Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ACG > INT > Flashcards

INT Flashcards

1
Q

Define: Observation

A

A collection of measurements, notes,images, etc. to describe a phenomenon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define: Conclusion

A

THe summary of the results of an experiment ot set of experiments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define: Theory

A

Different researchers following the published finding the same results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define : Reproducible Result

A

A synthesis of information and well-tested hypotheses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define: Hypothesis

A

A scientific idea undergoing testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Along with Astronomy, what scientific discipline would be most useful in : determining which elements are in a meteorite?

A

Chemistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Along with Astronomy, what scientific discipline would be most useful in : Determining the distance to nearby stars using a parallax?

A

Mathematics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Along with Astronomy: what scientific discipline would be most useful in : Using spectral lines to determine a star’s composition?

A

Chemistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Along with Astronomy: what scientific discipline would be most useful in : Assessing the impact of a meteor on an ecosystem?

A

Biology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Along with Astronomy: what scientific discipline would be most useful in Testing a prediction of theory of relativity?

A

Mathematics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Unit of Measure for : diameter of lung alveoli

A

Micrometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Unit of Measure for : Volume of air that cam be inhaled in a single breath

A

Liters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Unit of Measure for : Potential difference across a nerve synapse

A

Micrometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Unit of Measure for : Resistance to an electrical current

A

Ohms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Unit of Measure for: work done by pushing a refrigerator across a room

A

Joules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the mechanical advantage of a lever?

A

A lever can use a small force over a small distance to produce a large force over a large distance at the opposite end of the lever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Branch of Natural Science appropriate for: The study of forces, energy, heat, sound, light, and subatomic energies.

A

Physics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Branch of Natural Science appropriate for : The study of stars and planets.

A

Astronomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Branch of Natural Science appropriate for: The study of electricity and electrical currents.

A

Physics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Branch of Natural Science appropriate for: The study of the interactions between compounds and molecules.

A

Chemistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Branch of Natural Science appropriate for: The study of living organisms.

A

Biology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Branch of natural Science appropriate for : The study of geology, meteorology, and oceanography.

A

Earth Science

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Advancement in fossil dating methods have provided important evidence for physicists studying the big bang theory.

A

Statement that illustrates the impact of a natural science discovery in another discipline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A better understanding of the physical properties of sound has allowed for developments in liquid crystal displays.

A

Statement that illustrates the impact of a natural science discovery in another discipline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why must an Earth scientist understand chemistry?

A

Because chemical processes occur during the formation of sedimentary rocks and the processes in the core reflect processes occurring in the ocean.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hypothesis must be falsifiable, and results must be repeated.

A

This statement is a requirement of Scientific Inquiry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What makes a systems approach valid for scientific study?

A

Enables scientists to take into account the various parts of a system when making predictions about system behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the difference between a law and a theory?

A

Law explains why something should happen, Theory explains how something will happen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Aristotle believed that heavier objects fall faster than lighter ones based on his observation. How did new modes of thinking change his hypothesis?

A

Galileo experimented with different sized objects of the same material, nothing that they all fell at the same rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does the big bang theory serve as a unifying theme in cosmology?

A

It explains a wide variety of physical processes including thermonuclear fusion and gravitational contraction of stars.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Name 2 actions that produce a decrease in both the electrical force and the gravitational force between two charged objects.

A

Decreasing the electrical charge and the mass of both objects. Increasing the distance between the objects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A certain mass of hydrogen atoms is fused together within the Sun every second to become a lesser mass of helium atoms, and the missing mass is released as a radiant energy.

A

This describes the primary thermonuclear reaction that occurs within the sun.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2 phenomena that are the result of gravity between the moon and the earth.

A

Earth pulling the moon toward it. Phases of the moon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Reason as to why did the discovery of cosmic background radiation wavelength of 7.35cm help to support the big bang theory of the universe.

A

Wavelength matches the predicted value for the current temperature of the universe. Radiation is coming from the center of the universe and expanding outward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Reason as to why did the discovery of cosmic background radiation wavelength of 7.35cm help to support the big bang theory of the universe.

A

Wavelength matches the predicted value for the current temperature of the universe. Radiation is coming from the center of the universe and expanding outward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Life cycle stage when a star: Burns hydrogen as its primary fuel.

