated pts. WEIGHT CONTROL is the most effective intervention in overweight pts. Other effective measures include the DASH DIET, low sodium intake, moderation of alcohol intake, regular moderate exercise, and smoking cessation.

A

.

365
Q

tx of cluster headaches

A
  • sumatriptan and high-flow oxygen

- cluster headaches last longer (minutes) and are accompanied by autonomic symptoms (rhinorrhea, nasal congestion)

366
Q

tx of herpetic neuralgia

A

-acyclovir

367
Q

methotrexate

A

-chemotherapeutic agent used in various disorders of malignancy, vasculitis, and rheumatoid arthritis

368
Q

what is the drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

carbamazepine

369
Q

Parathyroidectomy is recommended for asymptomatic hypercalcemia pts who have at least one of the following clinical features:

A
  • serum calcium level >1 mg/dL above the upper limit of normal
  • young age (< 50 yrs)
  • bone mineral density < T -2.5 at any site
  • reduced renal function (eGFR < 60)
370
Q

The 24 hour urinary calcium can help distinguish Primary Hyperparathyroidism (24hr urinary calcium >250mg) from familial hypercalcemia (

A

.

371
Q

Donepezil

A

-acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to slow the progression of Alzheimer’s dementia

372
Q

normal pressure hydrocephalus

A
  • abnormal gait, incontinence, and dementia

- tx w/ large volume lumbar punctures and, if successful, ventriculoperitoneal shunting

373
Q

sample distortion bias

A

-seen when the estimate of exposure and outcome association is biased because the study sample is not representative of the target population w/ respect to the joint distribution of exposure and outcome

374
Q

Information bias

A
  • occurs due to the imperfect assessment of association between the exposure and outcome as a result of errors in the measurement of exposure and outcome status.
  • can be minimized by using standardized techniques for surveillance and measurement of outcomes, as well as trained observers to measure the exposure and outcome
375
Q

Confounding bias

A
  • occurs due to the presence of one or more variables associated independently w/ both the exposure and the outcome
  • for example, cigarette smoking can be a confounding factor in studying the association between maternal alcohol drinking and low birth weight babies, as cigarette smoking is independently associated w/ both alcohol consumption and low birth weight babies
376
Q

bias can decrease the validity of the study results

A

.

377
Q

Hawthorne effect

A
  • the tendency of the study population to affect the outcome since they are aware that they are being studied
  • think about “nathaniel hawthorne and the scarlet letter”
378
Q

after identifying a primary acid-base disorder, the calculated expected pCO2 or HCO3- should be compared to measured values to distinguish between appropriate compensation and a mixed disorder

A

.

379
Q

what is the most important step in the management of non-ketotic hyperglycemic coma?

A
  • FLUID REPLACEMENT W/ NORMAL SALINE
  • switch to 0.45% NS after NS
  • 5% dextrose once blood glucose levels lowered to 250 mg/dl by insulin therapy
380
Q

If a patient presents w/ priapism, always check the meds first. This symptom is often drug-induced. The most common drug that causes Priapism is Prazosin, although for the boards, its important to remember the association of priapism w/ TRAZODONE (“trazo-bone”)

A

.

381
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea

A
  • under-diagnosed in the obese population
  • snoring, daytime sleepiness, and apneic episodes during sleep should raise suspicion for OSA
  • affected pts are at risk for hypertension, heart disease, cor pulmonale, and accidents
  • Polysomnography is used for diagnosis!!
382
Q

TMJ dysfunction

A
  • can result in referred pain to the ear that is worsened w/ chewing
  • pts typically report a hx of nocturnal teeth grinding
383
Q

A lesion in the upper thoracic spinal cord

A

-results in paraplegia, bladder and rectal incontinence, and absent sensation from the nipple downwards

384
Q

embolic strokes usually have a sudden onset w/ maximal symptoms at the beginning. they occur more commonly in pts w/ a hx of structural cardiac disease (a. fib, endocarditis). pts w/ a. fib PLUS existing structural heart disease have an increased risk of cardioembolic strokes.

A

.

