Intentional Torts Flashcards

1
Q

Two Definitions of Intent

A
  1. A desire to cause a contact

2. Knowledge that a contact is substantially certain to result from doing the thing

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2
Q

Explain Garret v. Dailey

A

Court held: since the child was well aware of what happens when you pull a chair out from under someone, he must have been substantially certain that pulling the chair out from under his elderly aunt would cause her to make a contact with the ground

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3
Q

Are children capable of intent?

A

Yes, children are capable of intent but not infants. The age is subjective and varies with jurisdiction

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4
Q

Single v. Dual Intent

A
  1. Single intent is only the intent to cause a contact. One doesn’t need to intend for the contact to cause harm
  2. Dual intent means that one must both intend to make a contact and for that contract to cause harm
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5
Q

Does a mistake regarding the identify of the plaintiff vitiate intent?

A

No, mistake as to the identify of the one on the receiving end of the contact does not vitiate intent.

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6
Q

Explain Ranson v. Kitner

A

Court held that the defendant had intended to shoot the plaintiffs dog even though he believed in good faith that the dog was a wolf while they were on a hunting trip

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7
Q

Does insanity/mental illness vitiate intent?

A

No, public policy requires that we hold the mentally ill liable for intentional torts, we would rather put the burden on the one’s who committed the act as opposed to the plaintiff

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8
Q

Explain Mcguire v. Almy

A

Court that held that a mentally insane patient had committed the intentional torts of assault and battery when she verbally threatened to kill a nurse and then hit her with the leg of a chair

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9
Q

Does intoxication vitiate intent?

A

Absolutely not

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10
Q

Does unexpected incapacitation negate liability for intentional torts?

A

Usually yes, but the incapacitation must truly be unexpected and unforeseeable

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11
Q

Explain Cohen v. Petty

A

A car driver suddenly fell ill at the wheel, passed out, crashed the car, and the passengers sued for battery claiming that the driver was substantially certain getting behind the wheel would lead to this result. Court held that the driver had no possible way of knowing he would suddenly and unforeseeable fall ill at the will, thus the unexpected incapacitation negates any intentional tort liability. There still could be a negligence claim, however.

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12
Q

Does intent transfer? If so, explain how

A
  1. Intent transfers between the original 5 trespass torts (assault, battery, false imprisonment, trespass to land, trespass to chattels)
  2. Intent also transfers between individuals
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13
Q

Explain how intent transferred in Talmage v. Smith

A

Smith intended to throw a stick and hit boy A, but the stick hits boy B instead. Even though Smith never actually intended to hit boy B, the intent to hit boy A transferred once the stick hit boy B

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14
Q

What are the elements of battery?

A
  1. Intent to cause a contact
  2. Contact must be harmful or offensive and must be unconsented to
  3. Contact must be of the plaintiff’s person or effects
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15
Q

Explain the distinction between a gentle touch and a battery from Wallace v. Rosen

A

In Rosen, the court held that the defendant had not committed a battery when they tapped the plaintiff on the shoulder to get their attention during a school fire drill.

In determining whether a contact is battery or just a gentle touch, consider if the contact would be “offensive to an ordinary person not unduly sensitive as to personal dignity”

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16
Q

In a battery, does the contact have to be between the bodies of the plaintiff and the defendant?

A

No, not necessarily.

  1. Blowing smoke in someone’s face knowing they are allergic to it - battery
  2. Snatching a ten dollar-bill from someone’s hand - battery
  3. Stealing a package out of a suspected shoplifter’s hand and opening it - battery
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17
Q

Explain Fisher v. Carousel Motor Hotel

A

Court found defendant liable for battery after he grabbed a plate out of the plaintiff’s hand and uttered a racial slur at him in public.

If the defendant makes a contact with an object intrinsically connected to the plaintiffs person, such as a hat or an object held in their hand, this may be a battery. Consider whether the action would offend an ordinary person’s sense of “personal dignity”

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18
Q

What are the elements of assault?

A
  1. Intent to cause an apprehension or anticipation of a contact
  2. The apparent present ability of the defendant to cause the contact
  3. A threatening gesture (usually) from the defendant that causes
  4. Well-founded (reasonable) anticipation of an unconsented imminent contact
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19
Q

How do you determine if a defendant had the apparent ability to make a contact in an assault cause of action? Remember Western Union v. Hill

A

There is a reasonableness standard for determining whether a defendant actually had the apparent ability to make a contact.

In Hill, the court determined that the man behind the counter at a clock repair shop had the apparent ability to reach over and make a contact with the plaintiff, even if the evidence showed that he was a few feet too far away to “actually” make a contact. Still assault because the plaintiff reasonably believed the man could reach her.

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20
Q

In an assault cause of action, when must the contact be anticipated to occur?

A

The anticipated contact must be imminent. Future threats are not assault. Conditional threats may or may not be assault depending on the circumstances:

“move out of the way or I’ll punch you” - likely assault

“you have three days to move out of my town or else I’m gonna take care of you” - not assault

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21
Q

What is the words alone rule when taking about assault?

A

Words alone are not enough to constitute assault but instead need an accompanying gesture

Saying “I’m gonna kill you” with no gesture - probably not assault

Reaching into your pocket while in an argument - probably not assault

saying I’m gonna kill you while reaching into your pocket during an argument - probably assault

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22
Q

What are the elements of false imprisonment?

A
  1. An intent to confine another
  2. The confinement was unconsented and within boundaries fixed by the defendant, with no reasonable exit
  3. The defendant used unreasonable force, threat of force, or false assertion of authority to do the confining
  4. The plaintiff must have knowledge of the confinement or (in some jurisdictions) the resulting harm
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23
Q

Classic example of false imprisonment - Big Town Nursing v. Newman

A

Nursing home forbids resident to leave, locks him up in a ward, doesn’t let him make any phone calls)

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24
Q

Explain awareness of the confinement in a false imprisonment cause of action - Paris v. City of Kingston

A

Awareness at the time of confinement is enough, even if a plaintiff can’t remember afterwards

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25
Q

In a false imprisonment cause of action, what does it mean to have a reasonable exit - Hardy v. LaBelles Distributing Co.

A

Reasonable exit means that you can physically leave the premises without harm to life or limb, and you are not under threat of force to stay

In Hardy, there was no false imprisonment just because the plaintiff felt compelled to stay, she had a reasonable and safe exit (the door to the office) but chose not to leave

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26
Q

Give an example where exercising legal authority is improper with regards to false imprisonment - Enright v. Groves

A

Court held that defendant police officer falsely imprisoned the plaintiff when he arrested her after she refused to produce her drivers license. This wasn’t a traffic stop and there was no legal obligation for her to produce the license. Thus, false imprisonment when he took her to jail

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27
Q

In a false imprisonment claim, does the confinement have to be four walls with a door? Are there other types of confinement - Whitaker v. Sanford

A

Confinement does not necessarily have to be four walls with a locked door. The fact that it’s implausible for the plaintiff to leave may be grounds for false imprisonment

In Sanford, defendant refused to let woman off a boat that was parked in harbor. She was not physically restrained from leaving, but she would have to swim a great distance to get to shore, thus it was an abstract form of false imprisonment.

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28
Q

What the elements of intentional infliction of emotional distress (IIED)

A
  1. Intention (or recklessness) to cause emotional distress
  2. Defendant’s extreme and outrageous conduct
  3. Which caused the plaintiff to experience
  4. Severe emotional distress
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29
Q

How do you show that the emotional distress was severe in an IIED cause of action - Harris v. Jones

A

A general rule of thumb to determine if the distress was severe: ask if no reasonable person could be expected to endure it

Physical manifestations of the emotional distress are another way to prove that it’s severe

In Harris, the plaintiff threw up, fell ill, and missed work for several days because of threatened by his union

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30
Q

How do mere verbal insults factor into a claim for IIED - Slocum v. Food Stores

A

Mere insults are not enough for IEED. The test is whether the words or conduct would cause sever emotional distress to a person of ordinary sensibilities, in the absence of special knowledge

In Slocum, defendant had not committed IIED after he insulted the plaintiff in his store and the plaintiff had a heart attack. The heart-attack was related to pre-existing conditions and a person of reasonable sensibilities could handle the comments the defendant made. Defendant also had no reason to know of the woman’s special sensibilities, so no IIED.

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31
Q

Do bystanders have a claim for IIED - Taylor v. Vallelunga

A

Generally no recovery for a third-party’s’ emotional distress even though it can be shown to be substantially certain to follow one’s actions towards another.

In vallelunga, the daughter of the plaintiff had no claim for IIED when she witnessed the defendant assault her father. Defendant had know idea that the daughter was even there.

32
Q

What the elements of trespass to land?

A
  1. Defendant’s affirmative act of entering
  2. Defendant’s intent to enter (mistake as to who owns the land doesn’t negate the intent)
  3. Possessory interest of another in the land is invaded by the entrance
33
Q

Do you have to show damages in claim for trespass to land - Dougherty v. Stepp

A

No need to prove damages in a trespass to land claim

In Stepp, defendant still liable for trespass after they entered plaintiff’s property and surveyed the land, even though they did not alter or damage it in any way

34
Q

Is the space above and the ground below a property protected from trespass - Herrin v. Sutherland

A

Yes! Both are protected against trespass.

In Sutherland, the defendant “entered” and committed a trespass against the plaintiff’s property when he shot his gun at ducks flying over the land.

35
Q

Explain Rogers. v Board of Road Comrs. for Kent County

A

When one consents to the presence of a structure or chattel on his property and that structure or chattel is not removed after the consent is revoked or terminated, he may recover for damages resulting from its continued presence

In Kent County, the plaintiff consented to having a snow fence placed on his property by the defendant. However, the defendant failed to remove the fence after the plaintiff had asked him to, and the plaintiff’s husband was killed by an accident relating to the fence.

36
Q

What are the elements of trespass to chattels?

A
  1. Defendant’s intent to invade the plaintiff’s chattel interests
  2. Affirmative “minor” invasion of plaintiff’s chattel interests
  3. Which caused damages (only where intermeddling and not dispossession occurs)
37
Q

In a trespass to chattels cause of action, what exactly is a “minor” invasion of a chattel interest?

A
  1. Dispossession
  2. Chattel is impaired as to its condition, quality, or value
  3. Possessor is deprived of the use of the chattel for a substantial time
  4. As a result of defendant’s actions towards the chattel, bodily harm is caused to the possessor, or a harm is caused to some person or thing in which the possessor has a legally protected interest
38
Q

In a cause of action for trespass to chattels, what is one way that a defendant can intermeddle with a chattel without making any physical contact- CompuServe v. Cyber Promotions

A

All that matters is that there is an interference with the property as a direct or “indirect” result of an act done by the actor

In CompuServe, the defendant’s excessive sending of spam email to plaintiff’s server impaired the “condition, quality, and value” of the server. This was a non-physical trespass to chattels claim.

39
Q

Explain damages in the context of a trespass to chattel - Glidden v. Syzbiak

A

In the case of intermeddling and not dispossession, there have to be actual damages

In Syzbiak, the Court ruled there was no trespass to chattels since the defendant did not “damage” the plaintiff’s property - a dog - by pulling on its ears and riding it for a short amount of time.

40
Q

What are the elements of conversion?

A
  1. Defendant’s intent to invade the plaintiff’s chattel interest
  2. Defendant’s substantial invasion of the plaintiff’s chattel interest
  3. Which caused damages
41
Q

In the context of conversion, what is a “substantial” invasion of the plaintiff’s chattel interests?

A
  1. Pure theft
  2. Destruction or significant material alteration
  3. Misdelivery of the chattel
  4. Purchase/Receipt of stolen chattel
  5. Sale/Disposal of stolen chattel
  6. Refusal to surrender a chattel on demand
  7. Unauthorized use that causes substantial interference
42
Q

Is it a conversion or just a trespass to chattels? What are some factors to consider?

A
  1. Extent of actor’s exercise of dominion or control
  2. Actor’s intent to assert a right inconsistent with the plaintiff’s right to control
  3. Actor’s good faith
  4. Extent and duration of the resulting interference
  5. Harm done to the chattel
  6. Inconvenience and expense caused
43
Q

In a claim for conversion, what happens if the converter offers the goods back and the owner accepts?

A

There is still a claim for conversion and nominal damages

44
Q

In a claim for conversion, what happens if the converter tries to give the property back and the owner refuses to accept?

A

The defendant is liable for the full value of the chattel in what is known as a “forced sale”

45
Q

Can you convert a non-physical chattel - Pearson v. Dodd

A

Yes, in the case of trade secrets, patents, and classified documents

In Dodd, the defendant was not liable for conversion when they broken into plaintiffs office at night, stole documents, photocopied them, returned the documents, and then published the results. No classified info was contained the documents.

46
Q

Defense: What is actual consent?

A

Consent in fact, plaintiff has verbally or otherwise expressly given their consent to an action by the defendant

47
Q

Defense: What is apparent consent - O’Brien v. Cunnard

A

Consent based on appearances, objective manifestations of consent

In Cunard, the plaintiff apparently consent to receiving a vaccine when she voluntarily lined up along side others to get the shot, sat down to get it, and did not once object

48
Q

Defense: What is implied consent?

A

A policy determination that under the circumstances, the plaintiff likely consented to an action by the defendant

49
Q

How does implied consent work in the context of violent sports - Hackbart v. Cincinnati Bengals

A

Just because a plaintiff is involved in a violent sport doesn’t mean they consent to all violent and offensive contacts. There is still a scope as to what someone can impliedly consent to.

50
Q

When can physicians act in the absence of actual or apparent consent?

A
  1. When the patient is unable to give consent
  2. When there is a risk of serious bodily harm or death if treatment is delayed
  3. If a reasonable person would consent to treatment under the circumstances
  4. If the physician has no reason to believe that this patient would refuse treatment under the circumstances
51
Q

Explain Mohr v. Williams

A

Doctor had no consent to operate on plaintiff’s left ear even though the operation was beneficial. Plaintiff only gave consent to operate on the right ear and the procedure was not necessary to prevent serious bodily harm

52
Q

In the context of consent, what is the emergency doctrine?

A
  1. An actor reasonably believes that his conduct is necessary to prevent or reduce a risk to the life or health of another that substantially outweighs the other’s interest in avoiding the otherwise tortious conduct
  2. It’s necessary to act immediately, before you can obtain actual consent
  3. The actor has no reason to believe that the person would not consent if they had the opportunity to do so
53
Q

Can a defendant try to argue that a plaintiff consented if they induced the consent through misrepresentation, duress, or a mistake they should have known about - DeMay v. Roberts

A

No, you can’t fraudulently induce consent

In DeMay, the defendant doctor had reason to know that the plaintiff believed the doctor was brining along a PA to help with the birth, but the doctor brought along some random guy instead. Plaintiff never consented to this.

54
Q

Can plaintiff’s consent to criminal conduct?

A

No

55
Q

Know that courts are also sensitive to power disparities between employees/employers, patients/doctors, clergy/congregants

A

This is a free one, enjoy

56
Q

Defense: What are the elements of self defense?

A
  1. Anyone other than an aggressor
  2. Who reasonably anticipates immediate physical harm
  3. May use reasonable force in self-defense
57
Q

When is self defense not allowed?

A
  1. Self defense is NOT retaliation, when the threat of battery is over, the privilege ends
  2. Verbal insults don’t justify the use of physical self-defense
58
Q

Does a reasonable mistake as to the necessity or degree of force required destroy the privilege of self-defense?