A

Red Giant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Life cycle stage when a star: Is no longer undergoing fusion.

A

White Dwarf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Life cycle stage when a star: Begins to have carbon build-up in the core.

A

Red Giant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Life cycle when a star: Burns helium as its primary fuel.

A

White Dwarf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Life cycle stage when a star: Is near the final stage of evolution.

A

Red Giant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which type of star will the Sun become?

A

Red Giant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Three helium nuclei are combined to form a carbon nucleus, releasing light energy?

A

Describes the process of thermonuclear fusion in a helium-burning star.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Frequency lower than that of visible light

A

Infrared waves,Microwaves,radio waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Frequency lower than that of visible light

A

Microwaves, Infrared, radio waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Frequency higher than that of visible light

A

X-Rays waves, Gamma Rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Frequency within visible light spectrum

A

Ultraviolet Waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Frequency higher than that of visible light

A

Gamma Rays, X-Rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Frequency lower that that of visible light

A

Radio waves, Infrared waves, microwaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

At what speed do all electromagnetic waves propagate in a vacuum?

A

at the speed of light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How does light act as a wave?

A

It hits air particle, causing the air to vibrate at the frequency of light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The sequence of the planets increasing in distance from the sun,

A

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, BELT, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Most massive planet

A

Jupiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Planet with the lowest density

A

Saturn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Planet that has a rotation axis that is tilted 98 degrees to the perpendicular of its orbit.

A

Uranus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Planet with a very strong magnetic field that produces the highest radiation levels ever measured in the solar system,

A

Jupiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Planet composed primarily of rock and nitrogen ice.

A

Pluto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Tool used to observe: Meteor shower

A

Optical telescope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Tool used to observe: Quasar

A

Optical telescope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Tool used to observe: Pulsar

A

Optical Telescope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Tool used to observe: Constellation

A

Unaided Eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Tool used to observe: Rilles on the moon’s surface

A

Optical telescope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Most practical use of: Ultraviolet Electromagnetic Waves

A

Killing bacteria and sanitizing instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Most practical use of: Microwaves

A

Cooking and heating food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Most practical use of: Gamma Rays

A

Medicine for cancer patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Most practical use of: X-Rays

A

Identify broken bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Most practical use of: Radio Waves

A

Transmit AM and FM radio stations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Description of Metamorphic Rocks

A

Can be foliated, contain minerals from igneous or sedimentary rocks, are crystallized from a melt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Carbon arranged in a crystal lattice,

Property of

A

Diamond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Nonfoliated and metamorphic.

Property of

A

Marble

70
Q

Large interlocking crystals of calcite.

Property of

A

Marble

71
Q

Coarse grained and plutonic.

Property of

A

Granite

72
Q

Four oxygen atoms joined to one silicon atom in a tetrahedron.
Property of

A

Silicate

73
Q

Occurs when there is a difference in electrical potential. Is, a flow of charged particles. Forms concentric rings around a current=carrying wire

A

Describes Electricity

74
Q

Deflects moving charged particles. Introduced by the flow of charged particle in the Earth’s liquid outer core.

A

Describes Magnetism

75
Q

Describe how table salt is bonded together sodium chloride.

A

Electrons in salt are transferred to form cations and anions, Chlorine and sodium fill their outermost energy shells by donating or gaining electrons

76
Q

How do molecules react to freezing?

A

They move slightly away from each other. They move more chaotically. They decrease in translational energy.

77
Q

Characteristic of the MANTLE layer of earth.

A

Contains iron rich silicate rock. Contains Mohorovicic discontinuity

78
Q

Characteristic of the CORE layer of earth.

A

Composed primarily of nickel and iron, Cannot be penetrated by S-waves.

79
Q

Characteristic of the CRUST layer of earth.

A

Contains the highest concentration of silicia.

80
Q

Describe the effects of the Earth’s Hadley Cells

A

Polar Desert. Trade winds. Ozone hole.

81
Q

How is tectonie movement producing the Himalayan mountain range?

A

A continental plate is colliding with another continental plate, causing upward motion. A lithospheric plate is colliding with another lithospheric plate of similar buoyancy, causing upward motion.

