Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Advance med surge > Integumentary > Flashcards

Integumentary Flashcards

1
Q

differentiate and randomly migrate upward, synthesize keratin
replace every 3-4 weeks

A

Keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

producing the pigment melanin which color the skin and hair

A

Melanocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

role in cutaneous immune system reaction

A

langerhans cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Largest portion of the skin, the connective tissue between the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue
-provides strength and structure in the form of collagen and elastic fiber

A

Dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Innermost layer of the skin primarily composed of adipose and connective tissue.
-provide cushion between the skin and muscle and bones.
-protect the nerve and vascular structure that transect the layers.
-

A

subcutaneous Tissue or hypodermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

excessive hair growth

A

Hirsutism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hair loss

A

Alopecia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

associated with hair follicles lubricating the hair and rendering the skin soft and pliable

A

Sebaceous gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

thin, watery secretion called sweat is produced in the basal coiled portion of the eccrine gland and is released into narrow duct.

A

Eccrine gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Function of skin

A

-protection
-sensation
-fluid balance
- temperature regulation
-vitamin production
-immune response function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

bluish discoloration that results from a lack of oxygen in the blood

A

Cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

purple, black which fade to green, yellow or brown hues over time, most often seen following trauma

A

Ecchymosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Redness of the skin caused by the dilation of capillaries

A

Erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

yellowing of the skin

A

Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

sequential reaction to cell injury
-neutralizes and dilutes the inflammatory agent, removes necrotic materials and establishes an environmental suitable for healing and repair.

A

Inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

inflammatory response can be divided into

A

-vascular response
-cellular response
- formation of exudate
-healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

stored in granules of basophils, mast cells platelet
-causes vasodilatation and increased capillary permeable

A

Histamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

stored in granules of basophils, mast cells platelet
-causes vasodilatation and increased capillary permeable

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

stored in platelet mast cell, enterochromaffin cell of GI
-cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, stimulates smooth muscle contraction

A

Serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

produced from precursor factor kininogen as a result of activation of Hageman factor(XII) of clotting system
-cause contraction of smooth muscle and vasodilation result in stimulation of pain

A

Kinins (bradykinin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Anaphylatoxic agent generated from complement pathway activation
- stimulate histamine release and chemotaxis

A

complement components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  • produced from arachidonic acid
    -causes vasodilation
A

Prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  • produced from arachidonic acid
  • stimulate chemotaxis
A

Leukotrienes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

proinflammatory mediator, promotes proliferation of B cell, activate T cell, NK cells and macrophages

A

Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Result from outpouring of fluid, seen in early stage of inflammation or when injury is mild

A

Serous exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

found during the midpoint in healing after surgery or tissue injury, composed of RBC and serous fluid which is semi-clear pink and may have red streaks

A

serosanguineous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

occurs with increasing vascular permeability and fibrinogen leakage into interstitial space, excessive amount of fibrin that coat tissue surface may cause them to adhere

A

Fibrinous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

results from rupture of necrosis of blood vessel walls

A

hemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

consists of WBC, microorganism(dead and live) liquified dead cell and other debris

A

purulent(pus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

found in tissue where cells produced mucus, mucus production is accelerated by inflammatory response

A

Catarrhal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

local manifestation of inflammations are

A
  • redness(rubor)
    -heat (carol)
  • pain(dolor)
    -swelling (tumor)
    -lost function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Type of Wound

A

Surgical or non-surgical
Acute or Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Depth of Tissue Affected

A

Superficial – epidermis
Partial - dermis
Full-thickness – subcutaneous, fascia, muscle, tendon, bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

is a localized area of necrotic soft tissue that occurs when pressure applied to the skin usually a bony prominence

A

pressure ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

used for Predicting Pressure Injury Risk

A

Braden Scale
-Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity,Mobility,Nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most common site for pressure ulcers is

A

sacrum
Heels being second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Risk Factors for Pressure Ulcers

A

Advanced age
Anemia
Contractures
Diabetes Mellitus
Elevated temperature
Friction
Immobility
Impaired Circulation
Incontinence
Low diastolic blood pressure (<60 mmHg)
Mental deterioration
Neurologic disorders
Obesity
Pain
Prolonged surgery
Vascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Intact skin with non-blanchable redness of a localized area
Area may be painful, firm, soft, warmer, or cooler as compared to adjacent tissue

A

Pressure Ulcer Stage I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough
May also present as an intact or open/ruptured serum-filled or serosanguineous-filled blister
Presents as a shiny or dry shallow ulcer without slough or bruising

A

Pressure Ulcer Stage II

40
Q

Full-thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone, tendon, or muscle are not exposed
May include undermining and tunneling

A

Pressure Ulcer Stage III

41
Q

Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Slough or eschar may be present
-Ulcers can extend into muscle and/or supporting structures (e.g., fascia, tendon, or joint capsule) making osteomyelitis or osteitis likely to occur. Exposed bone/muscle is visible or directly palpable.

A

Pressure Ulcer Stage IV

42
Q

Full-thickness tissue loss in which actual depth of ulcer is completely obscured by slough (yellow, tan, gray, green, or brown) and/or eschar (tan, brown, or black) in wound bed
Stable (dry, adherent, intact without erythema, or fluctuance) eschar on the heels serves as “the body’s natural (biologic) cover” and should not be removed.

A

Unstageable

43
Q

Purple or maroon localized area of discolored intact skin or blood-filled blister due to damage of underlying soft tissue from pressure and/or shear

A

Suspected Deep Tissue Injury

44
Q

Nursing Interventions for pressure Ulcer

A

Relieve Pressure
Positioning the patient
Use pressure-relieving devices
Improve mobility
Improve sensory perception
Improve tissue perception
Improve nutritional status
Reduce friction and shear
Minimize moisture
Promote pressure injury healing

45
Q

Factors Delaying Wound Healing

A

-nutrition deficiency (vitamin C, proteins, zinc)
-inadequate blood supply
-corticosteroid drug
-Infection
- smoking
-mechanical infection
-advance age
- obesity
- diabetes mellitus
- poor genera health
-Anemia

46
Q

Made of woven or nonwoven material. Provide absorption of exudates. Most often combined with another kind of dressing
- used for Cleansing, packing, and covering a variety of wounds

A

Gauze dressing

47
Q

May be impregnated with saline, petrolatum, or antimicrobials. Minimally absorbent
used for minor wound or second dressing

A

Nonadherent dressing

48
Q

Generally composed of polyurethane. Transparency allows visualization of the wound
used for Dry, uninfected wounds or wounds with minimal drainage

A

Transparent films

49
Q

Film-coated gel or polyurethane. Able to hold large amounts of exudate
used for Wounds with moderate to heavy drainage. Often used on new wounds

A

Foams

50
Q

Gelatin, pectin, or carboxymethylcellulose bonded to a film or sheet. Produce a flat occlusive dressing that forms a gel on wound surface.
used for Wounds with light to moderate drainage

A

Hydrocolloids

51
Q

Available in gels, gel-covered gauze, or sheets. Donate moisture to a dry wound and maintain a moist environment. Can rehydrate wound tissue
used for Dry wounds. Wounds with minimal drainage. Necrotic wounds

A

Hydrogels

52
Q

Derived from seaweed or kelp. Form a non-sticky gel on contact with draining wound. Easy to use over irregular-shaped wounds
used for Wounds with moderate to heavy exudates (e.g., pressure ulcers, infected wounds)

A

Alginates

53
Q

Quick method of debridement to prevent, control, or remove infection
*Used when large amounts of nonviable tissue are present
*Prepares wound bed for healing, skin grafting, or flaps

A

Surgical debridement

54
Q

Two methods:
*Wet-to-dry dressings,in which open-mesh gauze is moistened with normal saline, lightly packed into wound surface, and outer layer allowed to dry. Wound debris adheres to dressing and then dressing is removed
*Wound irrigation. Make certain bacteria are not accidentally driven into wound with high irrigation pressure

A

Mechanical debridement

55
Q

Semi-occlusive or occlusive dressings used to soften dry eschar by autolysis
*Assess area around wound for maceration when using these dressings

A

Autolytic debridement

56
Q

Drugs applied topically to dissolve necrotic tissue and then covered with moist dressing (e.g., saline-moistened gauze)
*Examples of these drugs include collagenase (e.g., Santyl)
*Process can be slow, and thick eschar may have to be scored with scalpel

A

Enzymatic debridement

57
Q

Used to treat acute and chronic wounds.
A vacuum source creates continuous or intermittent negative pressure inside the wound to remove fluid, exudates, and infectious materials to prepare the wound for healing and closure.
Consist of a vacuum pump, drainage tubing, a foam or gauze wound dressing, and an adhesive film dressing that covers and seals the wound
this therapy pulls excess fluid from the wound, reduces bacterial load, and encourages blood flow into the wound base.

A

Negative Pressure Wound Therapy

58
Q

Delivery of O2at increased atmospheric pressures
Patient placed in an enclosed chamber, where 100% O2is administered at 1.5 to 3 times the normal atmospheric pressure
Elevated O2levels stimulateangiogenesis

A

Hyperbaric O2 Therapy

59
Q

Complications of Wound Healing

A

Adhesion
Contractions
Dehiscence
Evisceration
Excess Granulation Tissue (Proud Flesh)
Fistula Formation
Infection
Hemorrhage
Hypertrophic Scars
Keloid Formation

60
Q

A chronic suppurative folliculitis of the perianal, axillary, and genital areas or under the breasts
-Caused by the blockage and infection of the sweat glands
Present with a firm, pea-sized nodule that causes discomfort; noduleruptures and discharges purulent drainage; nodules can spread

A

Hidradenitis Suppurativa

61
Q

Management of hidradenitis suppurativa

A

Warm compresses
Loose-fitting clothes over the nodules or lesions
NSAIDs to relieve the pain
Oral antibiotic
Incision and drainage of large suppurating areas

62
Q

a common disorder affecting hair follicles and sebaceous glands.
Most commonly on the face, neck, torso, and upper arms
Can present either aswhiteheads, blackheads (comedones)

A

Acne Vulgaris

63
Q

Acne Vulgaris: Management

A

Avoid sugary food products
Hygiene
Washing twice a day with soap and water
Phototherapy
Surgical Management

64
Q

medication for Acne vulgaris

A

Benzoyl peroxide
Topical retinoids
Topical antibiotics
Oral isotretinoin + oral ATB

65
Q

Contagious bacterial infection of superficial layers of skin
Nonbullous – honey-colored crusts (70%)
Bullous
Group A streptococcus, S. aureus, or MRSA
Spread through autoinoculation via hands, towels, clothing, nasal discharge, droplets

A

Impetigo

66
Q

Clinical findings impetigo

A

Pruritus; spread of lesion to surrounding skin
Weakness, fever, diarrhea with bullous impetigo
Nonbullous – 1-2 mm erythematous papules or pustules, progress to vesicles or bullae which rupture – honey-colored crusts
Bullous – large, flaccid, thin-wall, superficial, annular or oval blisters/bullae – rupture
Lesions common on face, hands, neck, extremities, perineum
Regional lymphadenopathy

67
Q

Management for impetigo

A

Topical antibiotics if superficial, nonbullous, localized
Oral antibiotics for multiple lesions, spread of infection to family members
Bullous impetigo in infant – parenteral beta-lactamase-resistant antistaphylococcal penicillin
Obtain culture if no response in 7 days
Educate about hygiene
Exclude from day care until treated for 24 hours

68
Q

Complications of impetigo

A

Cellulitis
Lymphangitis
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

69
Q

Patient and family education for impetigo

A

Thorough cleansing of breaks in skin
Pigment changes may last weeks to months
No school/day care until 24 hours of treatment

70
Q

Folliculitis and Furuncle clinical findings

A

Discrete, erythematous 1-2 mm papules or pustules on inflamed base near follicle
Face, scalp, extremities, buttocks, back
Nodules with furuncles
Pruritus papules, pustules, deep red/purple nodules in areas under swimsuit

71
Q

Management Folliculitis and Furuncle

A

Warm compresses after bathing
Topical keratolytics
Topical antibiotics
Oral antibiotics
Review of hygiene/avoid shaving

72
Q

complication of folliculitis and furuncle

A

deep abscess formation

73
Q

Clinical findings Herpes Simplex

A

Primary herpes – fever, malaise, sort throat, decreased fluid intake
Primary genital HSV – painful vesicles
Recurrent – painful prodrome of burning, tingling, paresthesia, itching

74
Q

Clinical findings HSV-1

A

Gingivostomatitis
Herpes labialis
Herpetic whitlow

75
Q

Clinical findings HSV-2

A

Grouped vesicopustules/ulceration
Vaginal mucosa, labia, perineum, cervix in females; penile shaft and perineum in males
Regional lymphadenopathy

76
Q

Diagnostic studies herpes simplex

A

Tzanck smear
Viral cultures
ELISA serology
PCR tests

77
Q

Management herpes simplex

A

Burow solution compresses
Acyclovir to help shorten course
Topical acyclovir for initial genital HSV
Antibiotics for secondary infection
Oral anesthetics for comfort
Viscous lidocaine
Diphenhydramine/magnesium hydroxide 1:1 rinse
Newborn, immunosuppressed child, lesions in eye – consult
Exclude from day care if child cannot control secretions

78
Q

complication of herpes simplex

A

eczema herpeticum, erythema multiforme, Stevens-Johnson syndrome

79
Q

Herpes Zoster

A

Recurrent varicella infection – shingles
Reactivation of latent varicella zoster from sensory root ganglia
Rare in childhood

80
Q

Clinical findings Herpes Zoster

A

burning, stinging pain, hyperesthesia, tingling
2-3 clustered groups of macules/papules progressing to vesicles
Develop over 3-5 days; last 7-10 days
Commonly follow dermatomes; do not cross midline

81
Q

Management Herpes Zoster

A

Burow solution/warm, soothing baths
Antihistamines/analgesics for comfort
Moisturizing ointment
Antiviral medications not recommended unless immunosuppressed
Refer if eyes, forehead, nose involved for ophthalmologic exam

82
Q

Complications Herpes Zoster

A

Rare except in immunocompromised children
Occasionally is initial finding in AIDS

83
Q

Patient and family education Herpes Zoster

A

New vesicles appear up to 1 week
Contagious for varicella until all lesions crusted

84
Q

fungal infection of beard or moustache of men
-Red, inflamed abscess-like lesions, pustules, or crusting
*May develop secondary infection

A

Tinea barbae

85
Q

treatment for Tinea barbae

A

-Griseofulvin for 4–6 wks or terbinafine for 2–4 wks
*Shampoo beard or moustache twice weekly with selenium sulfide shampoo for 2 wks

86
Q

scalp or eyebrows; contagious fungal infection of the hair shaft
-Oval, scaling, erythematous patches
*Small papules or pustules on the scalp or eyebrows
*Brittle hair that breaks easily; patchy alopecia

A

Tinea capitis

87
Q

treatment for Tinea capitis

A

Griseofulvin for 4–6 wks or terbinafine for 2–4 wks
*Shampoo hair or eyebrows twice weekly with selenium sulfide shampoo for 2 wks

88
Q

Begins with red macule, which spreads to a ring of papules or vesicles with central clearing
*Lesions found in clusters; many spread to the hair, scalp, or nails
*Pruritis is a common complaint

A

Tinea corporis (body)

89
Q

treatment for Tinea corporis (body)

A

Local infections—topical antifungal creams once or twice daily (e.g., clotrimazole, econazole, ketoconazole)
*Extensive infections or concomitant tinea capitis or immunosuppressive conditions (e.g., active neoplasms)—oral antifungal medications (e.g., fluconazole for 2–4 wks, itraconazole for 1 wk, terbinafine for 2 wks)

90
Q

Begins with small, red scaling patches, which spread to form circular elevated plaques
*Very pruritic
*Clusters of pustules may be seen around borders

A

Tinea cruris (groin area; “jock itch”)

91
Q

education for client with Tinea cruris (groin area; “jock itch”)

A

Educate patients to avoid wearing clothing that is tight over the groin; patients should pat dry skin folds thoroughly (avoid rubbing) after bathing and use separate towels for groin and other body parts

92
Q

Soles of one or both feet have scaling and mild redness with maceration in the toe webs
*More acute infections may have clusters of clear vesicles on dusky base

A

Tinea pedis (foot; “athlete’s foot”)

93
Q

treatment for Tinea pedis (foot; “athlete’s foot”)

A

Local infections—topical antifungal creams once or twice daily (e.g., clotrimazole, econazole, ketoconazole)
*Extensive infections or concomitant tinea capitis or immunosuppressive conditions (e.g., active neoplasms)—oral antifungal medications (e.g., fluconazole for 2–4 wks, itraconazole for 1 wk, terbinafine for 2 wks)

94
Q

education for client with Tinea pedis (foot; “athlete’s foot”)

A

educate to put on socks before underwear to avoid cross-contamination to groin
*to either dispose of old shoes or treat them with antifungal powder to prevent reinfection
*to wear protective footwear at communal pools and tubs

95
Q

Nails thicken, crumble easily, and lack luster
*Whole nail may be destroyed
*If untreated, can result in pain, loss of balance, and candida infection

A

Tinea unguium (toenails; onychomycosis)

96
Q

treatment for client with Tinea unguium (toenails; onychomycosis)

A

Oral antifungal medications for 12 wks (e.g., itraconazole, terbinafine) with or without concomitant topical ciclopirox olamine nail lacquer
*Nail avulsion may be indicated, either surgically or chemically using a 40–50% urea compound

Advance med surge (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions