Intake LT Only Exam 3 Done Flashcards
Which of the following is not an accurate description of a high rise office building built after 1968?
A: Exterior walls are curtain walls constructed of a combination of glass and metal.
B: Exterior windows are usually not openable.
C: Fire towers are not required.
D: Core construction techniques are not used.
Answer: D
HROB 2.4.4, 2.4.9, 2.4.10, 2.4.12
After a fierce debate during a recent study group regarding the Buckeye Pipeline, you discovered that the only correct statement made on this important subject can be found in which choice?
A: To shut off a manual valve, the 3’ 1/2” wrench is inserted into the valve box with the female end first, and turned 84 full turns clockwise
B: To shut off a manual valve on the Shipper’s lines, the 3’ 1/2” wrench is inserted into the valve box with the female end first, and turned 42 full turns clockwise
C: Engine Companies responding from quarters on the 2nd alarm for a street box associated with a leak should place additional cans of foam on the apparatus
D: Engine companies out of quarters receiving a notification to respond to a 2nd alarm for a pipeline leak must return to quarters for the additional cans of foam
Answer: C
AUC 149
A- 42 full turns (84 half turns)….sec 2.3.2
B- 24 full turns (48 half turns)…..sec 2.3.2
C- sec 4.12
D- Engine companies out of quarters receiving a notification to respond to a 2nd alarm for a pipeline leak must NOT return to quarters for the additional cans of foam….sec 4.12.Note
An important element in the investigation of fire is the preservation and packaging of evidence. Which one method outlined below is incorrect?
A: One method is to use an air-tight container made from non-odorous materials such as a new one gallon metal paint can. (Never use a can that was previously used).
B: Try to avoid the use of plastic containers.
C: Never use a plastic bag.
D: If a new can is not available, use a clean glass jar with a tightly fitting lid.
Answer: C
TB Arson 5.3
Portable ladders are an important tool in the arsenal of Fire Departments. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: The base of the portable aluminum ladder is provided with either steel spikes or swiveling rubber safety shoes and aluminum spikes. For ladders equipped with the swiveling device, the rubber pads should be utilized when the ladder is to be raised and used on hard surfaces.
B: If ladders cannot be held securely, the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit shall immediately be notified by telephone, a requisition forwarded and an entry made in the company journal. Provision shall be made to secure ladders as safely as possible pending repair or relocation and these temporary fastenings shall be checked after each response.
C: If the officer on duty feels that a particular ladder cannot be temporarily secured to the spare apparatus in a safe manner, and there is a danger of loss of the ladder during response, the ladder shall be left off the apparatus and an entry made in the company journal.
D: 20 foot straight and/or 35 foot extension ladders are carried in the internal slide-in racks on ladder company apparatus. If another apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency is positioned closer than 35 feet to the rear of the ladder apparatus, these ladders cannot be removed from the racks due to insufficient clearance.
Answer: D
D) 20 foot straight and/or 35 foot extension ladders are carried in the internal slide-in racks on ladder company apparatus. If another apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency is positioned closer than 20 FEET to the rear of the ladder apparatus, these ladders cannot be removed from the racks due to insufficient clearance.
Lad 1 2.2, 5, 7.1
Firefighters at Engine Company 269 are discussing receiving responses on the PC/ATS Housewatch Computer with the new proby and the following statements were made. Which one is CORRECT?
A: When a response is received, the housewatch firefighter is responsible for acknowledging for units responding from “on the air” as well as in quarters.
B: The Housewatch has 60 seconds to acknowledge. If there is no response in 60 seconds, the dispatcher will prompt the unit to verify response via the voice alarm.
C: If more than one unit is responding, unit identification buttons must first be depressed for all such units followed by 10-4 and send buttons.
D: To obtain additional copies of a response message, press the 10-4 button followed by send. Before any copies of response messages are made, all responding units shall acknowledge.
Answer: C
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 2 – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
C IS CORRECT 2.2.1D
A – The housewatch acknowledges only for those units responding from quarters. 2.2.1B
B - 20 seconds 2.2.1C
D – Press the 10-5 button followed by send. 2.2.1E
Brownstone buildings were built in the late 1800’s as private dwellings. Of the choices below, which contains incorrect information regarding these structures?
A: They are three to five stories in height, with a cellar.
B: The basement is the first floor and the word “basement” shall only be used in fireground communications for Brownstone buildings.
C: The interior is of combustible construction, while the exterior shell is made of non-combustible material.
D: Their width is 20 to 25 feet, and their depth varies to about 60 feet.
Answer: B
B) The word basement shall NOT be used in fireground communications. Members referring to the first story of the building during fireground communications SHALL ONLY use the terminology, “first floor.”
BS/RF 2.1.1
There are 9 classifications of Hazardous Materials (1-9). The classification number for Corrosives can be found in which choice?
A: 3
B: 6
C: 7
D: 8
Answer: D
Acronym: Every Good Lieutenant Standard Operating Procedure Requires Coordinated Members
1- Explosives
2- Gases (compressed)
3- Liquids (flammable)
4- Solids (flammable)
5- Oxidizers
6- Poisons
7- Radioactive Material
8- Corrosives
9- Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods
Haz Mat ch 2 sec 2.1
Members operating at elevator incidents and emergencies must take certain precautions to ensure the operation is conducted as safely as possible. Which elevator SOP outlined below is correct?
A: When passengers are removed from a car between floors, they should be taken up and out of the car if practical.
B: When performing emergency removal procedures shutting power is essential and one member should be dispatched to the elevator machinery room to shut off power to the stalled car.
C: Primary and secondary removal procedures are simple approaches and may be performed without turning off the elevator power.
D: Upon completion of the operation restore power to the stalled car.
Answer: A
B. When performing emergency removal procedures shutting power is essential and TWO MEMBERS should be dispatched to the elevator machinery room to shut off power to the stalled car.
C. PRIMARY REMOVAL procedures are simple approaches and may be performed without turning off the elevator power.
WHENEVER SECONDARY OR EMERGENCY POWER REMOVAL PROCEDURES ARE USED, POWER REMOVAL IS ESSENTIAL.
D. Upon completion of the operation DO NOT restore power to the stalled car.
TB Elevators 3.3, 3.5.1, 3.5.2 B
Which private dwelling description is not entirely accurate?
A: Balloon frame construction is commonly found in Straight Line Colonial private dwellings.
B: A Wide Line Cape Style home may have two window dormers that are normally found facing the street. The presence of dormers usually increases the likelihood of 2nd floor bedrooms.
C: In Queen Anne type private dwellings, platform construction is most common and early attempts at built-in fire stopping are negated by poor workmanship, open holes for house service lines, etc.
D: Flat Roof Private Dwellings, in most cases, are readily apparent from the street. However, in some areas a decorative peak can be found in the front. The absence of a window in this peak may be an indication of a flat roof.
Answer: C
C) In Queen Anne type private dwellings, BALLOON construction is most common and early attempts at built-in fire stopping are negated by poor workmanship, open holes for house service lines, etc.
PD Ch 1 3.1 - 3.4
The Abandoned Infant Protection Act was enacted for a mother or father to provide a safe place to abandon their infant. One of these safe places can be a local firehouse. Which choice below is incorrect in referencing The Abandoned Infant Protection Act.
A: Infants being abandoned must be not more than 30 days old, and members must inquire such age when receiving an infant.
B: Upon excepting custody of an infant, the officer shall place the unit OOS (10-99) until an ambulance has assumed custody of the infant
C: Upon excepting custody of an infant, the officer shall immediately notify their administrative battalion
D: When the dispatcher advises a Fire Company that an infant has been reported abandoned at the firehouse, the officer shall immediately order a diligent search of the area immediately adjacent to quarters. If search proves negative, the dispatcher shall be notified, and an Unusual Occurrence Report shall be forwarded. If an abandoned infant is found, follow all proper procedures
Answer: A
AUC 7
A- Members are not expected or required to determine if the infant is less than 30 days old or has been abused before assuming custody…sec 1.2.1 and 2.4
B- sec 2.1.1.Note
C- sec 2.6.1
D- 2.7, 2.7.1, 2.7.2………..If infant is found follow procedures in 2.1 and 2.2
When necessary to shut down a malfunctioning hydrant using a street valve, which choice below indicates the correct action to close the valve?
A: 12 turns clockwise
B: 12 turns counter-clockwise
C: 17 turns clockwise
D: 17 turns counter-clockwise
Answer: D
Note: Not until about 12 turns is there a noticeable decrease in water flow.
Be careful with this, it’s the opposite of most valves that are clockwise to close and counter-clockwise to open.
TB Emergencies 3 6.2
Engine Company equipment is vital to successful fire operations. In which choice below is the information presented incorrect?
A: The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 3 ½” hose is approximately 3 psi. This number depends upon several factors, including the length of the stretch and the amount of water flowing.
B: The only Outer Stream Tip (OST) used in the FDNY is the ½” tip. The OST should only be attached to the MST for the fire attack if deemed necessary by the Engine Officer.
C: When the cockloft nozzle is being used to extinguish fire in a cockloft, the nozzle may be placed above the ceiling on the top floor of a building or inverted and lowered into the cockloft area from the roof.
D: The Combination Nozzle System shall be visually inspected weekly.
Answer: B
B) The only Outer Stream Tip (OST) used in the FDNY is the ½” tip. The OST should ONLY be attached to the MST for OVERHAUL operations, if deemed necessary.
Engine Ops Ch 3 2.6.3 4, 3.4.2, 3.7.10 A, 3.7.11 E
Engine 256 was in quarters and received a verbal for a person in cardiac arrest on the block. Which of the following actions taken by the company was INCORRECT?
A: They advised the dispatcher of the verbal alarm by selecting the verbal button on the PC/ATS.
B: They advised the dispatcher of the nature of the incident via telephone.
C: They advised the dispatcher of the location of the incident they were responding to via telephone.
D: They advised the dispatcher via apparatus radio that additional assistance was required.
Answer: A
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 2 – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
A IS INCORRECT 2.2.4 – There is no verbal button on the PC/ATS – Units receiving a verbal alarm while in quarters must notify the dispatcher as soon as possible via telephone, voice alarm or apparatus radio
B – 2.2.4A1
C – 2.2.4A2
D – 2.2.4A3
Units must be properly positioned at the scene of a structural collapse. In which choice below is the positioning not in accordance with Department policy at a recent collapse?
A: Engine 1 and Engine 2 (the first and second arriving Engines) took separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains.
B: Engine 3 and Engine 4 (the third and fourth arriving Engines) took hydrants at the rear of the structure.
C: Engine 5 and Engine 6, both of which responded in on the second alarm, took positions to seal off the ends of the street. The chauffeurs of these units remained in the cab.
D: The first arriving Truck, Ladder 1 (aerial ladder), positioned the apparatus in front of the collapsed structure, outside of the collapse danger zone, while waiting for the arrival of Ladder 2 (tower ladder.)
Answer: D
D) The first arriving Truck, Ladder 1 (aerial ladder), positioned the apparatus away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area. The second arriving Truck, Ladder 2 (tower ladder), was placed in front of the collapsed structure, outside of the collapse danger zone.
Aerial ladders should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area unless needed for specific rescue purposes.
Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned to reach and protect a different exposure.
Collapse 5.3, 5.4
When operating at a Brush fire the proper terminology must be used when referencing the fire itself. Choose the incorrect terminology.
A: The head of the fire is the leading edge of a moving fire
B: The rear of the fire is the side opposite the head
C: Looking at the fire from the front (head) the left side is called the left flank while the right side is called the right flank
D: Fingers are strips of long thin sections of fire extending outward from the main blackened fire area
Answer: C
Looking at the fire from the REAR the left side is called the left flank while the right side is called the right flank
AUC 159 sec 3.3
Lieutenant Newbie is discussing the increase in gas related emergencies that have occurred over the last few years. He is explaining some of the properties of natural gas to his firefighters. Which point made was incorrect?
A: Depending on the mixture, the explosive range is 5%-15%.
B: It has a natural “rotting” smell that aids in detection.
C: It is significantly lighter than air.
D: It is non-toxic, but in sufficient quantity can displace oxygen and cause asphyxiation.
Answer: B
B. It is COLORLESS AND ODORLESS; HOWEVER, TO AID IN DETECTION, MERCAPTAN IS ADDED TO NATURAL GAS AS AN ODORANT, GIVING IT A “ROTTING” SMELL.
Note “C”: Cross Ref Haz Mat 1 3.5.1 C: Natural gas is lighter than air (2/3 as heavy).
Natural Gas 3.0
The science behind fire dynamics is not always easy to understand. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Pyrolysis is the chemical decomposition of a solid material caused by the absorption of heat. Pyrolysis often precedes combustion.
B: “Surface to Mass Ratio” significantly affects the ease of ignition of solid fuels.
C: Liquids are converted into gas by vaporization. Examples include boiling water or water in a container evaporating in sunlight.
D: Surface to Volume Ratio significantly affects the ease of ignition of liquid fuels. The greater the surface area compared to volume, the slower the liquid will vaporize.
Answer: D
D) Surface to Volume Ratio significantly affects the ease of ignition of liquid fuels. The greater the surface area compared to volume, the FASTER the liquid will vaporize.
TB FD 2.5.1, 2.5.2, 2.5.4
When operating at a Haz-Mat incident, which area represents the Warm Zone?
A: Exclusion Zone
B: Contamination Reduction Zone
C: Support Zone
D: Torrid Zone
Answer: B
A- Exclusion Zone- Hot Zone
B- Contamination Reduction Zone- Warm Zone
C- Support Zone- Cold Zone
D- Not in our books
ERP sec 4.1.4
Two-in two-out is a federally recognized safety standard set forth by OSHA. Which of the following components of this policy listed below is incorrect?
A: No member shall enter, leave or operate in an IDLH atmosphere unless the members teams-up with at least one other member and remains within visual or voice contact with that member.
B: If a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action is necessary to prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member.
C: In all cases of such individual action, the company officer of the member performing the rescue shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations.
D: A known life hazard is defined as follows: a victim can be seen or heard by the rescuer; or a member has information from a credible source or person at the scene indicating the location of the life hazard.
Answer: C
C. In all cases of such individual action, the INCIDENT COMMANDER shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations.
MMID 1.2, 1.3, 1.4
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding relocations?
A: If Ladder 171 is the second relocator into the quarters of Ladder 177, the members shall use the ACT’G button to acknowledge a response.
B: If Engine 256 original and Ladder 139 Act’g are both in quarters and both units receive a phone alarm response, the members shall acknowledge by pressing the 256 button and 139 ACT’G buttons simultaneously followed by 10-4.
C: Relocated units must be 10-8 before attempting to go AQ via the PC/ATS in their quarters.
D: If the original unit goes 10-8 while a relocated unit is in quarters. the relocator must immediately contact the dispatcher to receive a return from relocation ticket.
Answer: C
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 2 – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
C IS CORRECT – 2.2.6D
A – 2.2.6B NOTE – The ACT’G button can only be used by the first relocator into the original unit.
B – 2.2.6B – Acknowledgements and status updates involving relocated units must be done independently.
D – 2.2.6D – If the original unit goes 10-8 while the first relocator is in their quarters, a return from relocation ticket will be sent to that firehouse informing the relocated unit to return to its own quarters. If the ticket is not forthcoming, the relocated unit shall call the dispatcher by telephone.
ECC Thomson was instructing other members of his company on proper pressures and friction loss in hoselines. In which choice was a correct comment made?
A: The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 1 ¾” hose is 30 psi.
B: 2 ½” hose is the most versatile type of hose in the FDNY and can be used as an attack line at a fire or emergency or as a supply line in a number of situations. The friction loss in each length is 5 psi.
C: 2” lightweight hose is red, with green stripes, and is only used as the lead (nozzle) length on the attack line from a standpipe system in residential buildings. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2” hose is 10 psi.
D: 2 ½” lightweight hose is white, with red stripes, and is used as an attack line when using a standpipe system. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2 ½” hose is 10 psi.
Answer: B
A) The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 1 ¾” hose is 20 PSI.
C) 2” lightweight hose is GREEN, with RED STRIPES, and is only used as the lead (nozzle) length on the attack line from a standpipe system in residential buildings. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2” hose is 10 psi.
D) 2 ½” lightweight hose is white, with red stripes, and is used as an attack line when using a standpipe system. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2 ½” hose is 5 PSI.
Note: Notice the trend - in general, the smaller the hose diameter, the larger the friction loss.
Engine Ops Ch 3 2.2.3, 2.3.1 D, 2.3.4 D, 2.4.1, 2.4.3, 2.4.4 D, 2.5.1, 2.5.3, 2.5.4 D
When operating at a suspected explosive device, HT and cell phones shall not be used within how many feet of the device?
A: 50’
B: 75’
C: 100’
D: 150’
Answer: D
ERP add 3 sec 4.1.1
After the start of the tour, in order to be in-service as a CFR-D unit for CFR-D responses, what is the correct minimum staffing of CFR-D certified personnel?
A: 2 firefighters
B: 2 members (2 firefighters or 1 firefighter & 1 officer)
C: 3 firefighters
D: 3 members (3 firefighters or 2 firefighters & 1 officer)
Answer: B
Note: While CFR-D Units must begin each tour with two certified firefighters, in the event that during a tour the minimum staffing reduces to 1 firefighter and 1 officer, the company shall remain available for CFR-D responses.
CFR Ch 2 1.8 & Note
You are a new Lieutenant and respond to a report of a manhole fire. Upon arrival you discover no fire, but see smoke issuing under pressure. You should transmit what signal?
A: 10-25 code 1
B: 10-25 no code
C: 10-25 code 3
D: 10-25 code 2
Answer: D
Comm 8 p. 8-8
10-25-2 is for a blown cover or smoke issuing under pressure. Smoke SEEPING would be a code 3.
Two newly appointed members discussing fire dynamics disagreed on which incorrect point?
A: Combustion is a chemical process of oxidation that occurs at a rate fast enough to produce heat and usually light in the form of either a glow or flame. Combustion can occur without fire.
B: The “fire triangle” best illustrates the elements required for non-flaming combustion; when burning is localized on or near the fuel’s surface where it is in contact with oxygen.
C: The “fire tetrahedron” was created to explain flaming combustion. Each element; fuel, oxygen, heat and uninhibited chemical chain reaction, must be present for flaming combustion.
D: Considering solids, liquids and gases, liquid fuels can be the most dangerous, because they are already in the natural state required for ignition and are the most difficult to contain.
Answer: D
D) Considering solids, liquids and gases, GASEOUS FUELS can be the most dangerous, because they are already in the natural state required for ignition and are the most difficult to contain.
TB FD 2.2, 2.3, 2.4.1, 2.5.5
The procedures following the shutting of a valve on the Buckeye Pipeline can be correctly found in all of the following except?
A: When units have the responsibility of closing a manual valve and patrolling to adjacent valve(s), both functions are carried out simultaneously
B: Foot patrols are conducted by two handie talkie equipped FFs
C: When a unit officer determines that the duties of shutting down valves and patrolling the pipeline cannot be accomplished the officer must request the response of another unit directly through the dispatcher.
D: If a leak is discovered during patrol, the apparatus shall not be brought closer than 200’ to a leak
Answer: D
AUC 149
A- sec 6.3.2
B- sec 6.3.2.A
C- sec 6.3.2 B
D- If a leak is discovered during patrol, the apparatus shall not be brought closer than 500’ to a leak…sec 7.18
This not only removes a source of ignition but removes personnel from any vapor cloud present.
Ladder 100 arrives at the Rock for an extrication drill. The instructor is discussing safe operating procedures in the vicinity of airbags. He makes the following statements, but was incorrect in which one?
A: Airbag systems are equipped with an energy storage feature that enables them to deploy even when the battery has been destroyed in an accident.
B: Members should observe a 10” safe operating distance from driver airbags.
C: Newer systems include the use of dual stage inflators which basically means that just because an airbag has deployed, it does not mean there cannot be a second deployment.
D: Airbags can be deployed either electronically or mechanically. Disconnecting the battery will start the drain time, which varies, for both types of airbags.
Answer: D
D. Airbags can be deployed either electronically or mechanically. Disconnecting the battery will start the drain time, which varies, for AN ELECTRONICALLY ACTIVATED DEVICE, BUT NOT A MECHANICALLY ACTIVATED ONE.
Note “B”: CODE:
Side airbags = 5” (shortest word = shortest distance)
Driver airbags = 10” (middle length word = middle distance)
Passenger airbags = 20” (longest word = longest distance)
Disentanglement & Extrication 2.6
Knowledge of the Tower Ladder apparatus is essential to effective firefighting operations. Which choice below is incorrect?
A: The outriggers, when fully extended, produce a solid foundation for the apparatus during operations involving the Tower Ladder bucket. All stabilizing components are equipped with locks (pins) that must be inserted manually in case of hydraulic failure.
B: Jacks and outriggers are controlled either through individual levers or an “All Jacks” lever which operates all jacks and outriggers simultaneously. The individual levers are the preferred method for lowering when on level ground.
C: Tower Ladders are not designed to operate with outriggers and jacks down on one side only. If the apparatus is not level, lower the jacks and outrigger on the low side first, followed by the jacks and outrigger on the high side until the green lights indicate that all stabilizers are properly deployed.
D: Stabilizers should not be lowered into deep sand or mud as these surfaces will not support the apparatus.
Answer: B
B) Jacks and outriggers are controlled either through individual levers OR an “All Jacks” lever which operates all jacks and outriggers simultaneously. The “ALL JACKS” is the preferred method for lowering when on level ground.
Note: Jacks and outriggers must be lowered until every green light is illuminated on the Outrigger Control Panel prior to raising the boom.
TL Ch 1 1.1
All members should be familiar with Under River Rail Operations. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: On the track bed, personnel and evacuating passengers should walk between the running rails to avoid the danger of contacting the third rail.
B: Most tubes have no access to the adjacent tube throughout the underwater areas. You cannot ride a train halfway across the river, get out of the train and cross over to the adjoining tube.
C: Under river tubes are narrower than underground tunnels and there is very little space between the train and the tube. In the event of a collision or an explosion, it may be impossible to obtain access to the side of the train from the exterior.
D: A Tunnel-to-Tube Transition Area is the point where the underground tunnel connects to the under river tube. In most cases, it is the location of the last emergency exit and the last crossover to the adjacent tube until the other side of the river.
Answer: A
A) On the track bed, it would be unsafe to walk between the running rails due to the drainage trough. Personnel and evacuating passengers should walk in the area OUTSIDE the rails, OPPOSITE to the third rail; be aware that the 3rd rail may alternate sides.
URR Figure 1, 2.2.2, 2.4
The incorrect procedure when operating at an Iroquois Pipeline (natural gas) incident can be found in which choice?
A: Due to the extreme high pressure found in this pipeline system, during a leak units must use a fog line to assist in dispersal
B: The initial actions of units responding to pipeline boxes are to set up a perimeter and eliminate sources of ignition
C: The primary consideration when operating at an Iroquois Pipeline incident is the evacuation of the area involved
D: Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be performed by a Squad Company or SOC Support Ladder Company
Answer: A
AUC 150
A-Due to the extreme high pressure found in this pipeline system, consideration shall be given to allow escaping gas to naturally disperse into the atmosphere without the the use of fog lines to assist in dispersal. The use of fog lines may actually hinder the dissipation of the gas….sec 7.1.2
B- sec 7.1.1
C- sec 7.2.1
D- sec 7.2.3
Places of worship have several unique architectural features that firefighters should be aware of in order to successfully mitigate fires in these occupancies. Which feature described below is incorrect?
A: The attic or cockloft vent provides an excellent location for water application to extinguish fire in the area above the concealed attic or cockloft. When located in the front of a place of worship, it will be a few feet below the Rose window.
B: A bell tower is considered a collapse hazard.
C: The upper portion of a masonry dome is always in compression while the base and lower portion is in tension.
D: Buttresses are fairly common on older places of worship, as a means of providing support to act against the lateral forces from the roof structures that lack adequate bracing.
Answer: A
A. The attic or cockloft vent provides an excellent location for water application to extinguish fire in the area above the concealed attic or cockloft. When located in the front of a place of worship, it will be a few feet ABOVE the Rose window.
This wasn’t an easy question but don’t give up the glossary when studying, especially when it contains a lot of unique information
Places of Worship Glossary
Two ECCS discussing basic Engine operations were interrupted by the probationary firefighter who made which incorrect comment?
A: The Engine apparatus should be maintained in “Pressure Operation” unless the pumping operation needs to overcome head pressure (i.e. supplying a standpipe system in a high-rise building) in which case the pump should be switched to “Volume Operation”.
B: Switching from “Volume Operation” to “Pressure Operation” is done using the transfer valve. Prior to using the transfer valve, the engine RPM should be returned to idle pressure.
C: The Master Inlet Pressure Gauge is also called the “Intake Pressure Gauge” and provides a reading of the intake pressure of the apparatus (i.e. the pressure a hydrant is supplying to the apparatus.)
D: The Master Pressure Gauge provides a reading of the total amount of pressure currently being generated by the apparatus pump. When properly primed, this will be equal to the sum of the pressure the Engine is being supplied plus the additional pressure being generated by the pump.
Answer: A
A) The Engine apparatus should be maintained in “VOLUME Operation” unless the pumping operation needs to overcome head pressure (i.e. supplying a standpipe system in a high-rise building) in which case the pump should be switched to “PRESSURE Operation”.
Engine Ops Ch 2 2.3, 2.4, 6.1.4, 6.1.5. 7.3
There are several Fire and Life Safety programs that officers and firefighters must be familiar with such as, Open House, Operation Sidewalk, Firehouse visits, etc. From the choices listed below, choose the incorrect statement made in regards to these programs.
A: Visits to the Firehouse are not to be scheduled during BISP, hydrant inspections, scheduled training activities or any other period designated by the Chief of Operations
B: All fire safety education programs are exempt from the 10-51
C: During Operation Sidewalk, units shall only respond to only 10-75 signals or greater
D: Units shall remain in service during Firehouse visits and Open House visits
Answer: B
AUC 4
A- sec 2.3
B- All fire safety education programs are exempt from the 10-51 EXCEPT Operation Sidewalk or when ordered by the Chief of Operations…sec 2.5 and 3.3.6
C- sec 3.3.2
D- 3.1.2 and 3.2.3
Which of the following letters is CORRECT for an Engine Company designated as part of a Division Task Force?
A: I
B: K
C: D
D: T
Answer: B
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL - -COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
B IS CORRECT 2.12.1#2 PG 2-18 (Engine or Truck)
A – FireIce Unit
C – Tech Decon Task Force Engine
D – Transport Backup Unit (Engine or Truck)
At gas emergencies, the ramifications of closing, or damaging, a main valve are far greater than closing or damaging a curb valve. When identifying these valves, which point below is incorrect?
A: Con Edison gas main valves have ID numbers on tags inside the valve cover.
B: Main valves covers are larger than curb valve covers to allow servicing and may be round or square.
C: Curb valves are always found on the sidewalk side of the curb, and these valves shut gas to the entire building.
D: Main valves are generally found near street corners, but may also be located along the street or on the sidewalk.
Answer: C
C. Curb valves are USUALLY found on the sidewalk side of the curb and these valves shut gas to the entire building.
Note: On the National Grid “Long Service” system, the curb valve is sometimes located across the street from the building it supplies, AND MAY BE FOUND IN THE STREET. This type of curb valve can be identified by an arrow cast into the cover pointing to the building it supplies.
Natural Gas 4.3 & 4.4
The placement of an aerial ladder apparatus (tractor-trailer and rear mount) is dependent on four conditions. Which condition is listed incorrectly?
A: Whether immediate rescue is apparent.
B: Where no immediate rescue effort is required, the location and number of windows on the building.
C: Smoke, heat or fire causing an exposure that would endanger a victim, a member or the ladder.
D: Area or street conditions that might hamper optimum positioning.
Answer: B
B) Where no immediate rescue effort is required, the SIZE OF THE FRONTAGE of the building to be covered in case of future need.
Lad 2 2.1
Some hydrants should be designated as a “Priority Repair” in the Hansen Hydrant System. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: A hydrant that is out of service and is the only hydrant in a block should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”
B: A hydrant that is out of service, which is vital to the protection of the NY Stock Exchange, a high-profile location, should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”
C: A hydrant that is out of service, which is vital to the protection of the Brooklyn Bridge should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”
D: If two adjacent hydrants in a block are both out-of-service, only one of them should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”
Answer: D
D) If two adjacent hydrants in a block are both out-of-service, they are BOTH priority repairs.
C Note: This includes other critical infrastructure locations such as tunnels, transit systems, etc.
Engine Ops Ch 3 Add 2 2.8.1
When an observed (overt) suspected biological device is discovered, an initial Exclusion Zone shall be established. This Exclusion Zone shall be at least __________ feet in all directions from the source or point(s) of release.
A: 50 feet
B: 100 feet
C: 200 feet
D: 300 feet
Answer: D
ERP add 1 ch 1 sec 5.2.2
Snow chains are an “emergency traction device” and should be used as conditions warrant. Which additional point below regarding the use of snow chains on the apparatus is correct?
A: When the apparatus is out of quarters for any reason, except while responding to fires or emergencies, and the cross links of chains break or become loose, the officer in command of the apparatus shall cause the apparatus to stop immediately and have the condition corrected by removing loose or broken links with bolt cutters.
B: The use of chains on dry pavement will not damage the apparatus and is permitted.
C: The use of outriggers or tormentors to lift the apparatus inside the firehouse shall only be attempted with permission of the officer on duty.
D: When chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed 20 MPH.
Answer: A
Some updates to this section in 2019
B. The use of chains on dry pavement CAN CAUSE SEVERE DAMAGE TO THE APPARATUS. WHEN WEATHER AND ROAD CONDITIONS IMPROVE, CHAINS MUST BE REMOVED.
C. The use of outriggers or tormentors to lift the apparatus inside the firehouse shall NEVER BE ATTEMPTED.
D. When chains are applied, apparatus must NOT EXCEED 30 MPH.
Cross Ref Regulations Ch 11, 11.1.17 D: When turning corners no apparatus should be driven in EXCESS OF 15 MPH.
TB Apparatus C-2 Addendum 1 2.0
Vertical growth of the city has exploded in recent years giving birth to a whole new class of buildings. MEGA is required on CIDS cards to reflect this class of High-Rise building. Which height below is CORRECT for determining whether a building qualifies as a Mega Hi-Rise?
A: Buildings over 1000’ tall.
B: Buildings over 800’ tall
C: Buildings over 600’ tall.
D: Buildings over 500’ tall.
Answer: B
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 4
B is correct – 4.3.1 Mega Hi-Rise is any building OVER 800’ tall.
Typically at a structural fire, the 2nd arriving engine company will team up with the 1st arriving engine to operate the 1st hoseline. However, there are situations in which the 2nd arriving engine company may stretch and operate a 2nd hoseline. This should only be done when each of the following conditions exist, with the exception of which choice?
A: The 1st arriving engine company must have secured a positive water source. The 2nd arriving engine officer can communicate with the 1st arriving chauffeur to confirm this.
B: The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine chauffeur to confirm this.
C: The hose stretches are sufficiently short, so the 1st arriving company will not require immediate assistance in operating the line once it is charged.
D: There is an immediate need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard.
Answer: B
B) The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine OFFICER to confirm this. D Note: The Incident Commander (Chief Officer or Acting Chief Officer) may order the second engine in any situation to immediately stretch a second line for any purpose including the need for a backup line or exposure protection.
Engine Ops Ch 4 3.5
Which Engine Company is responsible for positioning near the 1st arriving Ladder Company and providing Emergency Gross Decontamination for ambulatory victims during a suspected chemical attack in an underground subway?
A: 1st arriving Engine
B: 2nd arriving Engine
C: 3rd arriving Engine
D: 4th arriving Engine
Answer: A
1st arriving Engine Company
- provide Emergency Gross Decontamination for ambulatory victims
- Direct persons who are decontaminated to Casualty Collection Points
- Provide estimate of number of victims to IC
- Inform 2nd arriving Ladder Company and IC if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decon area
2nd and 3rd arriving Engine Companies
- ensure that decon facilities are available quickly at remote locations (entrances)
- Perform CFRD duties as needed
ERP add 2 sec 7.1 and 7.2.1
After operating at a gas emergency, a newly promoted Lieutenant is discussing some features of gas related infrastructure with a young firefighter. He makes the following comments, but was incorrect in which one?
A: Head of service valves are typically the first valve after the curb valve, they are always before the meter and are generally located either on the interior or exterior of the building near the point of entry.
B: Service regulators are usually located before the gas meter on medium and high pressure systems to reduce gas to low pressure (1/4 psi).
C: Peck vents are installed on systems supplied by medium or high pressure to vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails. They may have a red cap. There should normally be a slight odor of natural gas at a peck vent.
D: Sometimes the utility company will have two master meters adjacent to one another. The valves to both meters would need to be closed to shut supply to the building.
Answer: C
C. Peck vents are installed on systems supplied by medium or high pressure to vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails. They may have a red cap. There should normally be NO ODOR of natural gas at a peck vent.
IF AN ODOR IS DETECTED, YOU MUST INVESTIGATE TO DETERMINE THE SOURCE.
Natural Gas 4.4.1, 4.4.2, 4.4.3
Proper Tower Ladder placement is crucial at a fire operation. All officers should be familiar with the information below except the incorrect statement in which choice?
A: Tower Ladders shall not be placed on sidewalks containing underground vaults.
B: Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus and this can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled toward the building line.
C: The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to an objective is 32 feet.
D: Generally, the boom has enough clearance to reach most 3rd floor windows and above when operating over the crew cab.
Answer: B
B) Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus and this can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled AWAY FROM the building line.
C Note: When the center line of the turntable is 25 feet from a building there will be sufficient room for the bucket to be dropped below the horizontal with the boom perpendicular to the side of the apparatus.
TL Ch 2 2
Officers should know the proper placement of portable ladders for the safety of operating members. In which choice below is the information correct?
A: The climbing angle for a ground ladder is approximately 75-85 degrees.
B: When placed at a window, the tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the window sill.
C: When placed at a roof, the tip shall be at least 5 feet above the roof or parapet.
D: When placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall, the tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing, but when placed against a fire escape, the tip shall be slightly above the fire escape railing.
Answer: D
D
A) The climbing angle for a ground ladder is approximately 65-75 degrees.
B) When placed at a window, the tip shall be level with window sill.
C) When placed at a roof, the tip shall be at least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.
Ladders 1 7.3, 7.4
Each Engine and Ladder Company were issued two Drager PAC 6500 C.O. meters recently. If a meter is damaged or not working properly, the company officer shall place the meter OOS and notify who for a replacement?
A: Haz-Mat 1
B: Haz-Mat Operations Meter Room
C: Administrative Battalion
D: Administrative Division
Answer: B
It used to be the admin battalion. This procedure has been changed since these meters were issued
CO meters will display readings up to 2,000 PPM. When readings exceed 2000 PPM, the CO meter will display “rrr” indicating concentrating too high to measure
Haz-Mat ch 4 add 2 sec 1.3 and 2.7.note
As the officer in charge of a company, you are responsible for knowing the inner workings of the MDT. Which of the following Incident disposition keys is a single action key that DOES NOT require the use of the send key?
A: 10-20
B: 10-92
C: 10-18
D: 10-19
Answer: A
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
A IS CORRECT – 2.22.1D (SECTION IN MARCH 2022 UPDATES)
B,C, & D all require the send button be pressed to complete the transaction.
Row Frame buildings present many hazards. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these hazards?
A: When a serious fire burns out the entire first floor, there is danger of collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone.
B: A heavy fire in the cockloft will burn roof supports and cause the collapse of the roof into the top floor.
C: The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the common cornice spreading over all the buildings in the row.
D: The major defects or faults in the construction are the lack of the fire stopping and the vast quantity of combustible material used in the construction.
Answer: C
C) The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the common COCKLOFT spreading over all the buildings in the row. This cockloft may vary in height from ONE FOOT to a height tall enough for a member to STAND in.
Brownstone Rowframe 5.3.2, 5.4 A, H
When operating during a hurricane, the depth of water that an apparatus (engine or ladder) can travel through shall be limited to what amount?
A: 18 inches
B: 2 feet
C: 3 feet
D: 3 1/2 feet
Answer: A
The depth of the water to be crossed should not exceed 18” for first line apparatus, and 50” for FDNY Hi-Axle vehicles
AUC 159 sec 5.4.3
Units are operating with three engines and two trucks at the scene of a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4-story multiple dwelling. Prior to the arrival of the FAST unit, which of the following members shall operate as the Safety Team?
A: Backup and control of the first due engine.
B: Backup and control of the second due engine.
C: LCC and OV of the first due ladder company.
D: LCC and OV of the second due ladder company.
Answer: B
Prior to the arrival of the FAST unit, the Safety Team shall normally be made up of the Backup and Control firefighters of the second arriving engine.
MMID Chapter 1 2.1.1
Of the following choices, which is an incorrect description of “stack effect?”
A: Positive Stack Effect occurs in the Winter where air and smoke movement inside the building will travel upwards via vertical shafts and attempt to exit the building via available openings near the top of the building.
B: Negative Stack Effect occurs in the Summer where air inside the building will travel downwards via vertical shafts and attempt to exit the building via available openings near the bottom of the building.
C: In New York City, the difference between the temperatures inside a building compared to the temperature outside the building will be greater during the Summer months.
D: Of all the conditions that can affect fire behavior, wind has the most dramatic impact. Wind can overpower the Stack Effect, change flow paths, significantly change the volume and intensity of a fire, and the speed at which materials burn.
Answer: C
C) In New York City, the difference between the temperatures inside a building compared to the temperature outside the building will be greater during the WINTER months than it will be during the summer months. For this reason, the positive stack effect which occurs during the winter will be MORE PROMINENT than the negative stack effect which occurs during summer months.
TB FD Ch 4 1.7, 2.1
You are in charge of the 2nd arriving Ladder Company at a top floor fire in a 6-story Old Law Tenement. Your Roof FF would be correct to carry the equipment in which choice?
A: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan, and 6’ Halligan Hook.
B: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, 6’ Halligan Hook, and LSR.
C: Saw and the 6’ Halligan Hook.
D: Saw and the Halligan.
Answer: C
For fire on a floor other than the top floor, the 2nd Roof FF should bring: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan, and 6’ Halligan Hook.
For top floor fires the saw and the 6’ Halligan Hook are taken.
Ladders 3.4.7
A FireIce Unit will be correctly shown on the response ticket in which choice?
A: E033I
B: E033F
C: L120K
D: E332S
Answer: A
FireIce units will be designated by the letter suffix”I” on the response ticket when assigned to respond as a FireIce unit
B- FAST Unit
C- Division Task Force
D- Communication Unit
NO TRUCKS ARE ASSIGNED AS A FIREICE UNIT
AUC 180 sec 4.1 and Communications Ch 2 p-18
Hybrid vehicles have become much more prevalent in recent years. Which hybrid vehicle safety consideration is described incorrectly?
A: Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is off, and the key or key fob is at least 10 feet away from the vehicle.
B: Never cut any high voltage cables. On most, the high voltage cables are color-coded orange. Although some cables are color-coded blue.
C: Make sure the “ready” light is not on.
D: At a hybrid vehicle fire, always make sure that the high-voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition.
Answer: A
A. Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is off, and the key or key fob is AT LEAST 15 FEET AWAY from the vehicle.
VARIATION OF THIS QUESTION ON 2009 LT EXAM
CROSS REF: AUC 5 Chapter 2 Addendum 3 Page 5: Rooftop Conduits and Piping
High voltage wiring: Red
Low voltage wiring: Orange
TB Fires 8 11.6 C
Engine 244 is assigned to fire in a High-Rise Building as the Communications Unit. Which letter suffix is CORRECT?
A: Y
B: K
C: S
D: C
Answer: C
COMMUNICATION MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
C IS CORRECT – S = COMMUNICATIONS UNIT 2.12.1 #2PG 2-18
A – SYSTEMS CONTROL UNIT
B – DIVISION TASK FORCE
D – CFRD ENGINE
The proper maintenance of hose is essential to effective operations. Of the following choices, which one is incorrect?
A: All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 250 psi. The hose must be less than 10 years old.
B: Hose tested must not have any obvious defects. These includes damaged couplings, abrasions, burns, or rot to the hose jacket. If defects are noted, the hose should not be tested and should be placed OOS.
C: During the hose test, the apparatus is hooked up to a hydrant using the inlet opposite the pump panel. In addition, attach a single gate to the pumper outlet, also on the side opposite the pump panel.
D: During the annual hose test, the test pressure is maintained for 5 minutes and the ECC should be mindful that there is no movement of water during the test and the pump may build up heat. If heat is noted, a valve on an unused gate may be partially opened to allow water movement.
Answer: A
A) All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 300 PSI. *Note - this is a change from our old Engine Operations manuals.
Engine Ops Ch 3 Add 3 5.1, 5.3.2, 5.3.5, 5.3.6, 5.4.11
The most correct procedure when operating at a fire in a Foreign Embassy can be found i which choice?
A: The Foreign Embassy is located in a 25X60 4 sty Brownstone. You ordered a 2 1/2” line stretched to extinguish a fire on the parlor floor
B: If entry is denied in any Foreign Embassy on fire, do not enter. Instead protect exposures and set up TL in front
C: After fire is knocked down in a Foreign embassy, relief companies must be able to enter to relieve initial companies and complete overhaul since the FDNY now controls the scene
D: During a fire in a Foreign Embassy, if explosives or ammunition are involved then notify the IC and avoid the area while extinguishing the fire
Answer: B
AUC 196
A- Stretch hoselines compatible with the occupancy and fire conditions. In this case it would be 1 3/4”…sec 5.1
B- sec 4.6
C- Embassy personnel may refuse to let relief companies in and they may also refuse to allow overhauling. Do not argue; if asked to leave then do so…..sec 4.7
D- Expect storage of ammunition and explosives. If ammunition and explosives are involved, evacuate immediately and notify the NYPD and Fire Marshals …sec 5.3
This is considered a separator question in the author’s opinion. Its only 2 pages, but worth the read
Queens Package
Based on the following CFR assignments, which CFR firefighter is responsible for manually stabilizing the patients spine if trauma is suspected?
A: “A”: Airway
B: “C”: Checker
C: “D”: Defib/Documenter
D: “E” Equipment
Answer: A
“A” Airway: Manually stabilizing spine (if trauma is suspected) while opening the airway, maintaining the airway, and administering oxygen if needed. In response to cardiac arrest, begins ventilation. Carries o2 bag.
“B” Boss: Officer in charge
“C” Checker: Conducts patient assessment and performs hand-on care. In response to cardiac arrest, checks pulse and begins compressions. Carries trauma bag.
“D” Defib/Documenter: Completes PCR. In response to cardiac arrest, hooks up and operates defibrillator.
“E” Equipment: If CFR unit is 5 FF, the fifth FF shall initially remain with the apparatus and help carry any additional equipment needed.
CFR Chapter 2 2.1
Your unit is operating at a fire on the 32nd floor of a high rise office building. What is the recommended pump discharge pressure?
A: 200psi
B: 260psi
C: 300psi
D: 350psi
Answer: C
If you picked B, please read the full explanation
C) Floors 1-10 supply 150psi
Then add 50psi for every 10 floors
HROB 4.1.7
***There’s a difference between standpipe pressures for HRMD and HROB.
At a HRMD the correct answer would be 260 (Eng Ops ch 8 add 2)
Please see Eng OPs Ch 8 sec 3.9.11 Note: For fires in High Rise Office Buildings, the chart in FFP—High Rise Office Buildings shall be utilized.
All officers should be familiar with the types of hydrants and other water supply sources in their response areas. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Some Yellow Hydrants on Parkways and Expressways are maintained shut at the curb valve. They must be turned on fully at the curb valve, approximately 17 turns clockwise using a curb valve key, in order to be used.
B: Red Air Cock Hydrants are on 30” diameter or greater mains in strategic locations (high and low points on the water main). These hydrants are painted red and are excellent sources of water for Fire Department use.
C: Red Satellite Water System Hydrants are a twin hydrant arrangement on large mains and shall never be used. The hydrants are painted red and are high pressure hydrants.
D: Wall Hydrants are embedded in the wall of a building and closely resemble a Fire Department Connection (but should be labeled as a hydrant.) They are operated by turning an operating nut (often located above the outlets.)
Answer: C
C) Red Satellite Water System Hydrants are a twin hydrant arrangement on large mains for a rapid and ADEQUATE source of water for Satellite Units. The hydrants are painted red and MAY have two 4 ½” outlets.
Engine Ops Ch 3 Add 4 2.3.3 - 2.3.6
The correct procedure when operating in the subway can be found in which choice?
A: When trying to extinguish a small rubbish fire near the 3rd rail, you ordered a FF to shut power using the nearest power removal box to remove power
B: When conditions do not require power removal, reconnaissance may be conducted by an Officer and a FF operating as a team and only from platforms or catwalks when extinguishing a small rubbish fire
C: The communication relay in a subway will consist of Truck Chauffeur, Roof FF, OV FF, Engine Officer, Truck Officer (In this order)
D: Upon report of a fire in a subway, it is imperative that all Engine Chauffeurs secure and hook up to a hydrant as soon as possible
Answer: B
AUC 207
A- Power removal boxes are for when there is an immediate danger and power must be shut-off to save lives in imminent danger….sec 3.2.4
B- sec 3.4
C- C.O.R.E…… Truck Chauffeur, OV FF, Roof FF, Engine Officer, Truck Officer…..sec 4.1
D- Engine Chauffeurs should not hook up until the location of the fire is determined…sec 5.1
FDNY units respond to a 20-story high-rise office building for a fire on the 13th floor. The “A” elevators serve floors 1 to 7; the “B” elevators serve floors 7 to 15; and the “C” elevators serve 15 to 20. There are access stairs going from the 9th floor to the 10th floor and the 11th floor to the 12th floor. When deciding which elevator to use for this fire operation, units would be most correct to take?
A: The “A” elevator to 7th floor.
B: The “B” elevator no higher than the 8th floor.
C: The “B” elevator no higher than the 9th floor.
D: The “B” elevator no higher than the 11th floor.
Answer: D
Each part of 7-5-2 elevator rule must be considered separately:
7: 7th floor or below units walk up (this didn’t apply here)
5: Do not use an elevator bank which serves the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 5 floors of the fire floor (this didn’t apply here the “A”bank is 6 floors below).
2: When it is necessary to use an elevator bank which services the fire floor (as was the case in this example) select a floor at least two floor below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.
IN THIS EXAMPLE, THE ACCESS STAIRS DOES NOT SERVE THE FIRE AREA. THEREFORE “D” IS THE CORRECT CHOICE. UNITS TAKE THE “B” ELEVATOR NO HIGHER THAN THE 11th FLOOR WHICH IS 2 FLOORS BELOW THE FIRE FLOOR.
THIS SECTION OF THE ELEVATOR BULLETIN IS ASKED ON VIRTUALLY EVERY EXAM. MAKE SURE YOU KNOW IT COLD
TB Elevators 6.1
Members were discussing the designations of units during a study session. Which designation is CORRECT?
A: Engine 256 is assigned to an Ice Rescue incident. They were listed on the ticket with the Prefix W.
B: Engine 244 is assigned to a High-Rise fire as the Systems Control Unit. They were listed on the ticket with the Suffix S.
C: Engine 232 is assigned to a 1075 as a High-Pressure Pumper. They were listed on the ticket with the Prefix P.
D: Engine 322 is assigned to a collapse incident as the transport unit. They were listed on the ticket with the prefix E.
Answer: D
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
D IS CORRECT – Engine companies are designated by the prefix E. 2.12.1A1
A – Water/Ice Rescue is indicated by the SUFFIX W
B – Systems Control Unit is indicated by the SUFFIX Y
C – High Pressure Pumper is indicated by the SUFFIX P
Of the following choices, in which case was a vacant building not marked properly?
A: Markings were spray painted with lime-yellow reflective paint.
B: The size of the square was approximately 18” x 18” and marking lines were 2” wide.
C: The letters “RO” shall be made directly over the vacant building markings in cases when a roof is opened to the degree that there is little need for future vertical ventilation (i.e. previously cut or burned away).
D: The letters “FO” shall be made directly over vacant building markings in cases when members determine that floors within the building have holes or openings that may endanger members.
Answer: D
D) The letters “FO” shall be made directly UNDERNEATH vacant building markings in cases when members determine that floors within the building have holes or openings that may endanger members.
Note: Primary markings shall be made alongside the front entrance of the building at a height that is in line with the area directly over the front entrance.
Markings should be high enough to ensure visibility. To achieve this height, a ladder may be required.
If the building has multiple entrances or other likely means of access, additional markings shall be made at other places (e.g., rear or side entrance, fire escape, roof bulkhead, etc.)
Do not mark sealed doors or windows. The structure should be marked at locations that are likely to remain undisturbed.
Vacant 3.1
You are giving a drill on how to halt train traffic when operating on or near train tracks. The procedure that’s most correct can be found in which choice?
A: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held chest high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least four feet
B: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held waist high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least four feet
C: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held chest high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least two feet
D: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held waist high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least two feet
Answer: A
AUC 207 sec 7.4
Look at sec 7.3….”Whenever members are committed to a track area, firefighters shall be assigned in pairs to act as warning guards” (2021 Captains exam)
Which one of the following conditions is indicative of a major gas emergency?
A: Minor damage to a major component of the gas infrastructure.
B: 5% LEL or greater detected outside or inside.
C: Elevated natural gas reading (10% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subsurface structure.
D: Gas present in two or more subsurface structures.
Answer: D
A. SERIOUS damage to a major component of the gas infrastructure.
B. 10% LEL or greater detected outside or inside.
C. Elevated natural gas reading (20% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subsurface structure.
Other indicators:
- Indications of gas migrating into a building from an outside source.
- Gas leaking inside of a structure and the controlling valve cannot be located or is inoperable.
- Gas leaking or present inside of a wall or void in a structure.
Natural Gas 5.0
Queens Package
All officers should have a basic understanding of fire dynamics. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?
A: The horizontal line between the inflow and outflow at a ventilation opening (i.e., at the plane where there is zero pressure difference and thus zero flow in or out of the opening) is known as the neutral plane. The position of the neutral plane can often be observed during a fire, given that the outflow often consists of visible smoke or fire.
B: The neutral plane is another term for thermal interface and may occur inside a fire compartment or at any ventilation opening.
C: Thermal Interface and interface height refer to the separation between the hot upper layer and the cool lower layer within a compartment. It can be used by firefighters to identify how far the hot upper layer has banked down and the possibility of flashover.
D: The neutral plane indicates pressure differences at an opening and may be used by firefighters outside the building to help determine the fire location within a building.
Answer: B
B) The neutral plane is DIFFERENT from the thermal interface because the neutral plane ONLY occurs at a ventilation opening.
TB FD Ch 2 2.5.4, 2.5.5
While operating at the scene of a structural collapse, you hear 3 short blasts (1 second each) from an air horn. What does this indicate?
A: Cease Operations/All Quiet
B: Evacuate the area
C: Report to the Command Post
D: Resume Operations
Answer: B
B) Evacuate the area
1 Long Blast (3 seconds) - Cease Operations/All Quiet
3 short blasts (1 second each) - Evacuate the area
1 long and 1 short blast - Resume Operations
Collapse 9.2
When operating water into manhole, vault, or service box, you should maintain a distance of at least how many feet?
A: 10 feet
B: 15 feet
C: 20 feet
D: 25 feet
Answer: D
AUC 180 was recently rewritten (November 2021)
AUC 180 sec 4.7.2
According to the most recent ventilation bulletin, generally, backdrafts will occur ______ the main body of fire and require ______ change in ventilation.
A: remote from; no
B: remote from; a sudden
C: in proximity to; no
D: in proximity to; a sudden
Answer: D
Note: Smoke explosion generally occurs REMOTE from the main body of fire and NO ADDITIONAL VENTILATION is needed.
Ventilation Glossary
Lt. Sponge was discussing the actions taken by Engine 2 after receiving an E alarm in a High-Rise building on the 34th floor. Which was the only CORRECT action taken by Engine 2 upon arrival at this single unit response? Note: The building is a 40 Story 200x200 Class 1 with six elevators and Access stairs servicing floors 17-23 & 30-37.
A: Engine 2 had their ECC remain with the apparatus and responded in with forcible entry tools and after checking in with building personnel and being advised of a smoke detector activation on the 34th floor transmitted the box.
B: Engine 2 had their ECC remain with the apparatus and boarded an elevator car and took the elevator to the 32nd floor using precautions normally taken with fire service elevators.
C: Engine 2 contacted the ECC in the apparatus and had her transmit a second alarm 1076 upon discovering a smoke condition on the 34th floor.
D: Engine 2 had their ECC remain with the apparatus and returned to the lobby to secure the necessary hose and equipment in preparation to operate after discovering the smoke condition on the 34th floor.
Answer: D
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 6 – ADDENDUM 2
D IS CORRECT 3.7 Second Bullet Point
A – Officer shall make contact with building personnel; inquire as to the alarm source and direct building personnel to reset the alarm system. If reset doesn’t hold after 2-3 minutes, then you investigate. 3.4 & 3.5
B – When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, select a floor at least 2 floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest. (Elev 6.1.4 A & B) Access stairs serve floors 30-37…
C – A second alarm is warranted for any visible fire or smoke emanating through the exterior skin of the building or when a SERIOUS fire has been verified. (Hi-Rise 5.2.2B)
Proper aerial ladder placement is important to the overall success of a fire operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Place the apparatus 13 feet from the building for a good climbing angle
B: Place the apparatus in the center of the street, if possible
C: For an experienced member, when placing the ladder, accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the ladder rail of the top section.
D: For the less experienced member, when placing the ladder, accuracy will be attained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.
Answer: A
A) Place the apparatus 25 to 35 feet from the building for a good climbing angle.
A Note: Average city sidewalk is 13’ from the building line to the curb and 35’ from curb to curb.
Ladders 2 3.1, 3.1.4
The INCORRECT statement when referring to the Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force (RRV) can be found in which choice?
A: RRVs with 4 doors will have MDTs and 4 wheel drive
B: RRVs with 2 doors will not have a MDT and only have 2 wheel drive capability
C: Only 4 door RRVs will be designated in CADS with an “R” Ex: L-25 RRV will show on MDT as R025
D: When supervising a RRV Task Force, the primary method of communication will be the Department Radio
Answer: D
Primary Communications - 400 MHz UHF Radios
Alternate Communications- 800 MHz radios
Contingency Communications - Cell Phones
Emergency Communications - Department Radio
Look at choice “C”- 2 door RRVs will not have a prefix “R” like found in 4 door vehicles. Instead 2 door vehicles will be designated when called over the Department radio as SSL-126 (L-126 2nd piece)
AUC 159 add 8 sec 3 and 4
First alarm units arrive at a chute fire in a compactor of a high-rise fireproof multiple dwelling. Which operation performed is incorrect?
A: The first engine company to arrive will proceed to one level above the burning material, stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire.
B: The Roof FF of the ladder company operates with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension.
C: The officer and forcible entry team of the ladder company will operate in the compactor room. They must first locate the electrical shut off and shut power to the unit before operations commence.
D: After the engine company has extinguished the fire, the ladder company may begin overhauling. Before opening the compactor unit access door, they are to be sure the hoseline is shut down and the sprinkler OS&Y is closed.
Answer: B
B. THE OV FF of the ladder company operates with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension.
THE ROOF FF of the ladder company will generally proceed to the roof to vent.
TB Fires 7 8.2
Question 1:
There are a number of decisions the nozzle firefighter is empowered to make while operating a hoseline. Which of the following is not one of those decisions?
A: Opening/Closing the nozzle
B: Emergency opening of the nozzle
C: Direction of the stream
D: Advancement rate
Answer: A
Explanation:
A) The decision to open or close the nozzle is made by the engine officer.
Acronym for Nozzle FF decisions: DECALS C
Direction of the stream.
Emergency opening of the nozzle.
Closing (partially) the nozzle to reduce nozzle reaction and regain control.
Advancement rate.
Line - calling for more.
Sweeping the floor with the stream.
Communicating the need to be relieved on the nozzle.
Eng Ch 6 2.7.1
Question 2:
While conducting BISP, the members come across a building that requires a CIDS Card. The address of the building is 120-140 Avenue X. Which choice is CORRECT regarding completing this card?
A: A CIDS entry must be completed and submitted for each number in the range.
B: The combined number should be included under the address portion of the entry.
C: A CIDS entry must be completed for the first and last number in the range.
D: Once the entry is completed, the BISP Unit will determine if additional CIDS are required for other addresses.
Answer: C
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS
C IS CORRECT – The officer must enter a CIDS message for the first and last posted address numbers of such range. 4.5.1#3
A – See Choice C
B – The combined number should be included in the transmitted data portion of the card. 4.5.1#3
D – The Unit Officer will determine if additional CIDS are required for other addresses. 4.5.1#3
Question 3:
When operating at a Liquid Petroleum Gas (propane) emergency there are basic precautions to take such as standoff distances. The correct standoff distances to take when operating at a propane tanker truck incident can be found in which choice?
A: Keep everyone not actually engaged in operations at least 1,000 feet from the front and rear of the tank, and 500 feet from the sides
B: Keep everyone not actually engaged in operations at least 500 feet from the front and rear of the tank, and 1,000 feet from the sides
C: Keep everyone not actually engaged in operations at least 100 feet from the front and rear of the tank, and 50 feet from the sides
D: Keep everyone not actually engaged in operations at least 50 feet from the front and rear of the tank, and 100 feet from the sides
Answer: A
Explanation:
Haz-Mat ch 1 sec 1.2 and 1.3.3
Properties of Propane:
- Non-Toxic
- Non-Poisonous
- Slightly Anesthetic
- Odorless
- Flammable
- Heavier than air (1.5 to 2 times heavier)
~~~
Question 4:
If a security decal on a fire apparatus becomes damaged, the apparatus shall remain in-service while awaiting a replacement. In this situation, who is the company officer responsible to notify by telephone to obtain a replacement decal?
A: Battalion
B: Division
C: Fire Marshals
D: Fleet Services
Answer: D
Explanation:
Variation of this question was on 2021 Captain Exam
Additional Points:
- All remnants of damaged decals shall be recovered and preserved.
- Notification and all pertinent information recorded in company journal.
- A letterhead report documenting all information is forwarded through the chain of command to the Assistant Commissioner of Fleet Services/Technical Services.
- A copy of the letterhead, as well as the remains of the decal, will be forwarded to BFI.
TB Apparatus C-2 Addendum 2 4.6
Question 5:
While performing a secondary search at the scene of a large building collapse, you come across an area marked by a large “V” with a circle around it and a horizontal line through it. You would be most correct to determine this indicates?
A: A live victim is confirmed trapped and awaiting removal.
B: There may be a deceased victim in the area.
C: A victim is confirmed deceased.
D: There are no victims in the area.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A) A horizontal line through the middle indicates the victim is confirmed “deceased.”
B) The circle around the “V” is for when the location of a potential victim has been “confirmed.”
D) A large “V”, (for Victim) approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a “known” or “potential” victim.
Collapse Add 2 5.2-5.4
Question 6:
From the choices listed below, which chemical agent has a distinct fruity odor?
A: Nerve Agent
B: Blister Agent
C: Blood Agent
D: Choking Agent
Answer: A
Explanation: B- Blister: Garlic C- Blood: Burnt Almonds D- Choking: Musky Hay ERP add 2 p-18
Question 7:
A member of Ladder 100 is inspecting her PSS at the start of the tour. She notices signs of heat exposure on the bag of the PSS. She would be most correct to place which components of the system out of service?
A: The PSS bag only.
B: The PSS bag and rope only.
C: The PSS bag, rope and EXO only.
D: The PSS bag, rope, EXO, and personal harness.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If the bag (or any components of PSS) show signs of heat exposure (discoloration, degradation, melting, charring, etc.) the entire system (PSS bag, rope, EXO, and harness) should be placed out of service.
Variation of this question was asked on 2021 Captains Exam
TB Rope 4 5.3.3
Question 8:
The members of Ladder 171 were completing BISP and putting together CIDS cards. The completed cards are as follows… Which one is CORRECT? (PLEASE DISREGARD HYPHENS AT THE END OF THE LINE)
A: MEGA–COMM–80 STY-200X200–CL1-FULLY SPKR 3 ELEV BANKS – LOW BANK FLRS 1-29, MID 29-59, HIGH 59-80 – ACCESS STAIRS FLRS 20-30 & 47-53 SPKR & STDP SIAM EXP 1-4 CORNER – MIN RESPONSE 32
B: MD 100x100 22 STY CL1- SPKR THRUOUT SCISSOR STAIRS-ELEV MACH ROOM ON ROOF APG (100 CARS) IN CELLAR AND SUB CELLAR PWR REM FOR APG IN B STAIR AT SUB CELLAR
C: MD MJALT 4 STY 60X80 CL3-INTERCONN 182, 186, & 190 WEBSTER AVENUE-MAIN ENT IN 186 WEBSTER-NO STAIRCASES IN 182 WEBSTER ACCESS TO ROOF VIA AERIAL/TOWER LADDER
D: FACTORY 6 STY 100X200 CL2 – MFG PLASTIC PRODUCTS-INTERCONN 173 JOHN STREET ON ALL FLRS-SPKR FDC IN REAR ON WHITE STREET RF ACCESS LMTD-HIGH PARAPET AROUND ROOF
Answer: D
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS
D IS CORRECT
A – MINRESP 32 (One word, followed by a space & then a two digit number representing the number of engines and number of ladder placed last in the transmitted data) 4.5.3#5
B – Order is Incorrect – Height before dimensions – Designation, Occupancy, Height, Dimension, Class 4.5.3
C – Order is Incorrect – FD Designation is first (MJALT), Occupancy (MD), Height, dimensions, class 4.5.3B1
Question 9:
Engine companies can use a standing body of water as a positive water source when there are no hydrants available, or in situations where more water is required than can be supplied by the hydrant system. When drafting water, units should abide by each of the following, except for which incorrect choice?
A: The apparatus should be operated in Volume Operation and the PPG should be switched to “Revolutions Per Minute (RPM) Mode”. Once switched to RPM Mode, the PPG throttle should be increased to 1,000 RPM.
B: The apparatus priming pump is used to remove air from the drafting hose, which creates a vacuum and pulls water into the system. The prime should last for at least 45 seconds.
C: A positive and steady Master Pressure Gauge reading will indicate a successful draft and a negative reading on the Master Inlet Pressure Gauge is normal. Once a successful draft is achieved, the PPG is returned to PSI Mode for pumping operations.
D: The connection is secured with a rope tied just below the strainer using a clove hitch and binder and lowered until the strainer is at least 22 feet under the water’s surface.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D) The connection is secured with a rope tied just ABOVE the strainer using a clove hitch and binder and lowered until the strainer is AT LEAST 2 feet under the water’s surface. A pumper can draft water a MAXIMUM distance of roughly 22 feet, though anything over 10 feet reduces the Gallons Per Minute (GPM) capability of the pumper.
B Note: To make this possible, all inlets and outlets not used must be capped and spanner tightened.
Eng Ch 5 3.8
Question 10:
When arriving 2nd due in E-100 for a confirmed explosion with ladder companies already on scene, you are to report to what location at this incident?
A: Report to the Point of Impact (POI) to assist the 1st arriving engine with victim assessment and removal from the POI
B: Report to the Triage Transfer Point and remain there until relieved by a Battalion Chief
C: Report to the Patient Relay Point (PRP) and assist the 2nd arriving ladder company in victims to the Triage Transfer Point
D: Report to the Transportation Corridor and ensure the corridor is kept clear of traffic to maintain both access and egress
Answer: C
Explanation:
C. It is used to determine THE LOCATION OF THE GAS LEAK.
The NATURAL GAS METER is used to determine the amount of gas present in the area.
Note “A”: Natural Gas Addendum 1 states the Sensit can detect gas as low as 20 PPM.
Natural Gas 6.4
Question 12:
At a private dwelling cellar fire, the IC (Chief or Company Officer) may consider ordering an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown when there will be a delay in applying water from the interior, or whenever fire conditions dictate. Other parameters that must be met when considering this approach include each of the following except?
A: This should only be attempted when you know the location of members operating in the cellar. It must be carefully coordinated with and communicated to all units operating on scene.
B: The primary consideration for members operating on the first floor above a cellar fire is to close the interior cellar door at the top of the stairs.
C: Based on conditions encountered, for the safety of members remaining on the first floor, consider having them operate under the protection of a charged hoseline, secure an area of refuge (ensure a ready means of egress), or having them exit the building.
D: In an emergency such as members trapped by fire in the cellar or endangered by fire because a collapse has occurred, the IC should order the immediate operation of a hoseline into a cellar window.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A) This should only be attempted when NO members are operating in the cellar. It must be carefully coordinated with and communicated to all units operating on scene. (However, note the exception in Choice D, when you can do this in an “emergency”.)
Note: It is a good practice at PD fires, especially serious cellar fires, to have a precautionary charged hoseline in position near the front of the building for these contingencies.
PD Ch 3 2.6
Question 13:
The Handie-Talkie relay in a subway consists of the ladder company FFs and the engine officer (Chauffeur, OV, Roof, Engine Officer/CORE). These members have per-determined positions according to our books. Which member is out of position?
A: Truck chauffeur is always at the token booth
B: OV FF is at the foot of the stairs leading to the platform if it is within 50 yards of the Truck Chauffeur
C: Roof FF is approximately 50 yards from the stairs on the platform
D: Engine Officer is approximately 100 yards (line of sight) from the Roof FF on the platform
Answer: A
Explanation:
Truck chauffeur is at the bottom of the subway entrance stairs. IF the token booth is within 50 yards of stairs to street, contact train dispatcher through the clerk. The chauffeur should relay the token booth phone number to the Truck Officer in case it is necessary to call the booth from a blue light telephone
AUC 207 sec 4.1
Question 14:
Understanding fire dynamics includes knowledge of air flow patterns. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Ventilation points (openings) that are lower in the building are more efficient in pulling air towards the fire. This is especially true when there are both a low opening (such as door or window) and a high opening (such as a skylight or bulkhead door).
B: The “temporary improvement period” that occurs during vertical ventilation conducted ahead of hoseline operation and without door control lasts for an unspecified amount of time; it can be seconds or several minutes before conditions deteriorate. There is no way to accurately determine how long this time will be.
C: Handline and exterior streams entrain the most air when they are whipped around in a circular motion. A short, acute angled fixed stream (not whipping) aimed at the ceiling just inside of a window, will entrain the least amount of air.
D: When the stream is short, the more air is entrained. The least amount of air entrainment occurs when utilizing the reach of the stream.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D) When the stream is LONGER (using the reach of the stream) the more air is entrained. The least amount of air entrainment occurs when the stream is SHORT and operated in a fixed position.
C Note: Operated correctly in this manner, the maximum amount of water will enter the room with the least amount of air and therefore without any pushing effect on the fire.
TB FD Add 1 3.2, 3.3, 3.6, Add 2 3.2-3.4
Question 15:
After reviewing four recent “All Hands” fires, the Deputy Chief found one instance of improper aerial ladder positioning. Which choice shows the incorrect positioning?
A: At a Brownstone fire, the LCC placed the aerial ladder tip 3” from the objective, which was a cornice.
B: In order to rescue two children from a Rowframe fire, the LCC placed the aerial ladder 2” from the objective, which was a window the children were hanging out of.
C: Since she had to place the aerial ladder to the roof of a 7-story Old Law Tenement, which was at a very extreme angle, the LCC allowed the ladder to barely touch the building.
D: At a fire in a Class 2 building, the LCC placed the ladder tip 6” over the window sill.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D) When positioning a ladder at a window, the placement must allow for unimpeded access and egress at this window. Therefore, the ladder tip should be LESS THAN 6” over the window sill.
The recommended distance of the tip from the objective is 2” to 6”.
In case of rescue, use the 2” positioning so that the ladder will rest against the window sill after weight is put on it.
At a very extreme angle, e.g., placing the ladder to the roof of a seven story building, allow the ladder to barely touch the building.
Lad 2 3.1.5, 3.1.6
Question 16:
Which of the following choices indicates the CORRECT occasion when units in the same quarters would make themselves AQ simultaneously via the PC/ATS?
A: When units responded to multiple boxes.
B: When units responded to different boxes.
C: One unit is a relocated unit.
D: Unit(s) did not go 10-8.
Answer: A
Explanation: COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 2 – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH A IS CORRECT 2.2.2B B – 2.2.2 B C – 2.2.2 B D – 2.2.2 B
Question 17:
When does salvage begin?
A: When the fire is “knocked down”.
B: With the initial attack.
C: When the fire is place “probably will hold”.
D: When the fire is placed “under control”.
Answer: B
Explanation:
It begins with the initial attack and continues throughout operations and overhaul.
Variation of this question was asked on last Lieutenants Exam
It Is found in the “introduction” of the salvage bulletin and many good students got it wrong.
DO NOT GLOSS OVER THE INTRODUCTION. ALWAYS SCAN IT FOR ANY TESTABLE INFO
Salvage 1.3
Question 18:
The equipment that shall be assembled in readiness and placed on all company apparatus when a snow or ice emergency is imminent, or Phase A or Phase B is established can be correctly stated which choice?
A: At least 6 extra lengths of 1 3/4” hose, 2 shovels, containers of salt or sand, vehicle recovery strap with shackle, tire chains, special hydrant connection
B: At least 6 extra lengths of 2 1/2” hose, 2 shovels, containers of salt or sand, vehicle recovery strap with shackle, tire chains, special hydrant connection
C: At least 3 extra lengths of 1 3/4” hose, 2 shovels, containers of salt or sand, vehicle recovery strap with shackle, tire chains, special hydrant connection
D: At least 3 extra lengths of 2 1/2” hose, 2 shovels, containers of salt or sand, vehicle recovery strap with shackle, tire chains, special hydrant connection
Answer: B
Explanation:
AUC 200 sec 3.3.3
Question 19:
The Nozzle position in an Engine Company is one of the most important positions at a fire. Which choice is incorrect?
A: This position is assigned by the officer at the start of each tour but can be flexible, allowing a less experienced firefighter to move up to the nozzle at a minor fire to gain valuable “on the job” experience.
B: When the engine officer calls for water the nozzle firefighter must prepare for a “long bleed” of the hose line. While waiting for the line to be charged, the nozzle can either be kept closed or cracked slightly open, allowing air to escape and then the nozzle is fully opened after water reaches nozzle, allowing water to flow.
C: The long bleed is especially important at standpipe operations, as it allows the control firefighter to accurately set the operating pressure at the standpipe outlet while water is flowing.
D: When bleeding the line it should be directed away the fire area, and into the hallway, using caution to prevent water from going into the elevator shaft.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D) When bleeding the line, it should be directed TOWARDS the fire area, if possible. In buildings with elevators, an attempt should be made to direct the bleed AWAY from elevator shafts to help keep elevators serviceable for firefighting operations.
Note: The nozzle firefighter should never enter the fire area without a charged hoseline.
The long bleed is also particularly important when a 2 ½” hoseline is stretched from the apparatus as the lower friction loss of the 2 ½” hose will require lower discharge pressures - the ECC will need to manually set the operating pressure at the discharge gate while water is flowing. Without a long bleed, the ECC may not have the opportunity to set the pressure properly.
Eng Ch 6 2.2, 2.6.3, 2.6.5
Question 20:
When operating at the scene of ice/water/surf incidents, FDNY members must follow certain general safety precautions. Which one is incorrect?
A: Bunker gear shall never be worn when operating in the immediate vicinity of water/ice operations.
B: During night operations, members should not be allowed past the line of sight from the shore.
C: All members operating at or near a water emergency must wear a PFD.
D: Bunker gear does not float. Tests have shown that members wearing bunker gear with or without an SCBA will sink instantaneously.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Bunker gear shall ONLY BE WORN when operating in the immediate vicinity of water/ice operations WHEN ABSOLUTELY NECESSARY.
CROSS REF AUC 159 5.4.5: BUNKER GEAR SHOULD NOT BE WORN IN FLOODED AREAS
Water Rescue 1 2.2.4, 2.3, 2.4
Question 21:
Which action is incorrect upon discovery of alcohol in the firehouse?
A: Prohibit on-duty members from leaving the firehouse. Off-duty members can leave the firehouse
B: Immediately relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty
C: Immediately have the affected unit placed OOS
D: Notify the administrative Battalion Chief
E: Notify BITS and take a mark in the company journal
Answer: A
Explanation:
Prohibit on and off-duty members present at the time of discovery from leaving premises without the permission of the investigating officer. If any member is permitted to leave premises during an investigation, the investigating officer shall document the reason for the release in a report to be sent to the Chief of Department via the chain of command
AUC 202 sec 5.5
Question 22:
Roof operations at nonfireproof tenement fires can be hazardous. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy and directives?
A: The fronts of buildings are aligned, building depths may vary, and opened end shafts are generally located directly in the middle of the building. Members operating on the roof should not step over a parapet or wall without first feeling the adjoining surface with a tool.
B: If possible, the member on the roof should move from one roof to another near the front wall, always checking his/her footing. In order to alert members to the presence of openings, roof level skylights and/or scuttle covers if removed, should be placed upside down on the roof.
C: Before walking or moving on a roof when visibility is poor, or a heavy smoke condition exists, firefighters should crouch to a kneeling position. Members should probe the roof surface by either swinging a tool or leg in the direction of movement.
D: When momentarily blinded by smoke or darkness, and there is no immediate danger to the firefighter, it may be best for the member to remain in place until visibility is restored.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A) The fronts of buildings are aligned, building depths may vary, and opened end shafts are generally located TOWARD THE REAR. Members operating on the roof should not step over a parapet or wall without first feeling the adjoining surface with a tool.
Lad 3 5.2
Question 23:
Which CFR protocol outline below is incorrect?
A: The first due CFR unit, or second due if the first due is not available, will be assigned to every segment one call regardless of fallback status.
B: When an EMS unit is on-scene and a CFR unit arrives, the fire officer can immediately clear the scene and go 10-8.
C: Upon arrival of the company at a CFR call, the officer in charge will notify the fire dispatcher by going 10-84 via MDT. The company is not required to notify the fire dispatcher whether EMS is on the scene, since the EMS link will display that information electronically for the fire dispatcher.
D: Except for segment one calls, upon notification that EMS has arrived at a call location prior to the arrival of the assigned CFR unit, the responding company will automatically receive via MDT: “EMS on scene, enter 10-91, and go 10-8”.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B. When an EMS unit is on-scene and a CFR unit arrives, the fire officer WILL CONFER WITH THE EMS UNIT TO ENSURE BOTH UNITS HAVE RESPONDED TO THE SAME INCIDENT. THE CFR UNIT WILL REMAIN ON SCENE AND ASSIST UNTIL IT IS DETERMINED THAT THEIR ASSISTNACE IS NO LONGER NEEDED. AFTER CONFERING WITH THE EMS UNIT, THE FIRE OFFICER WILL DETERMINE WHAT SIGNAL TO TRANSMIT TO THE FIRE DISPATCHER.
BE AWARE THIS SECTION OF CFR CH 2 IS A BIT OUTDATED AS IT PERTAINS TO THE 10-91 SIGNAL AND THE 10-37-4 SIGNAL AS DESCRIBED IN COMM CH 8. READ THOSE TWO 10 CODES IN THE COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL IN CONJUNCTION WITH THIS SECTION OF CFR MANUAL AND BE AWARE OF THE CONFLICTS
CFR CH 2 3.2, 3.6, 3.8, 3.8.1
Question 24:
At a fire in a high rise office building, your unit is tasked with operating the building fire pump. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Follow signs or directions to the pump room which is normally located on the lowest floor (cellar or sub-cellar).
B: Locate the bypass valve on the inlet side of the fire pump, which can be readily identified by examining the gauges. The inlet gauge is calibrated for lower pressures than the discharge gauge.
C: The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem in). If found to be open, it should be closed by turning in a clockwise direction.
D: Some systems are quite complex and it is permissible to start the pump, when ordered, without checking the bypass valve. However, expect a loss of 25% in an 8” riser and 45% in a 6” riser with the bypass open.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B) Locate the bypass valve on the DISCHARGE side of the fire pump. The discharge side can be readily identified by examining the gauges. The discharge gauge is calibrated for HIGHER pressures than the inlet gauge.
D note: Notify the engineer upon his/her arrival if starting the pump without checking the bypass valve, and any other actions taken.
HROB 4.1.2
Question 25:
The covering officer in Ladder 177 is having a tough day on the department radio. Which is the only CORRECT signal transmitted by the officer during the tour?
A: The officer transmitted a 10-8 code 1 when returning to his response area from relocation.
B: The officer transmitted a 10-25 code 2 for smoke under pressure from a manhole.
C: The officer transmitted a 10-45 for a patient with 2nd degree burns from a hot water spill.
D: The officer transmitted a 10-76 for a major gas leak in a High-Rise office building.
Answer: B
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
B IS CORRECT – 10-25 Code 2 transmitted for fire has blown one or more manhole covers, or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure. pg 8-9
A – 10-8 code 1 is only used by chief officers.
C – 10-45 only transmitted for thermal burns at fire operations 8-14. 10-37 with appropriate sub code would be transmitted.
D – 10-75 is transmitted for a fire or emergency in the judgement of the incident commander. 1076 signal is only transmitted for FIRE in a High-Rise building. 8-20
Question 26:
Company officers in quarters shall be responsible to ensure relief of members operating at fires or emergencies when its at or near the change of tours. Units within __________ mile of the location of operations shall proceed on foot, or utilize public transportation, if available, to relieve members.
A: 1/4
B: 1/3
C: 1/2
D: 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Unless specifically ordered, no company shall remain in quarters later than 0930 or 1830 before proceeding to the location of operations
AUC 217 sec 2
Question 27:
Smoke stratification and thermal interface can offer significant clues to the situationally aware firefighter. Which of the following choices contains correct information?
A: A high interface could indicate the fire is in early stages of development or that you are remote from the fire area.
B: Gradual rising of the interface often indicates a buildup of hot fire gases, a situation that could progress to rollover and flashover if left uncontrolled. A sudden rising of the interface could indicate a rapid intensification of the fire.
C: A sudden lowering of the interface could indicate that ventilation has occurred.
D: A neutral plane that is at or near floor level may indicate that the fire is on a floor above.
Answer: A
Explanation:
B) Gradual LOWERING of the interface often indicates a buildup of hot fire gases, a situation that could progress to rollover and flashover if left uncontrolled. A sudden LOWERING of the interface could indicate a rapid intensification of the fire.
C) A sudden RISE in the interface could indicate that ventilation has occurred.
D) A neutral plane that is at or near floor level may indicate that the fire is on a floor BELOW.
TB FD Ch 2 3.5.5
Question 28:
The Tower Ladder is an extremely useful tool and versatile when utilized as a large caliber stream. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?
A: Only the Incident Commander may order the use of large caliber streams; this may be the first arriving officer.
B: Generally, two supply sources at the base of the Tower Ladder should be used. A Satellite Water Unit is the best source of supply if available.
C: The largest diameter hose should be used to supply a Tower Ladder. 200 - 250 psi is the recommended pressure at the gated inlet for an effective operation.
D: The Tower Ladder may be supplied at either side of the apparatus. Water flow to the Tower Ladder should be controlled at the supply source and water should always be shut down at the supply pumper.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B) Generally ONLY ONE supply source at the base of the Tower Ladder should be used. A Satellite Water Unit is the best source of supply if available.
TL Ch 3 4, 4.1
Question 29:
Some places of worship have a ventilation opening for the concealed attic space. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning these attic vents?
A: This ventilation opening provides an excellent location for water application to extinguish fire in the concealed attic or cockloft.
B: This ventilation opening is typically located on the front or rear of the long side of a place of worship.
C: When located in the front, the attic vent will be a few feet above the Rose window.
D: When fire is located in the large open area the first priority is a tower ladder stream into the attic vent.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D. When fire is located in the large open area the first priority is a tower ladder stream into the ROSE WINDOW. HOWEVER, WHEN FIRE IS NOT VISIBLE WITHIN THE LARGE AREA BUT SUSPECTED TO BE WITHIN THE CONCEALED AREA OF THE ATTIC OR COCKLOFT, WATER APPLICATION INTO THE VENTILATION OPENING IS THE PRIORITY.
WATER APPLICATION INTO THE VENTILATION OPENING SHOULD ALSO BE THE PRIORITY FOLLOWING THE CONTROL OF A FIRE WITHIN THE LARGE OPEN SPACE USING THE ROSE WINDOW.
Places of Worship 3.2
Question 30:
Which statement incorrectly describes the SCBA policy for a trapped member or civilian in a contaminated atmosphere?
A: Utilize the nearest available FAST Pak for trapped members
B: Utilize the nearest available FAST Pak for trapped civilians
C: Utilize a spare SCBA to for trapped members
D: Utilize a spare SCBA to for trapped civilians
Answer: B
Explanation:
For civilians, utilize a FAST Pak OTHER than the one assigned to the FAST Unit
AUC 220 sec 2.8
Question 31:
Which choice would require a written notification to the Bureau of Investigation and Trails (BITS)?
A: Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time
B: Arrest of a member
C: Physical altercations among members/serious confrontations with civilians
D: Dangerous misuse of Department vehicles
Answer: A
Explanation:
Immediate notification to BITS
- Arrest of a member
- Physical altercations among members/serious confrontations with civilians, dangerous misuse of Department vehicles
- On-duty incidents involving possession or use of drugs or alcohol
- On-duty confrontations between members and members of NYPD, or other government agencies, which may lead to possible disciplinary action
Written Notification to BITS
- Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time
- Misconduct by a member not falling within the jurisdiction of the IG
- Follow up information regarding the arrest of a member
- Preference of charges against a member
AUC 268A sec 3 and 4
Question 32:
The ability to properly use the MDT is an important responsibility for members, especially chauffeurs. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the use of the keys?
A: To acknowledge an assignment to an incident, relocation, or returning from relocation, the 10-4 (Orange) button must be pressed followed by the send button.
B: To acknowledge an assignment to an incident, relocation, or returning from relocation as a 4-firefighter engine company, the 10-14 (Yellow) button must be pressed.
C: To go available on the air, the 10-8 (Yellow) button must be pressed.
D: To release everybody except for the one engine or ladder designated, the 10-19 (Yellow) button must be pressed followed by the send button.
Answer: D
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
D IS CORRECT – 2.11.1 B & D – Double Action Key – The signal is not transmitted until the send key is depressed.
A – Single action key – not necessary to press send button. 2.11.1 A
B – Single Action Key – Not in use at this time (No 10-14 response designations) 2.11.1 A
C – 10-8 button is YELLOW – double action key – Operating units must hit 10-8 key and send when in service. 2.11.1A & D
Question 33:
To ensure that foam concentrates are not mixed, containers are color-coded (banded) around the top. What color identifies AR-AFFF?
A: Green
B: Red
C: Yellow
D: Black
Answer: B
Explanation:
Green: No longer in bulletin
Yellow: Hi-Expansion
Back: AFFF
Colors are on almost every test, especially a Lieutenants Exam
TB Foam 4.1
Question 34:
Telescoping ladders are extremely compact and versatile and may be particularly useful in many non-fire emergencies. Each of the choices below contain correct information regarding these ladders except?
A: They are easily carried by 1 member and can be transported through crowded, confined spaces.
B: When nested, the length is 32 inches. They can be extended incrementally up to just over 12 feet.
C: They are effective for quick deployment when laddering a fire building.
D: They shall not be used horizontally as a bridge or plank. They shall not be secured at the top and hung vertically (like a straight hook ladder).
Answer: C
Explanation:
C) They shall NOT be used for laddering a fire building due to lack of heat resistance.
Lad 1 8.5
Question 35:
Members are at MUD drilling on firefighter removal and the topic of the “safety team” starts being discussed. The following points are mentioned. Which one is correct?
A: When only one engine and one ladder are on scene, the safety team is comprised of the control firefighter and the LCC when the ladder has 4 or 5 firefighters.
B: Once firefighters enter the IDLH, both members of the safety team must account for firefighters inside the IDLH without performing other duties.
C: When only one 4 firefighter engine is on-scene, the officer and one firefighter can enter the IDLH for line advancement while two firefighters compose the safety team.
D: When an “understaffed” engine or ladder company (unit staffed with less than 4 firefighters) is the only unit on the scene, the company shall take a defensive position and may not enter the IDLH under any circumstances.
Answer: A
Explanation:
B. Once firefighters enter the IDLH, ONE MEMBER of the safety team must account for firefighters inside the IDLH without performing other duties.
C. When only one 4 firefighter engine is on-scene, the officer and one firefighter can enter the IDLH for SEARCH WITHOUT LINE ADVANCEMENT while two firefighters compose the safety team.
D. When an “understaffed” engine or ladder company (unit staffed with less than 4 firefighters) is the only unit on the scene, the company shall take a defensive position. HOWEVER, IF A KNOW LIFE HAZARD IS DISCOVERED AND IMMEDIATE ACTION COULD PREVENT THE LOSS OF LIFE, APPROPRIATE ACTION (RESCUE ACTIVITY) MAY BE TAKEN BY AN INDIVIDUAL MEMBER.
MMID 2.1.1, 2.3
Question 36:
What is the order of preference for access to the roof of a Brownstone at a structural fire?
A: Aerial Ladder, 2nd arriving Aerial Ladder, Adjoining Building
B: Aerial Ladder, Rear Fire Escape, Adjoining Building
C: Adjoining Building, Aerial Ladder, 2nd arriving Aerial Ladder
D: Adjoining Building, Rear Fire Escape, Aerial Ladder
Answer: A
Explanation:
Most brownstones do not have fire escapes.
BS/RF 2.2.7, 2.6 F
Question 37:
Which choice correctly describes the blue light in a Subway?
A: Near every blue light there will is a power removal box, a telephone, and a dry chemical fire extinguisher
B: Near every blue light there will is a power removal box, a telephone, and a emergency evacuation device
C: Blue lights are found at approximately 200 feet intervals throughout the subway system
D: Near every blue light there will is a power removal box, a telephone, and a pressurized water fire extinguisher
Answer: A
Explanation:
B- Emergency Evacuation Devices (EED) are found at the 1st blue light south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end). At elevated stations the EED is found near the full time token booth……EED can also be found at the base of emergency exits and at the ends of each river tunnel…AUC 207 add 11 sec 2
C- approximately 600 feet apart……section valves are every 200 feet apart
D- Dry Chemical Extinguisher
AUC 207 sec 8.1 and 8.5
Question 38:
What is the most prevalent type of fire escape found on loft buildings?
A: Standard
B: Counter-balance stairs/ladders
C: Vertical
D: Party Wall balconies
Answer: A
Explanation:
A
They serve multiple residents/tenants on an individual floor of the building. They have a width of 3-4 feet and stairway angles of 45 degrees, 60 degrees, 75 degrees or steeper. Constructed of steel or wrought-iron and long exposed to the deteriorating effects of the weather, firefighters operating on these fire escapes should spread out and move with caution.
Lofts 5.1.11 A
Question 39:
When investigating gas emergencies members must follow FDNY SOPs. Which one of the following guidelines is correct?
A: The first priority at natural gas emergencies is to locate and mitigate minor leaks.
B: When detector and meter readings were present at an inside call, it is acceptable to leave the scene of an “odor of gas” response after the odor has dissipated without mitigation or coordination with utility company representatives.
C: If the Engine arrives prior to the Ladder company for an inside call, the Engine officer should proceed to the reported location/caller noting odors, information gathered and detector/meter activity.
D: When the Ladder Company Inside Team arrives at the scene of an inside call for gas, if any natural gas levels are displayed on the natural gas detector upon entering the building, or while proceeding to the reported location within the building, they should proceed directly to the basement/cellar to evaluate conditions.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. The first priority at natural gas emergencies is to ENSURE THERE IS NOT A MAJOR GAS EMERGENCY. THIS IS FOLLOWED BY locating and mitigating minor leaks.
B. When detector and meter readings were present at an inside call, it IS NOT ACCEPTABLE to leave the scene of an “odor of gas” response after the odor has dissipated without mitigation or coordination with utility company representatives.
D. When the Ladder Company Inside Team arrives at the scene of an inside call for gas, if any natural gas levels are displayed on the NATURAL GAS METER upon entering the building, or while proceeding to the reported location within the building, they should proceed directly to the basement/cellar to evaluate conditions.
“D” WAS A TIGHT CHOICE. PAY ATTENTION TO THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE METER AND THE DETECTOR.
Natural Gas 6.5
Question 40:
All officers should be familiar with proper response and positioning of Engine apparatus. Which choice is not in accordance with Department policy?
A: The first due engine company should strive to enter the block ahead of the first ladder company and from the same direction.
B: Later arriving engine companies should ensure two ladder companies are on the block before entering narrow streets that could possibly leave ladder apparatus blocked out from the fire building.
C: Whenever in-line pumping is used, the ECC should be mindful of the possible need to augment their water supply. If intake pressure drops below 25 psi, the ECC must have their water supply augmented.
D: When receiving water via a relay, the supply pumper and operating pumper should both remain in the “Volume” position; however, for standpipe operations where head pressure needs to be overcome, the operating pumper switches to the “Pressure” position.
Answer: C
Explanation:
C) Whenever in-line pumping is used, the ECC should be mindful of the possible need to augment their water supply. If intake pressure drops below 15 PSI, the ECC must have their water supply augmented.
B Note: Also, later arriving engine companies should attempt to position their apparatus so the backstep is facing the direction of the operation. (It may be necessary to back into the block to achieve this.) This positioning will allow these engine companies to quickly assist the first due engine in the event of a 10-70.
Eng Ch 5 2.5, 2.7.3, 2.8.2, 2.8.3, 3.7.2