82
Q

Random molecular motion. Energy stored in glucose. Energy increased as an objects is raised to a greater height.

A

Characteristic of : Chemical Potential Energy

83
Q

Random molecular motion. Propagation of sound.

A

Characteristic of: Kinectic Energy

84
Q

Driving in a straight line at a constant speed.

A

Characteristic of Gravitational Potential Energy

85
Q

What is the law of conservation of energy?

A

Energy can not be created nor destroyed.

86
Q

How is energy transferred by radio waves?

A

Free electrons in the are are carried by radio waves until they are received by an antenna.

87
Q

Properties shared by BOTH light and sound waves.

A

Can reflect from rough surfaces. Exhibit refraction. Vibrations of a material medium.

88
Q

Property of Light waves.

A

Results from accelerating electrons.

89
Q

Property of Sound waves

A

Vibrations of electromagnetic fields.

90
Q

Illustrations of Newtons third law of motion.

A

A cannons recoils after shooting a cannonball, A pool ball accelerates after being hit with the pool stick.

91
Q

Solar energy heating the lithosphere increases the magma chambers until they erupt volcanically. Using solar energy, plants convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen through photosynthesis.

A

Describes the role of solar energy

92
Q

What effect does acid rain have on a marble building?

A

Dissolves the marble

93
Q

Examples of how glaciers affect the Earth’s surface.

A

They transport sediment and deposit it as moraines.They enhance soil reep on steep slopes.

94
Q

Which 2 gasses are most abundant in the Earth’s atmosphere?

A

Nitrogen and Oxygen

95
Q

Upon the passage of a cold front, which changes in atmospheric conditions does and observer on the ground experience?

A

Cloudiness decreases and then increases after the passage of the front. Air temperature increases and then decreases after the passage of the front.

96
Q

Application of Radioactive Tracer

A

Study engine wear in automobiles. Determine fertilizer absorption of plants. Diagnose disease. Locate leaks in faulty pipe system.

97
Q

Application of Radioactive Treatment

A

Provide radiation cancer therapy

98
Q

Technique/Tool - Satellite Remote Sensing

A

Assisting search and rescue operations, Assessing flood damage. Mapping the Earth’s surface.

99
Q

Technique/Tool - Seismometers

A

Inferring the structure of the Earth’s interior. Measuring earthquake magnitude.

100
Q

An example describing the relationship between abiotic and biotic components of a forest ecosystem.

A

Solar energy enabling plants to create organic molecules

101
Q

3 ways Nitrogen moves between the abiotic and biotic components of the environment.

A

Animals receive nitrated from the soil by injesting plants. Detritivores convert dead organic matter into ammonium. Plants convert organic nitrogen to soil nitrate.

102
Q

What is the effect of seasonal temperature variation on an organism living in a temperature forest?

A

A deciduous tree sheds its leaves in the fall.

103
Q

Scientist grows a population of staph bacteria on a sterile plate which changes color after they reproduce. This typically happens after 12hrs. Does another on a plate with antibiotic and color change after 4 days. Plausible REASON?

A

One or more of the bacteria had a resistance to the effects of the antibiotic.

104
Q

Population of rabbits is exposed to a lethal virus. Naturally immune rabbits survive infection by the virus and continue to breed while non-immune die. How does this support the theory of Evolution?

A

Scenario describes the process of natural selection and the effect of endosymbiosis.

105
Q

Give 2 examples of Parasitic Relationship

A

Fleas living on a dog. Tapeworm in people.

106
Q

Effect of a FOX being removed from a forest on the energy levels of the ecosystem.

A

Reduction of energy into the third level drops dramatically

107
Q

Effect of TREES being removed from a forest on the energy levels of the ecosystem

A

Energy input to the first trophic level drops dramataically

108
Q

Effect of a OWL being removed from a forest on the energy levels of the ecosystem

A

Reduction of energy into the third trophic level

109
Q

Effect of GRASS being removed from a forest on the energy levels of the ecosystem

A

Energy input into the first trophic level drops dramatacilly

110
Q

Effect of a RABBIT being removed from a forest o the energy elevels of the ecosystem

A

No drop in the first or second trophic levels

111
Q

Where does the majority of the energy go that a cow receives from eating grass.