385
Q

Paget disease of bone

A
  • characterized by increased bone remodeling and abnormal osteoid formation
  • pts may be asymptomatic or present w/ headaches, deafness, neuropathy, or bone/back pain
  • lab data show elevated alk phosph but normal calcium, phosphorus, and other liver enzymes
386
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism

A
  • should be suspected in any hypertensive patient presenting w/ low renin levels
  • pts typically develop hypertension, mild hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis
  • the elevated aldosterone suppresses renin secretion through a feedback inhibition
387
Q

Hemochromatosis

A
  • associated w/ calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition in joints, leading to chondrocalcinosis and associated symptoms including acute episodic synovitis (pseudogout) and chronic arthropathy.
  • other manifestations include diabetes, hyperpigmentation, dilated cardiomyopathy, and liver disease w/ hepatomegaly and fibrosis.
  • Diagnosis is suggested by iron overload on serum iron studies, and can be confirmed by genetic tests (HFE) or liver biopsy
  • the primary treatment is phlebotomy
388
Q

The receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve of a quantitative diagnostic test demonstrates the trade-off between the test’s sensitivity and specificity at various cutoff points. Changing the cutoff point to increase the true-positive rate (directly proportional to sensitivity) will also increase the false-positive rate (inversely proportional to specificity).

A

.

389
Q

Pts w/ non-inflammatory chronic prostatitis

A
  • afebrile and have irritative voiding symptoms
  • expressed prostatic secretions show a normal number of leukocytes and culture of these secretions is negative for bacteria
390
Q

CHA2DS2-VASc score

A
  • recommended for assessment of stroke risk in pts w/ nonvalvular atrial fibrillation
  • Congestive heart failure (1), Hypertension (1), Age >75 (2), Diabetes mellitus (1), Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism (2), Vascular disease (prior MI, peripheral artery disease, or aortic plaque; 1), Age 65-74 (1), Sex category (female, 1). Max score of 9
  • Score of 0 = low risk = no antithrombotics
  • Score of 1 = intermediate = none or aspirin or oral anticoagulants
  • Score of 2 or greater = high = oral anticoagulants
391
Q

70% of cases w/ interstitial nephritis are caused by drugs such as cephalosporins, penicillins, sulfonamides, sulfonamide containing diuretics, NSAIDs, rifampin, phenytoin, and allopurinol. Discontinuing the offending agent is the tx of drug-induced interstitial nephritis. Symptoms include fever, rash, and arthralgias.

A

.

392
Q

pulsus paradoxus

A
  • defined as an exaggerated fall in systemic blood pressure > 10 mmHg during inspiration.
  • its a frequent finding in cardiac tamponade but can also occur in conditions w/o pericardial effusion such as SEVERE ASTHMA or COPD (think of lungs expanding and preventing heart from filling during inspiration)
393
Q

muddy brown granular cast

A

ATN

394
Q

RBC cast

A

-glomerulonephritis

395
Q

WBC cast

A

-Interstitial nephritis and pyelonephritis

396
Q

Fatty casts

A

-nephrotic syndrome

397
Q

broad and waxy casts

A

-chronic renal failure

398
Q

findings in ATN

A
  • BUN/Cr ratio less than 20:1
  • Urine osmolality of 300-350 (but never < 300)
  • urine Na of > 20
  • FENa > 2%
399
Q

tx for primary syphilis

A
  • single dose of IM benzathine penicillin G
  • in nonpregnant pts w/ penicillin allergy, a 2 week course of doxycycline can be used
  • pregnant pts w/ penicillin allergy should undergo desensitization before penicillin therapy
400
Q

Pts w/ massive pulmonary embolism usually present w/ signs of low arterial perfusion (ie hypotension, syncope) and acute dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia. The thrombus increases pulmonary vascular resistance and right ventricular pressure, causing right ventricular hypokinesis and dilation, decreased preload, and hypotension

A

.

401
Q

HIV pts w/ odynophagia and visible oral thrush likely have candidal esophagitis and should receive 1-2 weeks of empiric oral fluconazole therapy. If symptoms persist or no thrush is apparent, endoscopy w/ biopsy should be performed. Herpes simplex esophagitis is characterized by small, well-circumscribed round/ovoid ulcers and intranuclear inculsions; it is treated w/ acyclovir. CMV esophagitis is characterized by large linear ulcers and intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions; its treated w/ GANGICLOVIR.

A

.

402
Q

statins

A

-inhibit intracellular HMG-CoA reductase enzyme, prevent conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonic acid, and increase the number of cell membrane LDL receptors. Statins also decrease coenzyme Q10 synthesis, which is involved in muscle cell energy production and possibly contributes to statin-induced myopathy.

403
Q

an elevated A-a gradient is commonly seen in pts w/ pulmonary embolism

A

.

404
Q

septic shock

A
  • decrease in systemic vascular resistance due to overall peripheral vasodilation
  • low PCWP, low SVR, increased CO, high mixed venous oxygen saturation
405
Q

sodium thiosulfate

A
  • antidote for cyanide poisoning, generally seen in the setting of fires or occupational exposure (mining, pesticides)
  • pts w/ cyanide poisoning have markedly elevated lactate levels (typically > 10 mEq/L)
406
Q

Ethylene glycol

A
  • associated w/ hypocalcemia and calcium oxalate deposition in the kidneys
  • leads to flank pain, hematuria, oliguria, AKI, and anion gap metabolic acidosis
  • tx involves administration of FOMEPIZOLE or ETHANOL to inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase, sodium bicarb to alleviate the acidosis, and hemodialysis in cases of severe acidosis and/or end-organ damage
407
Q

viral arthritis

A
  • can present w/ symmetric small joint inflammatory arthritis
  • its distinguished from other causes of symmetric inflammatory arthritis by the fact that it tends to resolve within two months
  • positive inflammatory markers such as ANA and rheumatoid factor may occur
  • Tx involves use of NSAIDs for resolution of symptoms
  • antiviral therapy is unnecessary as the symptoms are self-limited
408
Q

vitamin B12 deficiency is common after a total or partial gastrectomy. Its a necessary cofactor in the pathway leading to purine synthesis. B12 deficiency decreases DNA synthesis and erythropoiesis, leading to megaloblastic anemia

A

.

409
Q

TCA overdose

A
  • characterized by CNS depression, hypotension, hyperthermia, and anticholinergic effects including dilated pupils, dry flushed skin, and intestinal ileus.
  • also causes QRS prolongation on EKG, leaving the patient susceptible to ventricular arrhythmias
  • by obtaining an EKG and evaluating the QRS complex, the physician can obtain valuable prognostic info; namely the likelihood of developing arrhythmia and seizure
  • Sodium bicarb shortens the QRS interval in TCA overdose, decreasing the likelihood of arrhythmia
410
Q

HIV and hepatitis C infection should be suspected in patients w/ weight loss and history of IV drug abuse! Patients w/ HIV are at risk of developing depression and dementia

A

.

411
Q

Wernicke encephalopathy is the acute neurologic complication of thiamine deficiency, with confusion, nystagmus, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Korsakoff syndrome is the chronic complication, w/ short term memory loss and confabulations

A

.

412
Q

what is the preferred study for the diagnosis of melanoma?

A
  • EXCISIONAL BIOPSY WITH NARROW MARGINS
  • if the depth of the lesion is less than 1mm, the melanoma can be excised w/ a 1 cm tumor free margin and they have a 99% 5-year survival
  • tumors greater than 1 mm in depth should have a sentinel lymph node study
413
Q

what is the drug of choice in pts who present w/ hypertension and a benign essential tremor?

A

Propranolol

414
Q

when pts present w/ symptoms suggesting an increased intracranial pressure, always do neuroimaging (ie CT) before doing an LP to avoid any chances of herniation.

A

.

415
Q

Amaurosis fugax

A
  • painless loss of vision from emboli, and is a warning sign for an impending stroke
  • most emboli occur from the carotid bifurcation; hence, a duplex ultrasound of the neck should be performed
416
Q

Aminoglycosides are antibiotics used to treat serious gram-negative infections. They are potentially nephrotoxic and drug levels and renal function must be monitored closely during therapy.

A

.

417
Q

Primary HIV infection

A

-can present w/ a mononucleosis-like syndrome consisting of fever, night sweats, lymphadenopathy, arthralgias, and diarrhea

418
Q

most hypercalcemic pts are asymptomatic and identified only through routine chemistry testing. In asymptomatic pts, a single elevated serum calcium level must always be confirmed by a second serum calcium value. After hypercalcemia has been confirmed, the next step is to distinguish between parathyroid hormone mediated and non-PTH mediated hypercalcemia.

A

.

419
Q

Whipple’s disease

A

-multi-systemic illness characterized by arthalgias, weight loss, fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. PAS-positive material in the lamina propria of the small intestine is a classical biopsy finding of Whipple’s disease.

420
Q

Most colon cancers develop from polyps. The risk factors for a polyp progressing into malignancy are villous adenoma, sessile adenoma, and size > 2.5 cm. Only adenomatous polyps are clearly premalignant, but

A

.

421
Q

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A

-characterized by the sudden onset of target-shaped, mucocutaneous lesions and systemic signs of toxicity. The pathology involves immune complex mediated hypersensitivity

422
Q

Pts suffering from ankylosing spondylitis for 2 decades or longer are at an increased risk of vertebral fracture due to decreased bone mineral density. Vertebral fractures in these pts may occur w/ minimal trauma; therefore, the clinical suspicion for vertebral fracture in pts w/ longstanding ankylosing spondylitis must be high

A

.

423
Q

Ramsay Hunt syndrome

A

-herpes zoster infection in the ear that presents w/ facial nerve palsy and vesicles in the auditory canal and auricle

424
Q

Malignant otitis externa

A
  • serious infection of the ear seen in elderly pts w/ poorly controlled diabetes, and is most commonly caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. -the characteristic presentation consists of ear pain and ear drainage, and granulation tissue may be seen within the ear canal on exam
  • progression of the infection can lead to osteomyelitis of the skull base and destruction of the facial nerve
425
Q

Delirium

A
  • acute confusional state characterized by a reduced or fluctuating level of consciousness, along w/ inabilitiy to sustain attention, anxiety, agitation, and/or hallucinations.
  • common precipitating causes of delirium include infections (UTI), polypharmacy, medication side effects, volume depletion, and electrolyte or metabolic disturbance
426
Q

The classic triad of carcinoid syndrome

A
  • flushing, diarrhea, and wheezing
  • tx w/ surgical resection or octreotide injection
  • pathognomic plaque-like deposits of fibrous tissue occur most commonly on the endocardium on the right side of the heart
427
Q

tx for torsades de pointes

A

magnesium sulfate

428
Q

tx for organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine and pralidoxime

429
Q

TCA overdose

A
  • CNS depression, hypotension, and other anticholinergic effects including dilated pupils, hyperthermia, and intestinal ileus.
  • can also cause QRS prolongation on EKG, leaving the pt susceptible to ventricular arrhythmias
  • stabilize ABC’s and give sodium bicarb to improve BP, shorten QRS interval, and prevent arrhythmia
430
Q

typical EKG findings of acute pericarditis

A

-diffuse ST elevation that is typically concave up, and elevation of the PR segment in lead aVR

431
Q

Indications for hemodialysis

A
  1. Refractory hyperkalemia
  2. Volume overload or pulmonary edema not responding to diuretics
  3. Refractory metabolic acidosis (< 7.2)
  4. Uremic pericarditis
  5. Uremic encephalopathy or neuropathy
  6. Coagulopathy due to renal failure
432
Q

Aspirin sensitivity syndrome

A
  • believed to be a pseudo-allergic reaction
  • results from aspirin-induced prostaglandin/leukotriene misbalance in susceptible individuals
  • tx includes avoidance of NSAIDs and the use of leukotriene receptor antagonists (drug of choice)
433
Q

The most common renal vascular lesions seen in hypertension are arteriosclerotic lesions of afferent and efferent renal arterioles and glomerular capillary tufts. Diabetes mellitus nephropathy is characterized by increased extracellular matrix, basement membrane thickening, mesangial expansion, and fibrosis.

A

.

434
Q

Chronic GI disease can cause vitamin D deficiency due to malabsorption. Pts usually develop hypocalcemia, low phosphorus, and elevated PTH. Pts can be asymptomatic or complain of bone pain or tenderness, muscle weakness or cramps, and gait abnormalities.

A

.

435
Q

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A
  • most common cause of vertigo
  • triggered by changes in head position, and the diagnosis is confirmed w/ the Dix-Hallpike maneuver (vertigo and nystagmus on quickly lying back into a supine position w/ the head rotated 45 degrees)
  • note that dizziness related to CV causes (arrhythmia, aortic stenosis, hypovolemia) is usually due to global cerebral hypoperfusion and presents as lightheadedness or near-syncope rather than true vertigo
436
Q

Cavernous hemangiomas of the brain and viscera

A

von Hippel-Lindau disease

437
Q

Cystic hygromas

A

Turner syndrome

438
Q

Cherry hemangiomas

A
  • small red cutaneous papules common in aging adults
  • do not regress spontaneously and typically increase in # w/ age
  • light microscopy of these lesions shows proliferation of capillaries and postcapillary venules in the papillary dermis
439
Q

Increased gut absorption of lactic acid may occur in cases of intestinal blind loop syndrome where excessive production and absorption of D-lactate causes a hypochloremic metabolic acidosis

A

.

440
Q

Lactic acidosis resulting from poor oxygen delivery to the tissues is known as type A lactic acidosis. Causes include CO poisoning and circulatory failure (shock).

A

.

441
Q

Suspect multiple myeloma in an elderly patient w/ anemia, renal failure, and hypercalcemia

A

.

442
Q

Pts who develop serious bleeding (ie intracerebral hemorrhage) due to excess anticoagulation w/ warfarin should be given fresh frozen plasma for the rapid reversal of anticoagulation.

A

.

443
Q

evaluation of dyspepsia

A
  • pts w/ dyspepsia who have risk factors for gastric or esophageal cancer- age >55, weight loss, gross or occult bleeding, anemia, dysphagia, or early satiety- should be evaluated w/ upper GI endoscopy
  • Pts w/ NSAID induced dyspepsia should receive a PPI
  • Pts from high-prevalence areas or w/ possible exposure to H. pylori may have testing for active infection and treatment as an initial step
444
Q

Diastolic and continuous murmurs as well as loud systolic murmurs revealed on cardiac auscultation should always be investigated using TTE. Midsystolic soft murmurs (grade I-II/VI) in an asymptomatic young patient are usually benign and need no further work-up.

A

.

445
Q

Anaphylactic reactions to transfused blood products are characterized by rapid onset (within seconds to minutes) of respiratory distress and hypotension, which quickly progress to respiratory failure and shock. Individuals w/ IgA deficiency are at risk due to the presence of anti-IgA antibodies. Acute management includes epinephrine and circulatory and respiratory support.

A

.

446
Q

Drug-induced type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are immediate onset and mediated by IgE and mast cells/basophils. Mild manifestations of a drug allergy (ie urticaria and pruritis w/o systemic symptoms) are usually treated w/ antihistamines and discontinuation of the offending drug.

A

.

447
Q

Elevated serum alk phos levels are indicative of cholestasis. These pts (w/ or w/o hyperbilirubinemia) should be evaluated w/ RUQ ultrasound to assess for intrahepatic or extrahepatic causes of biliary obstruction.

A

.

448
Q

prophylaxis against Mycobacterium avium complex in HIV-positive patients w/ CD4+ T cell counts less than 50?

A

Azithromycin

449
Q

Fluconazole

A

-used for prophylaxis against Cryptococcus neoformans and Coccidioides immitis in HIV positive pts who have had these diseases in the past. It is also used in pts w/ frequent Candida infections

450
Q

TMP/SMX is used in HIV positive pts to prevent opportunistic infections caused by Pneumocystis jiroveci and T. gondii.

A

.

451
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis

A
  • usually autosomal dominant disorder that presents w/ the classic triad of hemolytic anemia, jaundice, and splenomegaly
  • lab studies show spherocytes on peripheral blood smear, anemia w/ reticulocytosis, low MCV, and an increased MCHC
  • splenectomy can improve anemia and reduce gallstone risk in most pts
452
Q

Gastric contents are rich in hydrogen, chloride, and potassium. Therefore vomiting causes hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia. Bicarb levels rise as a result of hydrogen loss and activation of the RAAS. The administration of isotonic sodium chloride and potassium is used to reverse these electorlyte abnormalities.

A

.

453
Q

Hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased PTH levels are characteristic biochemical abnormalities of secondary hyperparathyroidism in chronic renal failure.

A

.

454
Q

In atrial fibrillation w/ rapid ventricular response, rate control should be attempted w/ beta blockers or calcium channel blockers. Immediate synchronized electrical cardioversion is indicated in hemodynamically unstable pts w/ rapid atrial fibrillation.

A

.

455
Q

indicators of a severe asthma attack

A
  • normal or increased PCO2 values
  • speech difficulties
  • diaphoresis
  • altered sensorium
  • cyanosis
  • “silent” lungs
456
Q

Pts w/ new-onset atrial fibrillation should have TSH and free T4 levels measured to screen for occult hyperthyroidism as an underlying cause.

A

.

457
Q

Know that low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase w/ leukocytosis is classic for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML).

A

.

458
Q

Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase is present in hairy cell leukemia!

A

.

459
Q

Hyperkalemia is a medical emergency! Therapy involves what 3 steps?

A

-membrane stabilization w/ calcium
-shifting potassium intracellularly
-decreasing total body potassium content
Insulin/glucose administration is the quickest way to decrease the serum potassium concentration

460
Q

Initial hematuria suggests urethral damage. Terminal hematuria indicates bladder or prostatic damage, and total hematuria reflects damage in the kidney or ureters. Clots are not usually seen w/ renal causes of hematuria.

A

.

461
Q

Pts w/ Hashimoto’s thyroiditis are at increased risk for developing what?

A

Thyroid lymphoma

462
Q

Fat malabsorption predisposes to the formation of calcium oxalate stones because it leads to increased absorption of oxalic acid because the unabsorbed fatty acids chelate calcium, making oxalic acid free for absorption.

A

.

463
Q

75%-90% of kidney stones are what type?

A

calcium oxalate

464
Q

Calcium phosphate stones are common in what conditions?

A
  • primary hyperparathyroidism

- renal tubular acidosis

465
Q

Struvite stones

A

formed when urine is ALKALINE because of infection w/ urease producing bacteria (ie Proteus)

466
Q

Cysteine stones

A

formed when there is increased excretion of cysteine, which is an inborn error of metabolism

467
Q

Uric acid stones

A

formed when the urine is ACIDIC or when there is increased cell turnover, thereby resulting in hyperuricemia and hyperuricosuria. Dehydration is another important risk factor.

468
Q

Colicky flank pain w/ radiation to the groin indicates renal colic. 75-90% of the kidney stones are composed of calcium oxalate. Small bowel disease, surgical resection or chronic diarrhea can lead to malabsorption of fatty acids and bile salts; this in turn predisposes to the formation of calcium oxalate stones.

A

.

469
Q

what is the single most important prognostic consideration in the treatment of pts w/ breast cancer?

A

Tumor burden as based on the TNM staging system

470
Q

A supervised graded exercise program is the most useful intervention to improve functional capacity and reduce symptomatic claudication in pts w/ peripheral artery disease. Antiplatelet agents (ie aspirin, clopidogrel) reduce overall cardiovascular mortality. Lipid-lowering therapy w/ statins should also be given to all pts w/ clinically significant atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease.

A

.

471
Q

Fatty liver (steatosis), alcoholic hepatitis and early fibrosis of the liver can be reversible w/ the cessation of alcohol intake. True cirrhosis (w/ regenerative nodules) is irreversible, regardless of alcohol abstinence.

A

.

472
Q

Analgesic nephropathy

A
  • most common form of drug-induced chronic renal failure
  • papillary necrosis and chronic tubulointerstitial nephritis are the most common pathologies seen
  • Pts w/ chronic analgesic abuse are also more likely to develop premature aging, atherosclerotic vascular disease, and urinary tract cancer
473
Q

Unilateral varicoceles that fail to empty when a patient is recumbant raise suspicion for an underlying mass pathology, such as renal cell carcinoma (RCC), that obstructs venous flow. CT scan of the abdomen is the most sensitive and specific test for diagnosing RCC.

A

.

474
Q

Pyridoxine supplementation should be given to patients taking isoniazid therapy

A

.

475
Q

Hemolytic anemia in a patient w/ a malignant lymphoproliferative disorder is likely to be of the warm autoimmune type, caused by anti-red blood cell IgG antibodies. If prednisone therapy is ineffective, splenectomy is usually indicated.

A

.

476
Q

Development of AV block in a patient w/ infective endocarditis should raise suspicion for what?

A
  • Perivalvular abscess extending into the adjacent cardiac conduction tissues
  • aortic valve endocarditis and IV drug abuse are associated w/ an increased risk of periannular extension of endocarditis
477
Q

The best initial screening test for pts w/ suspected adrenal insufficiency are early-morning cortisol, ACTH, and cosyntropin (analogue of ACTH) stimulation. An increase in serum cortisol levels >20, 30-60 minutes after the administration of 250 ug cosyntropin virtually rules out primary adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison’s disease)

A

.

478
Q

The development of clubbing and sudden-onset joint arthropathy in a chronic smoker is suggestive of what?

A
  • Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
  • this condition is often associated w/ lung cancer, and therefore a chest x-ray is indicated to rule out malignancy and/or other lung pathology
479
Q

Gonadotropin-independent (peripheral) precocious puberty

A
  • LH levels are low at baseline and do NOT increase after stimulation w/ a GNRH agonist (the pump has to be primed first to put out gonadotropins right away in children)
  • advanced bone age, coarse axillary and pubic hair, and severe cystic acne are seen in late-onset (nonclassic) congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency
480
Q

Idiopathic precocious puberty

A
  • characterized by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis
  • accounts for 80% of gonadotropin-dependent precocious puberty and occurs almost exclusively in girls
  • basal levels of LH are usually elevated and will increase w/ GnRH stimulation
481
Q

Anemia of prematurity

A
  • most common cause of anemia in preterm infants
  • due to diminished EPO levels, shortened RBC life span, and blood loss from phlebotomy
  • lab studies show decreased Hgb and Hct and a relatively low reticulocyte count
482
Q

Acute otitis media

A
  • common cause of otalgia and is characterized by the presence of middle ear effusion and signs of eardrum inflammation
  • fluid in the middle ear space limits eardrum mobility on pneumatic insufflation
  • bulging is the most specific sign of eardrum inflammation
483
Q

Cholesteatoma

A
  • abnormal growth of squamous epithelium in the middle ear

- large growths can damage the ossicles, resulting in conductive hearing loss

484
Q

chronic suppurative otitis media

A
  • common pediatric problem

- hearing loss, tympanic membrane perforation, otorrhea > 6 wks

485
Q

Acute liver failure (fulminant hepatitis)

A
  • defined as acute onset of severe liver injury w/ encephalopathy and impaired synthetic function (INR > 1.5) in a pt w/o cirrhosis or underlying liver disease
  • most commonly due to drugs (acetaminophen) and viral hepatitis (hep A and B)
  • pts w/ rapidly rpogressing liver failure can have DECREASING transaminases (less functional liver tissue) w/ WORSENING PT/INR (most important prognostic factor) and bilirubin
486
Q

chronic supraphysiologic doses of glucocorticoids cause central adrenal insufficiency (AI). Lab studies typically show low ACTH and cortisol levels and a relatively normal aldosterone level. In contrast, pts w/ primary AI have elevated ACTH, low aldosterone, and significant electrolyte effects (hyponatremia, hyperkalemia).

A

.

487
Q

ash-leaf spots

A

-tuberous sclerosis

488
Q

port-wine stain

A

Sturge-Weber syndrome

489
Q

Mongolian spots

A

-commonly found in African, Asian, Hispanic, and Native American infants and usually fade spontaneously during childhood