A

No,

59
Q

In the contexts of self defense, what force can a defendant exercise?

A

Self-defense is limited to the proportional use of force that is necessary to protect against a threatened battery. The use of deadly force is justified only by an equal threat of deadly force

60
Q

Defense: What are the elements of a defense of other

A
  1. Anyone
  2. Who believes force is necessary to protect another
  3. May use reasonable force to do so
61
Q

Does a reasonable mistake destroy the privilege of defending others?

A

There is a split of authority on this question. The restatement holds that a mistake to use reasonable force does not destroy the privilege so long as the mistake itself was reasonable.

62
Q

Defense: What are the elements of the defense of property?

A
  1. A possessor (only)

2. May use reasonable, non-deadly force to defend property

63
Q

Explain Katko v. Briney

A

Whole idea is that land-owners cannot use deadly force against trespassers unless the intrusion threatens death or serious bodily harm to the occupiers

In Katko, the property was abandoned and trespassers were seriously injured by a deadly shotgun trap. Court held that you can’t use deadly force just to defend the property.

64
Q

Defense: What are the elements of the recovery of property

A
  1. A possessor (only)
  2. Who is wrongfully disposed of their property by fraud or force
  3. May use reasonable non-deadly force to recapture the chattel
  4. If there is prompt discovery, demand, and fresh pursuit
65
Q

Does a reasonable mistake as to the necessity or degree of force destroy the privilege of defending one’s property?

A

No

66
Q

Does a reasonable mistake destroy one’s privilege to recover their property?

A

Yes, any mistake no matter how reasonable destroys the privilege.

67
Q

Defense: What are the elements of the shopkeeper’s privilege

A
  1. A shopkeeper may temporarily detain
  2. For purposes of investigation
  3. One reasonably suspected of theft
  4. In or near the store
68
Q

What is a reasonable amount of time a shopkeeper may detain suspected thieves - Bonkowski v. Arlans

A

Good rule of thumb is between 15 minutes to an hour

In Bonkowski, the defendant detained the plaintiff for hours only to discover that they had not shoplifted. Detainment was unreasonable

69
Q

Defense: What are the elements of the defense of public necessity

A
  1. ANYONE is completely privileged
  2. To use reasonable force
  3. Actually or apparently necessary
  4. To avoid imminent risk of greater harm
  5. To the community or many persons
70
Q

Does a reasonable mistake destroy the privilege of public necessity?

A

No

71
Q

Explain Surroco v. Geary

A

Defense of public necessity was upheld when the defendant tore down the plaintiff’s building to stop the progress of a large urban fire

72
Q

What is the difference between the defense of public necessity and private necessity?

A

It has to do with whether the defendant’s actions will benefit only a few person versus many people or the public at large.

Additionally, defendants will still be liable for damages in the case of private necessity.

73
Q

Explain Vincent v. Lake Erie Transport Co.

A

During a severe storm, the defendant moored his boat at the plaintiff’s dock to avoid damaging it. Through the mooring process, the dock was destroyed, and the defendant claimed the privilege of private necessity - to save those on his boat.

The court upheld the validity of the privilege, but concluded that defendant’s must still pay for damages where they deliberately acted to prevent their own losses at the expense of the plaintiff’s.

74
Q

When is a defendant legally justified to commit an otherwise tortious act - Sindle v. new York City Transit

A

Restraint or detention, reasonable under the circumstances in time and manner, imposed for the purpose of preventing another from inflicting personal injuries or interfering with or damaging property in one’s lawful possession is not unlawful

In Sindle, defendant bus driver was legally justified in detaining the students on his bus and driving them to the police station after they started destroying the interior of the vehicle

75
Q

When are citizens/police officers legally justified in arresting someone without a warrant?

A

If a citizen or police officer believes that a felony or breach of the peace is actively being committed or reasonably appears about to be committed, they may arrest the individual