A

Primary producers, maintenance, and secondary productivity

112
Q

Which resource defines a filter-feeding whales niche?

A

Plankton

113
Q

Examples of Eukaryote ANIMALS

A

Sponges, multicellular heterotrophs that nutrients by ingestion, Spiderd, multicellular heterotrophs with an exoskeleton

114
Q

Examples of Eukaryote PROTISTS

A

Giardia, a single celled heterotroph that causes severs gastric diseases in its host.

115
Q

Examples of Eukaryote FUNGI

A

Yeast, single celled heterotroph used in baking

116
Q

Examples of Eukaryote PLANTS

A

Mosses, multicellular terrestrial photosynthetic atotrophs

117
Q

Linnean Taxonomy thought

A

Birds and crocs share a common ancestor. Whales are more evolutionary related to bears than fish.

118
Q

Cladistic Taxonomy thought

A

Birds belong to the class Aves, and crocodiles belong to the class Reptillia. The scientific name for humans is Homo sapiens. Humans are more evolutionary related to button mushrooms than to celery.

119
Q

Survival-enabling trait of BIRDS

A

Have hollow bones and are endothermic

120
Q

Survival-enabling trait of FUNGI

A

Form symbiotic relationships with plant roots

121
Q

Survival-enabling trait of MAMMALS

A

Endothermic and give birth to live young

122
Q

Survival-enabling trait of FISHES

A

Some possess cartilaginous skeletons

123
Q

Survival-enabling trait of PLANTS

A

Xylem and phloem transport nutrients. Are autotrophs

124
Q

Why does an increase in the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere cause Earth’s average temperature to increase?

A

It causes greater thermal conduction at the Earth’s surface

125
Q

In which group do all atoms have seven valence electrons in the ground state?

A

Halogens

126
Q

Which parts of an atomic nucleus experience both repulsion due to the electrical force and attraction due to the strong nuclear force?

A

Protons and electrons

127
Q

The element Carbon has three isotopes that are commonly found in nature: 12.c 13.c and 14.c
What holds true?

A

The atomic mases of all three isotopes is equivalent. A 12.c atom contains 12 valence electrons

128
Q

HETEROGENEOUS MIXTURE examples

A

Solid sugar settled at the bottom of a glass of water. A volcanic ash cloud.

129
Q

SOLUTION examples

A

carbonated water without bubbles in a sealed closed container. Oxygen dissolved in water. Water containing gas bubbles.

130
Q

Match the nitrogenous base sequence with the base sequence that exists on the opposite DNA strand. ATCTCG

A

TAGAGC

131
Q

Match the nitrogenous base sequence with the base sequence that exists on the opposite DNA strand. ACCTGA

A

TGGACT

132
Q

Match the nitrogenous base sequence with the base sequence that exists on the opposite DNA strand. TCAATG

A

AGTTAC

133
Q

Match the nitrogenous base sequence with the base sequence that exists on the opposite DNA strand. TGCCAG

A

ACGGTC

134
Q

Match the nitrogenous base sequence with the base sequence that exists on the opposite DNA strand. GTCCAG

A

CAGGTC

135
Q

Which role does energy play in the formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen?

A

Energy is created by the reaction.

136
Q

Cell structure of EUKARYOTIC CELLS

A

May possess pili. Possess a nucleus. Can be unicellular or multicellular.

137
Q

Cell structure of both EUKARYOTIC CELLS and PROKARYOTIC CELLS

A

Contain chromosome DNA. Have a cell membrane.

138
Q

Scenario of DIFFUSION

A

There is movement of oxygen molecules across a membrane form areas of high to low concentration.

139
Q

Scenario of ACTIVE TRANSPORT

A

Carrier proteins using energy transport large molecules across the membrane.

140
Q

Scenario of FACILITATED DIFFUSION

A

Carrier proteins passively transport large or polar molecules across the membrane

141
Q

Scenario of EXOCYTOSIS

A

A vesicle fuese with the cell membrane and releases hormones outside of the cell

142
Q

Scenario of ENDOCYTOSIS

A

An invagination of cell membrane brings bacteria into the cell.

143
Q

2 statements that describe both Photosynthesis and Respiration

A

Photosynthesis is carried out by chloroplasts, respiration by mitochondria. Oxygen is the product of photosynthesis but is consumed during respiration.

144
Q

2 statements that are true of Mitosis and Meiosis

A

Results in diploid cells. Has two cell division stages.

145
Q

2 statements defining Mendels’ law of Segregation

A

Pairs of alleles on different chromosomes separate individually during gamete formation. Two alleles for a heritable character separate during sex cell formation, and each ends up different sex cells.

146
Q

Description of how cells, tissues, and organs of the circulatory system provide cells with oxygen,

A

Red blood cells found in blood pick up oxygen from the lungs, returning to the heart to be pumped to the body cells through arteries.

147
Q

Why do many radiation therapy patients have low red blood cell count?

A

Bone marrow cells do not divide and therefore can not repair damage.

148
Q

Genetic technology applications of: DNA FINGERPRINTING

A

Pedigree construction. Determination of paternity. Matching evidence of a suspect.

149
Q

Genetic technology applications of RECOMBINANT DNA

A

Synthetic insulin production. Engineering microorganisms to extract heavy metals.

150
Q

Objects to be observed with a SCANNING MICROSCOPE (SEM)

A

Virus coated with gold. Contours of an insects exoskeleton. Surface of yeast nucleus.

151
Q

Objects to be observed with a TRANSMISSION ELECTRON MICROSCOPE

A

Thin section of a plant mitochondrion. Isolated bacterial cell membrane stained with heavy metal

152
Q

The cells that allow the immune system to respond more quickly to an antigen when it is encountered again later in life are called

A

Memory Cells

153
Q

During the inflammatory response,

A

damaged tissues release histamines, fluid leaks from capillaries, causing swelling.

154
Q

A difference between the innate immune system and the acquired immune system is

A

the innate immune system response is immediate, whereas the acquired immune response is delayed, peaking about 3 to 5 days after exposure.

155
Q

Urine flows from the bladder out of the body through the

A

Uretha

156
Q

From the glomerulus, _____ moves into the ____

A

the filtrate, Bowman’s capsule

157
Q

A highly acidic mix of hydrochloric acid and digestive enzymes is added to food in the

A

stomach

158
Q 
Which of the following structures are involved in moving air in and out of the lungs?
A. Muscles between the ribs
B. the diaphragm
C. the epiglottis
D. both A and B
A

Muscles between the ribs
The Diaphragm

D. both A and B

159
Q

Carbon dioxide moves from the bloodstream to the alveoli through the process of

A

diffusion

160
Q

Blood flowing back to the heart travels in

A

veins

161
Q

From which blood vessels are materials exchanged between blood and body tissues?

A

capillaries

162
Q

Blood in the left ventricle of the heart will be pumped to

A

arteries going to body tissues

163
Q

Neurons that carry messages from the central nervous system to muscle cells or to other responsive organs are called

A

motor neurons

164
Q

The heart is an example of

A

an organ

165
Q

what is more likely to develop in older people who have been exposed to mutagenes (mutation-causing agents)

A

Cancer

166
Q

Which would produce a frame shift mutation?
A. the deletion of a single nucleotide in a gene
B. coding sequence the insertion of a single nucleotide in a gene.
C. coding sequence the replacement of one nucleotide with another in a gene
D. coding sequence

A

A. the deletion of a single nucleotide in a gene-coding sequence

B. the insertion of a single nucleotide in a gene- coding sequence

167
Q

A mutation in which one nucleotide is substituted for another is called a

A

point mutation

168
Q

Codons that signal that there are no more amino acids in a protein are

A

stop codons

169
Q

If an organisms diploid cells have 40 chromosomes, then its haploid cells have

A

20 chromosomes

170
Q

During which stage of the cell cycle does a cell divide?

A

Mitosis

171
Q

In the process of osmosis

A

A. Water diffuses from an area with a high concentration of water molecules to an area with a low concentration of water molecules
B. Water moves from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration.

172
Q

Water moves in and out of cells through

A

diffusion

ACG (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions