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N106 Integumentary > Integumentary Quiz Questions > Flashcards

Integumentary Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q 
A patient age 63, has cancer of the left breast.  After a modified radical mastectomy, she has been receiving chemotherapy.  Her grandson who visited a few days ago, now has varicella (chicken pox).  The nurse should observe her carefully for signs of
A.  Herpes zoster
B.  Herpes simplex type 1
C.  Herpes simplex type 2
D.  Impetigo
A

A. Herpes zoster

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2
Q

A patient has generalized macular-papular skin eruptions and complaints of severe puritus from contact dermatitis. When the nurse administers his therapeutic bath, it is important to remember that
A. Using Burrow’s solution helps promote healing.
B. Rubbing the skin briskly decreases pruritis.
C. Allowing 20-60 minutes to complete the bath will prevent pruritis.
D, Sterilizing all equipment used will prevent pruritis.

A

A. Using Burrow’s solution helps promote healing.

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3
Q 
A patient has herpes zoster (shingles).  A local antiviral agent, which is useful in delaying the progression of herpes disease, was prescribed.  This medication is 
A. Ativan (lorazepam)
B.  Atarax (hydroxyzine)
C. Zovirax (acyclovir)
D.  Solu-Cortef (hydrocortisone)
A

C. Zovirax (acyclovir)

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4
Q 
A patient has an erythematous patch of vesicles on her scalp, and she complains of pain and pruritis.  A diagnosis of tinea capitis is made.  The causative organism is
A.  Bacterium
B.  Virus
C. Fungus
D. Parasite
A

C. Fungus

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5
Q 
A temporary skin graft using tissue from another species is called:
A. Heterograft
B. Autograft
C. Homograft
D.  Allograft
A

A. Heterograft

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6
Q 
A child has been sent home from school with pruritis and honey colored crusts on his lower lip and chin.  A possible diagnosis would be
A.  Chicken pox
B.  Impetigo
C.  Shingles
D.  Herpes Simplex type 1
A

B. Impetigo

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7
Q

Anaphylaxix is
A. A form of hereditary angioedema
B. A life threatening allergic reaction causing rapid swelling of the dermal and subcutaneous layers of the integument.
C. An onset of swelling in the deeper layers of the integument commonly caused by specific medications (ACE inhibitors, NSAIDS, etc.)
D. Most commonly idiopathic in nature.

A

B. A life threatening allergic reaction causing rapid swelling of the dermal and subcutaneous layers of the integument.

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8
Q

A patient, age 46, reports to his physician’s office with urticaria and papules on his hands and arms. He says “it itches so badly”. In assessing the patient the nurse should gather data regarding recent
A. Travel to foreign countries
B. Upper respiratory tract infections
C. Changes in medication
D, Contact with people who have an infectious disease.

A

C. Changes in medication

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9
Q

A patient has been receiving penicillin, acetaminophen with codeine, and hydroclorothiazide for 4 days. He now has a urinary tract infection. A sulfonamide has been prescribed to be taken three times per day. Several hours after the second dose, he complains of pruritis. The nurse observes a general erythema and rash. The most appropriate nursing intervention would be to hold
A. All medications, and notify the physician of the signs and symptoms.
B. The penicillin
C. The acetaminophen with codeine
D. The sulfonamide

A

D. The sulfonamide

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10
Q

The physician has ordered Azelex ointment to a young woman with small children (2years and 10 months old) for treatment of her rosacea. Prior to providing the prescription, the nurse will ask all the following questions EXCEPT:
A. Are you nursing your baby?
B. Have you used this antiviral ointment before?
C. Is there a possibility you are pregnant?
D. Are you allergic to any medications?

A

B. Have you used this antiviral ointment before?

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11
Q 
In assessing Sasquatch for his primary complaint of verucca plantaris, the nurse notes the following untreated condition of appendages of the skin:
A.  Truchotillomanis
B.  Hypertrichosis
C.  Hypotrichosis
D.  Alopecia
E.  Paronychia
A

B. Hypertrichosis

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12
Q 
Listed below are all common diagnostic criterion for identifying systemic lupus erythematossus (SLE) except:
A.  Butterfly rash over nose and cheeks
B.  Photosensitivity
C.  Skin ulcers
D.  Polyarthralgias and polyarthritis
A

C. Skin ulcers

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13
Q

Nursing interventions and patient teaching for the treatment of head lice and scabies include:
A. Clothing, linens and bath articles cleaned in hot water
B. Special carbohydrate diet to promote healing
C. Complete isolation from the public
D. All of the above

A

A. Clothing, linens and bath articles cleaned in hot water

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14
Q 
A patient, age 27, received thermal burns to 18% of her body surface area.  After the fist 72 hours, the nurse will have to observe for the most common cause of burn related deaths which is:
A.  Shock
B.  Respiratory arrest
C.  Hemorhage
D.  Infection
A

D. Infection

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15
Q 
A duodenal ulcer may occur 8-14 days after severe burns.  Usually, the first symptom is bright red emesis.  Which condition matches this description?
A.  Curling's ulcer
B.  Paralytic ulcer
C.  Hypoglycemia
D.  ICU psychosis syndrome
A

A. Curling’s ulcer

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16
Q 
During primary survey assessment of a burn patient, the nurse checks for early signs of carbon monoxide poisoning, which include:  (Select All That Apply)
A.  Dizziness
B.  Unsteady gait
C.  Vomiting
D.  Headache
E.  Vertigo
A

B. Unsteady gait
C. Vomiting
D. Headache

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17
Q 
A 30 year old African American had surgery 6 months ago.  Her incisional site is now raised, indurated and shiny.  This tissue growth is most likely a(n):
A.  Angioma
B.  Keloid
C.  Melanoma
D.  Nevus
A

B. Keloid

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18
Q 
A patient, age 37, sustained partial and full-thickness burns to 26% of her body surface area.  The greatest fluid loss resulting from her burns will usually occur 
A.  Within 12 hours after burn trauma
B.  24-36 hours after burn trauma
C.  24-48 hours after burn trauma
D.  48-72 hours after burn trauma
A

D. 48-72 hours after burn trauma

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19
Q 
A nurse arrives at an accident scene where the victim has just received an electrical burn.  The nurse's primary concern is
A.  The extent and the depth of the burn
B.  The sites of entry and exit
C.   The likelihood of cardiac arrest
D.  Controlling bleeding
A

C. The likelihood of cardiac arrest

20
Q

A patient, age 26, is admitted to the burn unit with partial and full-thickness burns to 20% of his body surface area as well as smoke-inhalation injury. Carbon monoxide intoxication secondary to smoke inhalation is often fatal because carbon monoxide
A. binds with hemoglobin in place of oxygen
B. interferes with oxygen intake
C. is a respiratory depressant
D. is a toxic agent

A

A. binds with hemoglobin in place of oxygen

21
Q 
Most of the deaths from burn trauma in the emergent phase that require a referral to a burn center result from
A.  Infection
B.  Dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest
C.  Hypovolemic shock and renal failure
D.  Adrenal failure
A

C. Hypovolemic shock and renal failure

22
Q 
Cellulitis is a potentially serious infection.  In adults, Staphylococcus aureus can cause which complications?
A.  Sepsis and meningitis
B.  Appendicitis
C.  Tinea pedis and tinea corporis
D.  Urticaria and psoriasis
A

A. Sepsis and meningitis

23
Q 
Which may indicate a malignant melanoma in a nevus on a patient's arm?
A.  Even coloring of the mole
B.  Decrease in size of the mole
C.  Perfect symmetry of the mole
D.  Irregular border of the mole
A

D. Irregular border of the mole

24
Q

The nurse has indicated measures to promote suppuration of a carbuncle. Which assessment would indicate that these measures have been successful?
A. The area is erythematous and scaly
B. The area has begun to drain exudate
C. The area is not erythematous or edematous
D. The area has stopped draining exudate

A

B. The area has begun to drain exudate

25
Q 
The most deadly skin cancer is
A.  Melanoma
B.  Basal cell carcinoma
C.  Squamous cell carcinoma
D.  Lymphoma
A

A. Melanoma

26
Q

Parasitic skin diseases are identified as pediculosis or scabies. The difference between pediculosis and scabies is:
A. Peduculosis only occurs in poor living conditions.
B. Scabies only occurs in cases of poor hygiene
C. Scabies is caused by mites that burrow under the epidermal layer.
D. Lice are mites that attach themselves to bare areas of the skin

A

C. Scabies is caused by mites that burrow under the epidermal layer.

27
Q

Nursing interventions for treatment of herpes virus infections include:
A. Keep the lesions moist to prevent pain
B. Apply cold, moist compresses to lesions
C. Treat symptoms and prevent the spread of the virus
D. Cleanse the lesions with alcohol

A

C. Treat symptoms and prevent the spread of the virus

28
Q

A patient is a 32 year old woman whose mother recently died from malignant melanoma. She asks the nurse about what she can do to prevent the development of malignant melanoma in herself and her children. The best response from the nurse includes which information regarding risk factors for melanoma?
A. Avoid exposure to the sun and use protective measures when exposure occurs.
B. Have all nevi removed
C. Watch for changes in the moles, especially on the back
D. Nothing prevents malignant melanoma, but it is curable with early detection.

A

A. Avoid exposure to the sun and use protective measures when exposure occurs.

29
Q

A patient developed a severe contact dermatitis of her hands, arms and lower legs after spending an afternoon picking strawberries. She states that the itching is severe and she cannot keep from scratching. Which instruction by the nurse would be most helpful in managing the pruritus?
A. Use cool, wet dressings and baths to promote vasoconstriction.
B. Trim the fingernails short to prevent skin damage from scratching.
C. Expose the areas to the sun to promote drying and healing of the lesions.
D. Wear cotton gloves and cover all other affected areas with clothing to prevent environmental irritation.

A

A. Use cool, wet dressings and baths to promote vasoconstriction.

30
Q 
Major functions of the skin include:
A.  Excretion of waste
B.  Protection
C.  Vitamin D synthesis
D.  Temperature regulation
E.  Prevention of dehydration
A 
A.  Excretion of waste
B.  Protection
C.  Vitamin D synthesis
D.  Temperature regulation
E.  Prevention of dehydration
31
Q

A dark skinned patient has been admitted to the hospital in severe respiratory distress. To determine whether the patient is cyanotic, the nurses uses what knowledge of skin assessment?
A. It is not possible to assess color changes in patients with dark skin
B. Cyanosis in patients with dark skin can only be seen in the sclera
C. Cyanosis can be seen in the lips and mucous membranes of patients with dark skin
D. Cyanosis will blanch out with direct pressure to the soles of the feet in a dark skinned patient.

A

C. Cyanosis can be seen in the lips and mucous membranes of patients with dark skin

32
Q 
A female patient is seen by the school nurse because of flat lesions that are clear in the center with erythematous borders.  In assessing the patient for tinea corporis, the nurse would check:
A.  Soles of the feet
B.  Back of the scalp
C.  Groin area
D.  Anterior abdomen
A

D. Anterior abdomen

33
Q

Which would the nurse see first to evaluate for wound infection?
A. The client with a negative blood culture
B. The client with thin serous drainage
C. The client with a white blood cell elevation
D. The client with a decrease in wound size

A

C. The client with a white blood cell elevation

34
Q 
A patient, age 29, is diagnoses with genital herpes.  She is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax).  Which would indicate a therapeutic response?
A.  Decrease in pruritis
B.  Decrease in pain
C.  Increase in WBC
D.  Increase in activity tolerance
A

B. Decrease in pain

35
Q

The nurse debriding a wound explains the purpose of debridement is to:
A. Increase the effectiveness of the skin graft
B. Prevent infection and promote healing
C. Promote suppuration of the wound.
D. Promote movement in the affected area

A

B. Prevent infection and promote healing

36
Q

A patient has been walking in the woods and complains of severe pruritis. The nurse notes an erythematous area on his lower legs. The first nursing intervention for dermatitis venenata would be to
A. Administer Benadryl 50mg IM
B. Wash area with copious amounts of water
C. Apply cool compresses continuously
D. Expose the area to heat and air

A

B. Wash area with copious amounts of water

37
Q

Considering its appearance, the diagnosis of some angiomas may require an assessment to rule out what other possible conditions?
A. Tinea corporis or scabies
B. Rosacea or discoid lupus erythematosus
C. Lentigo melanoma or vitiligo
D. Traumatic injury or abuse

A

D. Traumatic injury or abuse

38
Q

A nurse is providing the open method of treatment for a patient who is 52 years old with burns to her lower extremities. It would be important for the nurse to
A. change the dressing using good medical asepsis
B. Provide alalgesic immediately after the dressing change
C. Perform circulatation checks every 2-4 hours
D. Keep the room temperature at 85 degrees F (24.4 degrees C) to prevent chilling

A

D. Keep the room temperature at 85 degrees F (24.4 degrees C) to prevent chilling

39
Q 
A patient has been admitted to the hospital with burns to his upper chest.  The nurse notes singed nasal hairs.  It would be important for the nurse to assess this patient frequently for
A.  Decreased activity
B.  Bradycardia
C.  Respiratory complications
D.  Hypertension
A

C. Respiratory complications

40
Q 
The nurse is caring for a 26 year old patient who was burned 72 hours ago.  He has partial thickness burns to 24% of his body surface area.  The nurse will make the following assessments:  (Select all that apply)
A.  Respiratory pattern
B.  Infection
C.  Vital signs
D.  Bowel sounds
E.  Nutritional assessment
A 
A.  Respiratory pattern
B.  Infection
C.  Vital signs
D.  Bowel sounds
E.  Nutritional assessment
41
Q

A patient age 20 is admitted with severe eczema. In planning the care for her, the nurse should plan to
A. Keep the skin well hydrated
B. Change the dressings every day
C. Keep the skin clean and dry
D. Administer antibiotics for the infection

A

A. Keep the skin well hydrated

42
Q

What is the greatest concern during stage 1 of a burn?
A. Freedom from wound infection
B. Hypovolemia
C. Circulatory overload

A

B. Hypovolemia

43
Q

What is the greatest concern during stage 2 of a burn?
A. Freedom from wound infection
B. Hypovolemia
C. Circulatory overload

A

C. Circulatory Overload

44
Q

What is the greatest concern during stage 3 of a burn?
A. Freedom from wound infection
B. Hypovolemia
C. Circulatory overload

A

A. Freedom from wound infection

45
Q

Put the steps for medical treatment during the emergent phase of burn management in correct order:
A. Transport the victim to the hospital
B. Cover the victim with a clean cloth or sheet
C. Stop, drop and roll
D. Remove all non-adherent clothing and jewelry
E. Provide an open airway

A

C. Stop, drop and roll
E. Provide an open airway
D. Remove all non-adherent clothing and jewelry
B. Cover the victim with a clean cloth or sheet
A. Transport the victim to the hospital

N106 Integumentary (3 decks)

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